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Up to the immediate present 400-351 exam cram(6-27)

QUESTION 6. Serendipity Securities, Inc. has two major business objectives:
1. Ensure consistent customer information and service capabilities across all product lines and all customer
 channels (interactive voice response, call centre, and website)
2. Maintain business unit autonomy so new products and/or services can be introduced in a timely fashion.What is the likelihood of achieving all the objectives through an SOA program?
A. Both objectives can be met; both agility and consistency are complementary.
B. It is unlikely the objectives can be met because agility and consistency are contradictory.
C. There is a tradeoff between agility and consistency in dealing with product information, and some compromise must be made between the business units
D. There is a tradeoff between agility and consistency in dealing with customer information, and some compromise must be made between the business units
400-351 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 7. Acme, Inc. is conducting an SOA transformation program. The program has been accepted by IT senior management. The SOA steering committee has determined the appropriate priorities and complexities of services, and how they should be harvested. The technical team has a good architectural understanding of the design considerations and infrastructure needed to support the target services. Acme has not yet constructed or harvested any services. What should Acme focus on next?
A. Focus on developing the initial shared services reference architecture
B. Services should be classified and categorized by their relative risk and business priority
C. A cost model should be constructed to evaluate best sequencing of services
D. Initial common services such as authentication, exception handling, and logging should be harvested and/ or constructed
Answer: D

QUESTION 8. FlyHigh Airlines is planning their SOA program. An initial assessment of capability has been made, but no other planning has begun to date. What should FlyHigh focus on next?
A. Focus on developing the initial shared services reference architecture
B. Services should be classified and categorized by their relative risk and business priority
C. A cost model should be constructed to evaluate best sequencing of services and assess the required infrastructure investment
D. Common services such as authentication, exception handling, and logging should be constructed

400-351 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 9. Johnston Marks, a regional bank, are looking to use SOA as a way to improve their product development processes to support their growing business. Their primary problem is in dealing with the volume and diversity of information required in developing a product. Currently, usage feedback, marketing research information, and industry intelligence is gathered through a variety of legacy systems, spreadsheets, desktop databases, letter mail, and FAX. Which two goals are most appropriate for leveraging SOA in this process improvement exercise?
A. Reduce variance and ensure repeatability of the process
B. Eliminate some sources of information through services
C. Provide more consistent and managed interfaces to the various information sources
D. Enable the incorporation of newer and higher volume sources into the process
Answer: CD

QUESTION 10. Click the Exhibit button.
An automated business process requires human intervention only if an event occurs during its execution. What is the term for this pattern? (See Exhibit for picture)
A. Fork/Join
B. Escalation
C. Delegation
D. Exception Handling
400-351 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are valid policy simulation types in Clearpass? (Choose 3)
A. Role Mapping
B. Endpoint Profiler
C. Authorization Attributes
D. Chained Simulation
E. Enforcement Policy
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
The screenshot here from the Event Viewer in ClearPass shows an error when a user does an EAP-TLS authentication to ClearPass through an Aruba Controller’s Wireless Network. What is the cause of this error?
A. The client has sent an incorrect shared secret for the 802.1X authentication.
B. The controller has sent an incorrect shared secret for the RADIUS authentication.

C. The client’s shared secret used during the certificate exchange is incorrect.
D. The controller’s shared secret used during the certificate exchange is incorrect.
E. The NAS source interface IP is incorrect.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements is true about the Policy Simulation test figure shown below?
A. The simulation test result shows the roles assigned to the client by the Aruba Controller.
B. The roles assigned in the result are based on rules matched in the AD Role Mapping Policy.
C. The test verifies that a client with username test1 can authenticate using EAP-PEAP.
D. Role mapping simulation verifies if Table6 Wireless service has been configured correctly.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What types of files are stored in the Local Shared Folders database in Clearpass? (Choose 2)
A. Backup Files

