[2017-12-NEW] Latest Cisco CLDFND 210-451 Dumps Exam Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals Practice Questions Youtube Study

Which is the best site to get Cisco 210-451 dumps? The Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (210-451 CLDFND) exam is a 90 Minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Cloud certification.”Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 210-451 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 210-451 exam. Latest Cisco CLDFND 210-451 dumps exam Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals practice questions Youtube study.

The strength of It-dumps is embodied in it. Our CCNA Cloud https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-451.html exam preparation could make you not help recommend to your friends after you buy it. Because it’s really a great help to you.

[2017-12-NEW Pass4itsure 210-451 Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeFJLMDBQaDMyM1E

[2017-12-NEW Pass4itsure 810-403 Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWZ0laMkIyTHdXeWM

210-451 dumps

QUESTION 13
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language execution environment
for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which type of zoning is represented? zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 18
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 20
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager

D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which protocol does Cisco Nexus 1000V use to provide flow redirection for vService interaction?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. FlexPath
D. VLAN bridging
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What are the key features of UCS?
A. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B. Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO
options
D. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?
A. VMware, HyperV, Linux
B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux
C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM

D. VMware, HyperV, KVM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 26
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
210-451 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 28
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.

B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its\’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
210-451 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management
and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION: 31
Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team is called which of the following?
A. Team training
B. Co-location
C. Team location
D. Organization training
210-451 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 32
Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following
conflict management techniques?

A. Smoothing
B. Compromising
C. Avoiding
D. Forcing
Answer: A
210-451 dumps

Pass4itsure is a website which always provide you the latest and most accurate information about Cisco certification 210-451 dumps exam. In order to allow you to safely choose us, you can free download part of the CCNA Cloud 210-451 exam preparation on It-dumps website as a free try. Pass4itsure can ensure you 100% pass Cisco certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-451 exam.

Cisco 210-451 Dumps Youtube:https://youtu.be/22_cabYvM1w

[2017-11-NEW] First-hand Cisco CIPTV2 300-075 Dump PDF Exam Questions Certification Material Youtube Are The Best Materials

Why should you get Cisco 300-075 dumps? “Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0” also known as 300-075 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. First-hand Cisco CIPTV2 300-075 dump PDF exam questions certification material Youtube are the best materials. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-075 dumps exam questions answers are updated (383 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 300-075 dump is CCNP Collaboration. With the development of society, IT industry has been tremendously popular. And more and more people join IT certification exam and want to get https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-075.html dump IT certificateion that make them go further in their career.

Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 383

[2017-11-NEW Pass4itsure 300-075 Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTk00ekx3V0xfX3c

[2017-11-NEW Pass4itsure 300-320 Dumps Questions From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWck1GZWpsWHY4ZU0

300-075 dump

Question No : 9  Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
300-075 exam Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 10  When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.
Answer: C
Question No : 11  Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a VCS Control server with video endpoints registered on both systems. Users find that video endpoints registered on Call manager can call each other and likewise for the endpoints registered on the VCS server. The administrator for Company X realizes he needs a SIP trunk between the two systems for any video endpoint to call any other video endpoint. Which two steps must the administrator take to add the SIP trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a SIP trunk on Cisco UCM with the option Device-Trunk with destination address of the VCS server.
B. Set up a subzone on Cisco UCM with the peer address to the VCS cluster.
C. Set up a neighbor zone on the VCS server with the location of Cisco UCM using the menu option VCS Configuration > Zones > zone.
D. Set up a SIP trunk on the VCS server with the destination address of the Cisco UCM and Transport set to TCP.
E. Set up a traversal subzone on the VCS server to allow endpoints that are registered on Cisco UCM to communicate.
300-075 dump Answer: A,C
Question No : 12  Which three options are overlapping parameters for roaming when a device is configured for Device Mobility? (Choose three.)
A. device pool
B. location
C. network locale
D. codec
E. MRGL
F. extension
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
The overlapping parameters for roaming-sensitive settings are Media Resource Group List, Location, and Network Locale. The overlapping parameters for the Device Mobility-related settings are Calling Search Space (called Device Mobility Calling Search Space at the device pool), AAR Group, and AAR Calling Search Space. Overlapping parameters configured at the phone have higher priority than settings at the home device pool and lower priority than settings at the roaming device pool.
QUESTION 13
If a product’s weight was specified to be 300 grams but could only be built to a weight of 400 grams, which of the following would be created?
A. Exception Plan
B. Request for change
C. Off-specification
D. Exception Report
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to anything agreed in the Project Initiation Documentation
B. Ensure any potential changes to baselined products are controlled
C. Ensure that the correct versions are delivered to the customer
D. Assess changes to only the specialist products
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which product confirms the version numbers of all products being developed within a given stage?
A. Configuration Item Record
B. Stage Plan
C. Work Package
D. Product Status Account
300-075 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Identify the missing word from the following sentence… PRINCE2 uses the term [ ? ] to cover any relevant event that has happened, was not planned, and requires management action?
A. Risk
B. Change
C. Issue
D. Exception
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
According to PRINCE2, as well as holding informal problems/concerns, which product can also be used to record required actions or significant events not caught elsewhere?
A. Daily Log
B. Risk Register
C. Issue Register
D. Project notebook
300-075 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which option describes something that should be provided by the project, but currently is not (or is
forecast not to be) provided?
A. Problem/concern
B. Concession
C. Off-specification
D. Exception Report
300-075 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
According to the Change theme, which of the following contains the steps of the recommended issue and change control procedure?
A. Capture, Examine, Analyze Impact, Review Probability, Implement Action
B. Capture, Log, Review, Resolve
C. Assess, Decide, Escalate, Implement
D. Capture, Examine, Propose, Decide, Implement
Correct Answer: D