B. Software image
C. Log files
D. Generated Reports
E. Device fingerprint dictionaries
400-351 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
A University wants to deploy ClearPass with the Guest module. They have two types of users that need to use web login authentication. The first type of users are students whose accounts are in their Active Directory Server. The second type of users are friends of students who need to self-register to access the network. How should the service be setup in the Policy Manager for this Network?
A. Create a service with the Guest User Repository as the Authentication Source and the Active Directory Server as the authorization source.
B. Create a service with the Active Directory Server as the Authentication Source and the Guest User Repository as the authorization source.
C. Create a service with the Guest User Repository and Active Directory servers as Authentication Sources.
D. Create a service with only the Guest user Repository as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository and Active Directory server as authorization sources.
E. Create a service with the Guest User Repository or Active Directory server as the single Authentication Source.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following use cases will require a ClearPass Guest application license? (Choose 2)
A. Sponsor based guest user access
B. Employee personal device registration
C. User self registration for access
D. Guest device fingerprinting
E. Endpoint health assessment
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Below is a screenshot of the Guest Role Mapping Policy: What is the purpose of this Role Mapping Policy?
A. To send a firewall role back to the controller based on the Guest User’s Role ID.
B. To assign Controller roles to guests.
C. To display a role name on the Self-registration receipt page.
D. To assign ClearPass roles to guests based on the guest’s Role ID as seen during authentication.
E. To assign all 3 roles of [Contractor], [Guest] and [Employee] to every guest user.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
An administrator logs in to the Guest module in ClearPass and under ‘List Accounts’ sees the following:  If a user with username [email protected] tries to access the Web Login page, what would we expect to happen?
A. The user will not be able to access the Web Login page.
B. The user will be able to login and authenticate successfully but they will be immediate disconnected after.
C. The user will not be able to login and authenticate.
D. The user will be able to login for the next 4.9 days, but after this they will not be able to login anymore.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
BGP is configured on two peers, routers A and B. Router A is configured with a Hold Time timer of 60 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 25 seconds. Router B is configured with a Hold Time timer of 90 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 70 seconds. What will the active Keepalive timer be on router B?
A. 70 seconds
B. 25 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following statements regarding the Internet is FALSE?
A. It is a global network relying on interconnections provided by Internet service providers.
B. It is a continuous and interconnected set of public IP networks, advertised and shared across the globe.
C. It is a settlement-free global network that provides interconnection between Internet service providers.
D. It is a network that allows any Internet service provider to reach every other Internet service provider in the world.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an AS to be considered multi-homed?
A. A single connection to a single service provider.
B. Two connections to a single service provider.
C. Two connections to two different service providers.
D. Multiple connections to different service providers.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
What are the well-known mandatory BGP attributes?
A. Origin, Next Hop and Local Preference.
B. Local preference, AS Path and Next Hop.
C. Aggregator, Next Hop and AS Path.
D. AS Path, Next Hop and Origin.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following best describes the relationship between locally configured policies and the direction of traffic?
A. Import policies affect the way the local AS receives traffic, while export policies affect the way it sends traffic.
B. Import policies affect the way the local AS sends traffic, while export policies affect the way it receives traffic.
C. Both import and export policies affect the way the local AS receives traffic, but not the way it sends traffic.
D. Both import and export policies affect the way the local AS sends traffic, but not the way it receives traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What kind of BGP attribute is the Local Preference?
A. Optional transitive attribute.
B. Optional non-transitive attribute.
C. Well-known mandatory attribute.
D. Well-known discretionary attribute.
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is TRUE?
A. There can only be one community associated with a route.
B. Community is an optional non-transitive attribute.
C. Community is an optional transitive attribute.
D. Community is a well-known discretionary attribute.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Click the exhibit.
Assuming a full iBGP mesh in ISP 1, how does router R1 in ISP 1 handle a BGP update received from ISP 2?
A. The update is sent to router R2 in ISP 1.
B. The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1.
C. The update is sent to all routers in ISP 1.
D. The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1, and to router R3 in ISP 2.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Click on the exhibit. AS 65540 is using MPLS to provide BGP shortcuts for its iBGP routing. Which routers must be configured with the “configure router bgp igp-shortcuts rsvp-te” command?
A. Routers R6, R1, R4 and R5.
B. Routers R1and R4.
C. Routers R1, R2, R3 and R4.
D. Routers R2 and R3.
Correct Answer: B

400-351 dumps

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Up to the immediate present 400-151 exam cram(20-28)

QUESTION 20
You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. You have created the project network diagram as shown in the figure:  You are concerned about a risk on Activity G that if it happens will delay the project by four days. You would like to utilize float for Activity G. How much float is available for Activity G to help offset the risk event?
A. Five days
B. Four days
C. Eleven days
D. Zero
400-151 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is no float available for Activity G because it is on the critical path. Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates. Answer options B, A, and C are incorrect. There is no float available for Activity G because it is on the critical path.

QUESTION 21
Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables that have been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown. In her project, Beth is planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the project work. This approach to project management planning is known as what?
A. Imminent activity management
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Predecessor-only diagramming
D. Decomposition
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is a technique to plan and do the most imminent project work before moving onto the details that are far off in the project schedule and project plan. Rolling wave planning is a technique for performing progressive elaboration planning where the work to be accomplished in the near future is
 planned in detail at a low level of the work breakdown structure. The work to be performed within another one or two reporting periods in the near future is planned in detail as work is being completed during the current period.
Answer option D is incorrect. Decomposition is the process of breaking down work packages into the activity list.
Answer options A and C are incorrect. These are not valid project management terms.

QUESTION 22
Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to define the project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project completion date, so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to provide and account for all of the project activities, they should focus on one work package in the WBS at a time. In order to start the decomposition of the project work packages into activities, Gina will need all of the following except for which one?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. WBS
D. Enterprise environmental factors
400-151 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, Gina will not need the WBS directly, but will rely on the scope baseline. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in project management is a tool that defines a project and groups the project’s discrete work elements in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope of the project. A WBS element may be a product, data, a service, or any combination. WBS also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimating and control along with providing guidance for schedule development and control.
Answer option A is incorrect. The scope baseline is an input to define the project activities. Answer option
D is incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors are an input to define the project activities.
Answer option B is incorrect. Organizational process assets are an input to define the project activities.

QUESTION 23
You have created the project network diagram for the ABC project. You are exploring total float and free float for that project. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float and free float. What is the difference between total float and free float?
A. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date.
B. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors.
C. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project predecessors.
D. Total float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Total float is the time you can delay an activity without delaying the project end date, whereas free float is on each activity and does not affect the early start date of successor activities. Float, also called slack, is
  the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting any subsequent activities. There are two types of floats available: Free Float: It is the amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities. Total Float: It is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating schedule constraint. Float is calculated by using the critical path method technique. Answer options C, A, and D are incorrect. These are not accurate definitions of free float and total float.

QUESTION 24
John works as a project manager of the NHQ Project. He has created the project network diagram as shown in the figure:
Based on the project network diagram, how much float is available for Activity H if Activity B is delayed by four days and Activity E is delayed by two days?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Four
D. Five
400-151 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The path of ABEHJ will take 22 days to complete and cannot exceed 28 days or else the project will be late. If Activity B takes four additional days and Activity E takes two additional days, this adds (4+2= 6) six days to the path, bringing the path’s duration to exactly (22+6 = 28) days. There is no available float left for Activity D or H. Float or total float (TF) is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating a schedule constraint. It is calculated by using the critical path method technique and determining the difference between the early finish dates and late finish dates. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. There is no float available because the path’s duration has increased to 28 days.

QUESTION 25
Ben is the project manager for his organization. His project has 26 stakeholders this week and will have five additional stakeholders next week. How many more communication channels will Ben’s project have next week?
A. 140

B. 10
C. 325
D. 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ben’s project will have 140 more communication channels because of the five additional stakeholders. To solve the question, you will need to find the current stakeholder communication channels first, which is (26*25)/2= 325, and then find the difference of the number of channels for the five additional stakeholders. You can use the formula of N(N-1), where N is the number of stakeholders. In this example, the formula would read: Total number of communication channels that Ben will have next = ((31*30)/2)-((26*25)/2 =140
Answer option D is incorrect. Five is the number of additional stakeholders. Answer option B is incorrect. 10 is the number of communication channels among just five stakeholders. Answer option C is incorrect. 325 is the number of current communication channels.

QUESTION 26
You are the project manager for your company. You are working with the activities defined in the figure below. What will happen to your project if Activity F takes five additional days to complete than what was expected?
A. Your project’s critical path will shift to ACFI.
B. Your project will be late by five days.
C. Your project can still complete on time as float is available on Activity I.
D. Your project will now have two critical paths.
400-151 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Activity F is on the critical path of ACFHK of 30 days. By adding five additional days to Activity F, the
  project will now take 35 days to complete. Answer options C, A, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers.

QUESTION 27
You are the project manager for your organization. You need the oak cabinets for your project delivered by December 1 in order to install the floors around the oak cabinets by December 15. Your company’s procurement office generally takes 45 days to complete procurement orders. Based on this information, how should you schedule the lead time for the cabinet delivery?
A. Cabinet procurement December 1, plus 45 days lead time
B. Cabinet procurement November 15
C. Cabinet procurement December 1, minus 45 days lead time
D. Cabinet procurement December 15 minus 45 days lead time
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cabinet procurement and delivery must be completed by December 1. By scheduling the activity to finish on December 1 with minus 45 days lead time for procurement, the cabinets will arrive by the needed date.
Answer option A is incorrect. Lead time is always negative time, lag time is positive time. This choice would cause the cabinets to not arrive until 45 days after December 1. Answer option D is incorrect. This choice would cause the cabinets to arrive on December 15 when the floors are to be installed.
Answer option B is incorrect. This choice is not the best answer because it does not necessarily account for holidays, weekends, or other factors in the project calendar. By scheduling the cabinet for December 1 and working backwards through lead time, the project’s PMIS will account for these breaks in the project work.

QUESTION 28
Your project has a BAC of $750,000 and is 75 percent complete. According to your plan, however, your project should actually be 80 percent complete. You have spent $575,000 of your project budget to reach this point and you are worried about the project not being able to complete based on your current project budget. What is the to-complete performance index for this project?
A. 0.98
B. -$16,677
C. 1.07
D. 0.94
400-151 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The to-complete performance index can be found by using the formula (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC) for a value of 1.07. The higher the value is from 1, the less likely the project will meet the BAC. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)}
Answer option A is incorrect. 0.98 is the project’s cost performance index. Answer option D is incorrect. This is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. -$16,667 is the project’s variance at completion.

 

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QUESTION 1
Why should stop an interactive machine learning algorithm as soon as the performance of the model on a test set stops improving?
A. To avoid the need for cross-validating the model
B. To prevent overfitting
C. To increase the VC (VAPNIK-Chervonenkis) dimension for the model
D. To keep the number of terms in the model as possible
E. To maintain the highest VC (Vapnik-Chervonenkis) dimension for the model
300-160 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What is default delimiter for Hive tables?
A. ^A (Control-A)
B. , (comma)
C. \t (tab)
D. : (colon)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Certain individuals are more susceptible to autism if they have particular combinations of genes expressed in their DNA. Given a sample of DNA from persons who have autism and a sample of DNA from persons who do not have autism, determine the best technique for predicting whether or not a given individual is susceptible to developing autism?
A. Native Bayes
B. Linear Regression
C. Survival analysis
D. Sequence alignment
300-160 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
You are working with a logistic regression model to predict the probability that a user will click on an ad. Your model has hundreds of features, and you’re not sure if all of those features are helping your prediction. Which regularization technique should you use to prune features that aren’t contributing to the model?
A. Convex
B. Uniform
C. L2