This time you should be thought of Pass4itsure is good helper of your exam. Pass4itsure powerful 300-075 dump is experiences and results summarized by IT experts in the past years, standing upon the shoulder of predecessors, it will let you further access to https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-075.html dump success.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/n4tXL3mhzZo

[2017-11-NEW] Download Latest Cisco 300-101 Dumps ROUTE PDF Exam Certification Format of Questions And Answers Video Online

Where can one get notes for Cisco 300-101 dumps exam?”Implementing Cisco IP Routing” is the name of Cisco 300-101 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Download latest Cisco 300-101 dumps ROUTE pdf exam certification format of questions and answers video online. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (119 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 300-101 dumps is CCDP.  Additionally, these Cisco 300-101 exam questions & present e-mail address facts are created by the https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-101.html dumps professionals who have created it big in the Information Technological advancement market.

Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 484

[2017-11-NEW Cisco 300-101 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWDdYaFM0SVFwMTA

[2017-11-NEW Cisco 100-105 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeVQ5WUxjZG1Idnc

300-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
300-101 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router (gateway of last resort).
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit
300-101 dumps
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry. In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.
QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
300-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs. Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them. Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously.
QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some 
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/ UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput. TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions.
QUESTION 5 
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
300-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.

300-101 dumps

Pass4itsure 300-101 dumps study material contains the format of question and answers. It is in conformity with the actual exam situation and therefore will be equal to your https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-101.html dumps exam specifications.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/Kzd25sHJz1A

[2017-11-NEW] High Success Rate Microsoft 70-695 Dumps Exam Questions For Your Excellence MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps

Where do I get trusted Microsoft dumps for Microsoft 70-695 dumps? “Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications” is the name of Microsoft 70-695 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. High success rate Microsoft 70-695 dumps exam questions for your excellence MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-695 dumps exam questions answers are updated (95 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-695 dumps is MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps. Pass4itsure.com is a globally renowned organization for Microsoft Certified Professional https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-695.html dumps of specialized Deploying Windows Devices and Enterprise Apps exam dupms.

Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Q&As: 95

[2017-11-NEW Microsoft 70-695 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWYS1lM3BQOC1zaFU

[2017-11-NEW Microsoft 70-698 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWLW53eEpJQ2FkSk0

70-695 dumps

QUESTION: 55
How would you designate a “go to” destination for a flow to continue processing, providing an alternative to the normal, sequential processing of the flow? (Choose One)
A. Use a fork to branch the flow
B. Use a decision to branch the flow

C. Create an activity to branch the flow as needed
D. Set a ticket on the destination shape, and then call the ticket as needed
70-695 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 56
Which shape should be used to call a decision tree to evaluate work object properties? (Choose One)
A. Shape 1
B. Shape 2
C. Shape 3
D. Shape 4
Answer: B
QUESTION: 57
Review the following diagram:
If the WithinLimit shape references a Decision Tree rule, which type of connector is OverLimit? (Choose One)
A. When
B. Status
C. Always
D. Flow Action
70-695 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 58
If a flow is placed in Draft mode, which of the following two statements are true? (Choose Two)
A. Additional shapes cannot be added
B. Rules may be referenced that do not yet exist
C. The flow can be executed
D. The flow rule is not subject to rule resolution
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 59
Which of the following three shapes are available in a screen flow? (Choose Three)
A. Utility
B. Integrator
C. Subprocess
D. Assignment Service
E. Split Join
F. Decision
70-695 pdf Answer: A, C, F
QUESTION: 60
Which shape should be used to call a connector in a flow? (Choose One)
A. Shape 1
B. Shape 2
C. Shape 3
D. Shape 4
Answer: C
QUESTION: 61
What is the result of clicking the Where-am-I? ( ) button on a work item form? (Choose One)
A. The harness rule currently in use is displayed in the Designer Studio
B. The user’s worklist is displayed
C. The flow diagram of the current flow rule is displayed in a separate window with an arrow marking the current assignment
D. The user’s Organization, Division and Unit information from the clipboard is displayed within a separate XML window
70-695 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 62
(True or False) Embedded pages cannot be nested in other embedded pages.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
QUESTION: 63
Which property mode may use a non-numeric subscript? (Choose One)
A. Java Object
B. Single Value
C. Page Group
D. Page List
70-695 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 64
Review the following clipboard page:
If pyWorkPage is considered the primary page of an activity, what is the correct way to identify the property reference to ClaimAmount in the PastClaims page? (Choose One)
A. .PastClaims.ClaimAmount(1)
B. pyWorkPage.PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
C. .PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
D. .ClaimAmount
Answer: C
QUESTION: 65
Review the following screenshot:
In the Miscellaneous Items section, the user can enter several item names. The entered values are stored in the Items property. Which type of property is this? (Choose One)
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Single Value
D. Value List
70-695 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 66
Page List properties typically reference a class derived – directly or indirectly – from which superclass? (Choose One)
A. Data
B.Work
C.Embed
D.Index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 67
Validate rules may be specified in which one of the following rule types to validate the properties displayed on the user interface? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Section
C. Harness
D. Flow
70-695 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 68
By default, where in the database is the data collected by a property you create as part of your data model is stored? (Choose One)
A. The BLOB column
B. A dedicated column
C. A lookup table
D. A declarative index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 69
Which of the following statements is false? (Choose One)
A. Page properties can consist of an ordered list of unique property names
B. Threads contain information about a requestor’s sessions and associated thread(s), the application they are accessing, its context, the operator and their organization
C. The name of a page may not derive from system-created pages with reserved names and purposes