D. L1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Which point in the figure is the median?
A. A
B. B
C. C
300-160 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Which point in the figure is the mode?
A. A
B. B
C. C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
Which point in the figure is the mean?
A. A
B. B
C. C
300-160 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Under what two conditions does stochastic gradient descent outperform 2nd-order optimization techniques such as iteratively reweighted least squares?
A. When the volume of input data is so large and diverse that a 2nd-order optimization technique can be fit to a sample of the data
B. When the model’s estimates must be updated in real-time in order to account for new observations.
C. When the input data can easily fit into memory on a single machine, but we want to calculate confidence intervals for all of the parameters in the model.
D. When we are required to find the parameters that return the optimal value of the objective function.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is the result of the following command (the database username is foo and password is bar)? $ sqoop list-tables – – connect jdbc : mysql : / / localhost/databasename – – table – – username foo – – password bar
A. sqoop lists only those tables in the specified MySql database that have not already been imported into FDFS
B. sqoop returns an error
C. sqoop lists the available tables from the database
D. sqoop imports all the tables from SQL HDFS
300-160 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What is the most common reason for a k-means clustering algorithm to returns a sub-optimal clustering of its input?
A. Non-negative values for the distance function
B. Input data set is too large
C. Non-normal distribution of the input data
D. Poor selection of the initial controls
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11. If a D-List item name is very long, it will result in a very wide column if that dimension of the D-Cube is placed on columns in Analyst. Which character can the modeler include in the D-List item to cause a line break so the column heading displays on two or more lines?
A. , (comma)
B. – (hyphen)
C. | (pipe)
D. ; (semi-colon)
300-160 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 12. When publishing data that will be reported on, why is it important for an administrator to carefully select the dimension for publish?
A. By selecting an appropriate dimension for publish, the administrator may not have to run Go to Production.
B. The dimension for publish is the D-List whose items become columns in the fact table.
C. The dimension for publish is the D-List whose items become rows in the fact table.
D. If the selected dimension for publish contains calculations it will not successfully publish.
Answer: B
QUESTION 13. Which Cognos 8 role is needed to ensure that only the required users, groups, and role have access to execute or schedule Contributor macros that are published to Cognos Connection?
A. Planning Rights Administrators
B. Planning Contributor Users
C. Directory Administrators
D. Server Administrators
300-160 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 14. An administrator wants to automate the process of updating a Contributor model to reflect changes made in Analyst. To perform this automation the administrator must create a macro. Which step must the administrator add to the macro?
A. Import
B. Synchronize
C. Enable Job Processing
D. Add Monitored Job Object
Answer: B
QUESTION 15. With which is the Get Data extension used?
A. Contributor to Analyst D-Links
B. Local Links

C. Administration Links
D. Contributor to Contributor D-Links
300-160 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16. Users of the Contributor Web grid want to be able to transfer their current data to an Excel file without having to leave the Web grid. How can an administrator enable this functionality in a future session?
A. Configure the Print to Excel extension.
B. Publish the data to Excel from the Contributor Administration Console.
C. Configure the Export for Excel extension.
D. Install the Contributor Add-in for Excel on the Contributor Administration server.
Answer: C
QUESTION 17. In the Contributor Administration Console, the Generate Framework Manager model administration extension creates a Framework Manager model from what type of data source?
A. A view only published data source
B. A table only published data source
C. A Contributor application data source
D. An Analyst application data source
300-160 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 18. Which is true when translating a Contributor application into another language?
A. Translations are created in the Translations screen of the Contributor Web site.
B. If a translation has been modified the administrator must run Go to Production for the change to take effect.
C. After an administrator has assigned a translation to a user class that translation can be safely deleted.
D. Translations are created in the production version of a Contributor application.
Answer: B
QUESTION 19. When a translator creates a translation there are two parts. The first part includes information from the underlying Analyst model, such as D-Cube names. What does the second part consist of?
A. Bitmap fonts (such as those for non-Latin character sets)
B. Code pages for non-standard keyboards
C. Generic strings for Contributor components (such as button names)
D. System locales that are specific to the Contributor application
300-160 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 20. In Analyst, according to best practices, which object would most likely be found in the common library?
A. A placeholder D-List that will be used as an e.List

B. A timescale D-List containing months of the year
C. A D-Link that imports data from an ODBC data source
D. A D-Link that transfers data from one model to another
Answer: B
QUESTION 21. Another modeler has sent a library containing a model for review. When an attempt is made to connect to it, an error message is received because a library with the same number already exists. What can be done to resolve this problem?
A. Assign a new number when adding the library to Analyst.
B. Delete the LIBACCES.TAB file in Windows so Analyst will assign a new number.
C. Remove the reference to the existing library and add it back later.
D. Change the library number of the existing library.
300-160 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 22. According to proven practice naming conventions, which number should be given to a D-List that contains complex calculations?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
QUESTION 23. Which type of D-List is used as an e.List in Contributor?
A. Versions
B. Hierarchical
C. Timescale
D. Calculations
300-160 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 24. An Analyst modeler wants to populate a D-List with an item that includes both the general ledger account number and description. According to Cognos recommendations, where is the best place to perform this concatenation?
A. Edit the original text file from the general ledger system.
B. In Framework Manager by creating a specific query item.
C. In the D-List after the import and manually updating the items.
D. In a D-Link using Matched Descriptions for source to target allocation.
Answer: B
QUESTION 25. A modeler wants to create a D-List containing all products sold by the company. The products are
  listed in a database table. What import method would the modeler use to create the products D-List?
A. Import from Another D-List
B. Import from ASCII-files
C. Import from Mapped ASCII-files
D. Import from ODBC
300-160 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 26. What is the fastest way for a modeler to create a weekly timescale D-List?
A. Create a normal timescale
B. Create a custom timescale
C. Create a standard D-List and save it as a Type 4 D-List
D. Create a timescale with a switchover date of seven days
Answer: B
QUESTION 27. Why does the order of D-Lists matter when creating a D-Cube?
A. It is difficult to restructure the D-Cube if the D-Lists are out of order
B. The order determines which D-Lists appear on pages, rows, and columns
C. It is easier to create D-Links if D-Lists are in the correct order
D. Calculations may not work properly if the D-Lists are out of order
300-160 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 28. Which is typically the correct order for selecting D-Lists when creating a D-Cube?
A. Months, Products, Profit & Loss, Versions, Regions
B. Profit & Loss, Regions, Products, Months, Versions
C. Regions, Months, Versions, Profit & Loss, Products
D. Versions, Regions, Months, Products, Profit & Loss
Answer: B
QUESTION 29. What will happen if a user clicks the Transpose button on the toolbar when a D-Cube is open in Analyst?
A. The D-List on rows is exchanged with the D-List on columns
B. The D-List on rows is exchanged with the first D-List on pages
C. The D-List on columns is exchanged with the first D-List on pages
D. All D-Lists are reoriented to appear as they did when first opened
300-160 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 30. In Analyst, the Sales Plan D-Cube opens with Regions on rows and Products on pages. What can the modeler do so Products appears on rows and Regions appears on pages every time the D-Cube is opened?
A. Reorient the D-Cube as desired and then apply the Hold command
B. Restructure the D-Cube so Products appears before Regions
C. The modeler must manually reorient the D-Cube each time
D. Create a saved selection for the D-Cube
Answer: D

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QUESTION 13
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language execution environment
for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which type of zoning is represented? zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 18
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 20
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager

D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which protocol does Cisco Nexus 1000V use to provide flow redirection for vService interaction?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. FlexPath
D. VLAN bridging
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What are the key features of UCS?
A. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B. Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO
options
D. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?
A. VMware, HyperV, Linux
B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux
C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM

D. VMware, HyperV, KVM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 26
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
210-451 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 28
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.

B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its\’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
210-451 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management
and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION: 31
Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team is called which of the following?
A. Team training
B. Co-location
C. Team location
D. Organization training
210-451 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 32
Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following
conflict management techniques?

A. Smoothing
B. Compromising
C. Avoiding
D. Forcing
Answer: A
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Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 383

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Question No : 9  Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
300-075 exam Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 10  When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.
Answer: C
Question No : 11  Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a VCS Control server with video endpoints registered on both systems. Users find that video endpoints registered on Call manager can call each other and likewise for the endpoints registered on the VCS server. The administrator for Company X realizes he needs a SIP trunk between the two systems for any video endpoint to call any other video endpoint. Which two steps must the administrator take to add the SIP trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a SIP trunk on Cisco UCM with the option Device-Trunk with destination address of the VCS server.
B. Set up a subzone on Cisco UCM with the peer address to the VCS cluster.
C. Set up a neighbor zone on the VCS server with the location of Cisco UCM using the menu option VCS Configuration > Zones > zone.
D. Set up a SIP trunk on the VCS server with the destination address of the Cisco UCM and Transport set to TCP.
E. Set up a traversal subzone on the VCS server to allow endpoints that are registered on Cisco UCM to communicate.
300-075 dump Answer: A,C
Question No : 12  Which three options are overlapping parameters for roaming when a device is configured for Device Mobility? (Choose three.)
A. device pool
B. location
C. network locale
D. codec
E. MRGL
F. extension
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
The overlapping parameters for roaming-sensitive settings are Media Resource Group List, Location, and Network Locale. The overlapping parameters for the Device Mobility-related settings are Calling Search Space (called Device Mobility Calling Search Space at the device pool), AAR Group, and AAR Calling Search Space. Overlapping parameters configured at the phone have higher priority than settings at the home device pool and lower priority than settings at the roaming device pool.
QUESTION 13
If a product’s weight was specified to be 300 grams but could only be built to a weight of 400 grams, which of the following would be created?
A. Exception Plan
B. Request for change
C. Off-specification
D. Exception Report
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to anything agreed in the Project Initiation Documentation
B. Ensure any potential changes to baselined products are controlled
C. Ensure that the correct versions are delivered to the customer
D. Assess changes to only the specialist products
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which product confirms the version numbers of all products being developed within a given stage?
A. Configuration Item Record
B. Stage Plan
C. Work Package
D. Product Status Account
300-075 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Identify the missing word from the following sentence… PRINCE2 uses the term [ ? ] to cover any relevant event that has happened, was not planned, and requires management action?
A. Risk
B. Change
C. Issue
D. Exception
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
According to PRINCE2, as well as holding informal problems/concerns, which product can also be used to record required actions or significant events not caught elsewhere?
A. Daily Log
B. Risk Register
C. Issue Register
D. Project notebook
300-075 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which option describes something that should be provided by the project, but currently is not (or is
forecast not to be) provided?
A. Problem/concern
B. Concession
C. Off-specification
D. Exception Report
300-075 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
According to the Change theme, which of the following contains the steps of the recommended issue and change control procedure?
A. Capture, Examine, Analyze Impact, Review Probability, Implement Action
B. Capture, Log, Review, Resolve
C. Assess, Decide, Escalate, Implement
D. Capture, Examine, Propose, Decide, Implement
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 484

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
300-101 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router (gateway of last resort).
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit
300-101 dumps
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry. In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.
QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
300-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs. Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them. Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously.
QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some 
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/ UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput. TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions.
QUESTION 5 
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
300-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.

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Q&As: 95

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QUESTION: 55
How would you designate a “go to” destination for a flow to continue processing, providing an alternative to the normal, sequential processing of the flow? (Choose One)
A. Use a fork to branch the flow
B. Use a decision to branch the flow

C. Create an activity to branch the flow as needed
D. Set a ticket on the destination shape, and then call the ticket as needed
70-695 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 56
Which shape should be used to call a decision tree to evaluate work object properties? (Choose One)
A. Shape 1
B. Shape 2
C. Shape 3
D. Shape 4
Answer: B
QUESTION: 57
Review the following diagram:
If the WithinLimit shape references a Decision Tree rule, which type of connector is OverLimit? (Choose One)
A. When
B. Status
C. Always
D. Flow Action
70-695 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 58
If a flow is placed in Draft mode, which of the following two statements are true? (Choose Two)
A. Additional shapes cannot be added
B. Rules may be referenced that do not yet exist
C. The flow can be executed
D. The flow rule is not subject to rule resolution
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 59
Which of the following three shapes are available in a screen flow? (Choose Three)
A. Utility
B. Integrator
C. Subprocess
D. Assignment Service
E. Split Join
F. Decision
70-695 pdf Answer: A, C, F
QUESTION: 60
Which shape should be used to call a connector in a flow? (Choose One)
A. Shape 1
B. Shape 2
C. Shape 3
D. Shape 4
Answer: C
QUESTION: 61
What is the result of clicking the Where-am-I? ( ) button on a work item form? (Choose One)
A. The harness rule currently in use is displayed in the Designer Studio
B. The user’s worklist is displayed
C. The flow diagram of the current flow rule is displayed in a separate window with an arrow marking the current assignment
D. The user’s Organization, Division and Unit information from the clipboard is displayed within a separate XML window
70-695 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 62
(True or False) Embedded pages cannot be nested in other embedded pages.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
QUESTION: 63
Which property mode may use a non-numeric subscript? (Choose One)
A. Java Object
B. Single Value
C. Page Group
D. Page List
70-695 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 64
Review the following clipboard page:
If pyWorkPage is considered the primary page of an activity, what is the correct way to identify the property reference to ClaimAmount in the PastClaims page? (Choose One)
A. .PastClaims.ClaimAmount(1)
B. pyWorkPage.PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
C. .PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
D. .ClaimAmount
Answer: C
QUESTION: 65
Review the following screenshot:
In the Miscellaneous Items section, the user can enter several item names. The entered values are stored in the Items property. Which type of property is this? (Choose One)
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Single Value
D. Value List
70-695 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 66
Page List properties typically reference a class derived – directly or indirectly – from which superclass? (Choose One)
A. Data
B.Work
C.Embed
D.Index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 67
Validate rules may be specified in which one of the following rule types to validate the properties displayed on the user interface? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Section
C. Harness
D. Flow
70-695 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 68
By default, where in the database is the data collected by a property you create as part of your data model is stored? (Choose One)
A. The BLOB column
B. A dedicated column
C. A lookup table
D. A declarative index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 69
Which of the following statements is false? (Choose One)
A. Page properties can consist of an ordered list of unique property names
B. Threads contain information about a requestor’s sessions and associated thread(s), the application they are accessing, its context, the operator and their organization
C. The name of a page may not derive from system-created pages with reserved names and purposes

D. pyWorkPage page is a common clipboard page that contains information created during the processing of a work item
70-695 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 70
When creating a data transform, what should you do if the number of rows exceeds 25 rows? (Choose One)
A. In the final row, call an activity to perform the remaining actions
B. Move all of the Set actions rows to the pyDefault data transform rule to reduce the number of rows
C. In the final row, use the Apply Data Transform action to invoke another data transform that defines the additional actions
D. Use the <APPEND> keyword in actions instead of adding rows for the Append action
Answer: C
QUESTION: 71
A data transform in the PurchaseOrder-Work class uses the Set action to set a value for the property BillingState on the Customer page. The value is MA. The Customer page is specified on the Pages & Classes tab of the data transform rule form. Which one of the following describes how to specify the row in the rule form for accomplishing this Set action without any errors or warnings upon saving the rule form? (Choose One)
A. Select Set in the Action column, enter Customer.BillingState in the Target column, and enter MA in the Source column
B. Select Set in the Action column, enter Primary.BillingState in the Target column, and enter MA in the Source column
C. Select Set in the Action column, enter Primary.BillingState in the Target column, and enter “MA” in the Source column
D. Select Set in the Action column, enter Customer.BillingState in the Target column, and enter “MA” in the Source column
70-695 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 72
When creating a work item, which of the following rules can be used to set the initial value of a property? (Choose Two)

A. Property
B. Declare Expressions
C. Data Transform
D. Declare Pages
Answer: B, C

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Exam Code: 70-694
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Q&As: 112

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70-694 dumps

QUESTION 28
Administrative Closure should occur ___________.
A. At the end of each phase of the project
B. At the end of the whole project
C. At the end of 50% of the project
D. At the end of 100% of the project
70-694 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Administrative Closure should occur at the end of each phase, not only at the end of the overall project
QUESTION 29
In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?
A. During the initiation stage

B. During the planning stage
C. After approval of budget
D. After the project is proven feasible
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions Project manager is
assigned to a project During the initiation stage.
QUESTION 30
Who gives project acceptance?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. Team Lead
70-694 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Customer gives project acceptance. Customer may be person or organization.
QUESTION 31
A requirement document is an input of __________ process?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A requirement document request is an input to Define Sco
QUESTION 32
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?
A. Direct ar|d Indirect
B. Tactical and Strategic
C. Management and Project
D. 0n|y Tactical
70-694 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. When doing this analysis, it should include both
direct and indirect costs so that the final decision is based on comparisons that are equal.
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?
A. Requirements document created in collect requirements process
B. Project files from previous projects
C. Project Charter
D. Al1 of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Define Scope – Inputs Requirements document created in collect requirements process, Project Charter
and Organizational Process Assets (Project files from previous projects, lesson learned)
QUESTION 34
Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a project?
A. RACI mAl,x
B. sow
C. Staffing management plan D)0 CPI
70-694 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The RACI matrix lists responsibilities of all resources. The staffing management plan only lists types of
resources and timing.
QUESTION 35
_________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
A. ISO
B. CAPM
C. pMI
D. iscn
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ISO is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
QUESTION 36
The work breakdown structure is ________.
A. Used to break down the project into manageable pieces
B. Set and does not change throughout the project
C. Needed as part of the project charter
D. [Needed as part of the project scope statement

70-694 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): A deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements which organizes
and defines the total scope of the project. It sub divide the major tasks to minor details.
QUESTION 37
If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule
B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.
QUESTION 38
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have assigned
the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?
A. Pi’ojectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional
70-694 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full authority to
assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project. Strong Matrix: The project
manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff. Project manager has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix: Power reset with Functional Manager. Functional: In this organization
Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager like marketing
engineer, sales engineer.
QUESTION 39
At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?
A. The beginning of the project
B. ^ust before the end of the project
C. QA Phase
D. Execution phase
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk and uncertainty are the highest at the beginning or a project.
QUESTION 40
From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure?
A. The customer
B. The qualify director
C. Project management office
D. Project manager
70-694 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
need to gain this formal acceptance at project closure from the customer and sponsor.

QUESTION 41
Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?
A. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total.
B. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
C. Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.
D. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total. It is more accurate.

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.
If Server A is an FTP server, which setting will enable active FTP optimization on Steelhead Mobile Client
R?
A. Steelhead A. in-path auto srcport 20
B. Steelhead A. in-path auto dstport 20
C. Client R: in-path auto dstport 20
D. Default auto-discovery rules will work
E. None of the above
200-155 exam 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit.
If Steelhead Mobile Client B offers up a share on the network, what is needed on Steelhead Mobile Client
R to open an optimized connection to this share if enhanced auto-discovery is enabled on all Steelhead
appliances?
A. Default auto-discovery will work fine without modification
B. The connection to Client B cannot be optimized because the Steelhead Mobile Controller cannot
optimize incoming connections
C. A fixed-target rule to Client B’s IP address is needed in order for optimization to occur on Mobile Client B
D. The addition of a peering rule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
Company X has many offshore oil rigs they want to bring optimization to. The only available connection is through a satellite that has frequent bursts of packet loss. There are very few users per rig and HTTPS based SharePoint performance is so poor they often time out pulling down even a small file. CIFS often does not work at all. They are considering the Steelhead Mobile solution to solve this problem. You suggest they deploy a Steelhead in-path at the data center and:
A. Steelhead Mobile with FEC turned on to help with lossy links
B. Steelhead Mobile with HS-TCP configuration
C. Steelhead Mobile running MX-TCP to deal with the loss
D. Deploy Steelhead appliances with MX-TCP to deal with the loss
E. Deploy Steelhead appliances with HS-TCP, Window Scaling, fixed-target rules, and TCP New Reno to
overcome the loss
200-155 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 86
Is any user data sent across the out-of-band (OOB) connection of a Steelhead appliance?
A. No data is sent across this connection
B. Yes, only after 60 seconds
C. Yes, when the peer Steelhead appliance requests information
D. Yes, when the connection is setup
E. Yes, every 30 seconds
F. Yes, every 30 minutes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
The Node B antenna gain is 17 dB and receiver sensitivity 112 dBm, radiated power
(EIRP) of user equipment (Ue) is 18 dBm and feeder cable loss is 3 dB. What is the
MAXIMUM path loss?
A. 114 dB
B. 116 dB
C. 144 dB
D. 147 dB
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Physical channel power optimisation has to be done at the level of:
A. routing area and CELLDCH state.
B. RNC and cell area.
C. location and routing area.
D. site and cell area.
Answer: B
QUESTION 89
In the case of compressed mode and lower spreading code usage:
A. there is no impact on interference level.
B. the average interference level increases approximately 20%.
C. the average interference level increases approximately 5%.
D. the interference level is reduced approximately 5%.
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Too wide soft handover areas can be indicated MOST easily by:
A. measuring CPICH coverage.
B. calculating inter cell interference.
C. comparing actual active set sizes.
D. monitoring traffic.

Answer: C
QUESTION 91
How can the cell/area data traffic profile best be monitored?
A. Measuring RT and NRT throughput.
B. Following up cell loading classes.
C. Counting RAB PS attempts.
D. Following up DCH channel allocations.
200-155 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 92
DCH traffic has the smallest impact on:
A. coverage area.
B. hard or soft blocking.
C. soft handover triggering.
D. lub utilisation.
Answer: C
QUESTION 93
Minimum coupling loss (MCL) is the minimum allowed:
A. overall loss between BTS and UE.
B. Loss from the UE to the MHA.
C. loss in antenna line.
D. loss from the UE Tx to BTS antenna.
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 94
If the NodeB antenna direction has been modified:
A. pilot coverage areas need no recalculation.
B. new EbNo values have to be selected.
C. softer handover areas are changed.
D. power control parameters need to be changed.
Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?

A. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
B. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the same scrambling code group.
C. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
D.There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 96
Which one of the following statements relating to WCDMA inter-working is TRUE?
A. Inter frequency measurements have IMSI verification.
B. Inter system measurements have BSIC verification.
C. Inter system measurements have IMSI verification.
D. Inter frequency measurements have BSIC verification.
Answer: B
QUESTION 97
The Common Control Channel (CCCH) is:
A. a uni-directional channel for transmitting control information from network to UEs.
B. a uni-directional channel for transmitting control information from UEs to network.
C. only used by mobiles having RRC connection with the network.
D. a bi-directional channel for transmitting control information between network and
UEs.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 98
Which one of the following statements concerning simulations on the planning tool is
NOT true?
A. Monte Carlo simulation is a form of static simulation.
B. Static simulations make use of an iterative process.
C. Static simulation is a time consuming process.
D. Simulations are not dynamic.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 828

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about asymmetric routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It can cause packet loss over stateful ICMP and UDP connections
B. It can cause packet loss when a stateful firewall is in use.
C. It can cause TCP connections to close.
D. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use.
E. It is uncommon in large networks.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which PIM mode can forward traffic by using only (*.G) routing table entries?
A. Space-dese mode
B. Bidirectional mode
C. Deuce mode
D. Sparse mode
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Refer To the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which IS-IS process is responsible for flooding local link information to adjacent routers ?
A. decision
B. receive
C. forward
D. update
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller note ?
(Choose two)
A. Neutron server plugin
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Neutron layer 2 agent
D. Identify Service
E. Neutron Layer 3 agent
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit
400-101 dumps
Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. It creates an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60
B. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops.
C. It prevent the device from falling back to dense mode.
D. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds.
E. It configure the router as the rendezvous point
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Exhibit:
400-101 dumps
Your network is suffering excessive output drops. Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem?
(Choose two.)
A. Install a switch with larger buffers.
B. Configure a different queue set.

C. Reconfigure the switch buffers.
D. Configure the server application to use TCP.
E. Update the server operating system.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 8
In a Cisco ACL environment .which option best describes “contracts”?
A. named group of related endpoints
B. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. a layer 3 forwarding domain
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which characteristic of an IS-IS single topology is true?
A. Its IPv4 and IPv6 interfaces must have a 1:1 correlation.
B. It supports asymmetric IPv4 and IPv6 interface.
C. It uses a separate SPF calculation than the IPv4 routing table
D. The metric-style wide command must be enabled.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of ipv6 multicast traffic on a switch?
A. MLD filtering
B. IGMP snooping
C. MLD snooping
D. IGMP filtering
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
If interface FastEthernetO/1 goes down,how does router R5 respond?
A. It sends query packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24.
B. It sends update packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24
C. It is stuck in active for destination 192.168.24.0/24
D. It uses interface F0/0 and neighbor 192.168.35.3 as the new path to destination 192.168.24.0/24
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What is the default time-out value of an ARP entry in Cisco IOS Software?
A. 720 minutes
B. 240 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 480 minutes
E. 120 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello
packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 14

400-101 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running EIGRP and the network has R3 to R4 are configured as EIGRP
stub, if when the R2 goes down,which statement is true?
A. R1 sends traffic destined to 192.168.0.100 via R2
B. R2 does not have a router to 192.168.0.0/24 in the routing table.
C. The prefix 192.168.0.0/24 becomes stuck-in-active on R4
D. R3 does not advertise 192.168.0.0/24 to R4 anymore 100% Valid Cisco Exams
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two options are benefits of EIGRP OTP? {Choose two)
A. It fully supports multicast traffic.
B. It allow the administrator to use different autonomous system number per EIGRP domain.
C. It allow EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider without the service provider involvement.
D. It allows the customer EIGRP domain to remain contiguous.
E. It requires only minimal support from the service provider.
F. It allows EIGRP neighbors to be discovered dynamically.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
which two statements about IP SLAs are true? {Choose two)
A. They are used primarily in the distribution layer.
B. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip
C. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB
D. Data can be collected with a physical probe.
E. They are layer 2 transport independent.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which two statements about logging are true?(Choose two)
A. Log messages are displayed in a Telnet session by default.
B. Interface status changes are logged at the Informational level.
C. Interface status changes are logged at the Notification level

D. Log messages are sent to the console port by default.
E. Reload requests are logged at the Notification level.
F. System restart messages are logged at the Critical level.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three)
A. ERMS
B. EPL
C. ERS
D. MPLS
E. EMS
F. EWS
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Refer to exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which AS paths are matched by this access list?
A. the directly attached AS 65596 and any
B. the origin AS 64496 only
C. the origin AS 64996 and any ASs after AS 64496
D. the directly attached AS 64496 and any ASs directly attached to AS 64496
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 20
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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