D. pyWorkPage page is a common clipboard page that contains information created during the processing of a work item
70-695 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 70
When creating a data transform, what should you do if the number of rows exceeds 25 rows? (Choose One)
A. In the final row, call an activity to perform the remaining actions
B. Move all of the Set actions rows to the pyDefault data transform rule to reduce the number of rows
C. In the final row, use the Apply Data Transform action to invoke another data transform that defines the additional actions
D. Use the <APPEND> keyword in actions instead of adding rows for the Append action
Answer: C
QUESTION: 71
A data transform in the PurchaseOrder-Work class uses the Set action to set a value for the property BillingState on the Customer page. The value is MA. The Customer page is specified on the Pages & Classes tab of the data transform rule form. Which one of the following describes how to specify the row in the rule form for accomplishing this Set action without any errors or warnings upon saving the rule form? (Choose One)
A. Select Set in the Action column, enter Customer.BillingState in the Target column, and enter MA in the Source column
B. Select Set in the Action column, enter Primary.BillingState in the Target column, and enter MA in the Source column
C. Select Set in the Action column, enter Primary.BillingState in the Target column, and enter “MA” in the Source column
D. Select Set in the Action column, enter Customer.BillingState in the Target column, and enter “MA” in the Source column
70-695 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 72
When creating a work item, which of the following rules can be used to set the initial value of a property? (Choose Two)

A. Property
B. Declare Expressions
C. Data Transform
D. Declare Pages
Answer: B, C

Further about 1.5 million Candidates in over 120 countries obtain certification by Pass4itsure 70-695 dumps exam preparation materials. With assessment based on principles, best details and frameworks Pass4itsure offers highest worth Microsoft Certified Professional review and services to steps forward the careers of specialized persons within https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-695.html dumps Microsoft Certified professional exam.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/Bu_IDYAKOXs

[2017-11-NEW] Latest Microsoft 70-694 Dumps Exam Training Study Material for Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps Online

Is Microsoft 70-694 dumps certification worth getting? “Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps” is the name of Microsoft 70-694 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Latest Microsoft 70-694 dumps exam training study material for Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps Online. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-694 dumps exam questions answers are updated (112 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-694 dumps is Microsoft Specialist. Regardless of whether you need to enhance your abilities, aptitude or vocation development, with Pass4itsure’s https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-694.html dumps and 70-694 certification assets help you accomplish your objectives.

Exam Code: 70-694
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Q&As: 112

[2017-11-NEW Microsoft 70-694 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWbERpbDdNVTdnNmM

[2017-11-NEW Microsoft 70-348 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWOURoUDk4U2Ffc3c

70-694 dumps

QUESTION 28
Administrative Closure should occur ___________.
A. At the end of each phase of the project
B. At the end of the whole project
C. At the end of 50% of the project
D. At the end of 100% of the project
70-694 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Administrative Closure should occur at the end of each phase, not only at the end of the overall project
QUESTION 29
In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?
A. During the initiation stage

B. During the planning stage
C. After approval of budget
D. After the project is proven feasible
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions Project manager is
assigned to a project During the initiation stage.
QUESTION 30
Who gives project acceptance?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. Team Lead
70-694 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Customer gives project acceptance. Customer may be person or organization.
QUESTION 31
A requirement document is an input of __________ process?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A requirement document request is an input to Define Sco
QUESTION 32
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?
A. Direct ar|d Indirect
B. Tactical and Strategic
C. Management and Project
D. 0n|y Tactical
70-694 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. When doing this analysis, it should include both
direct and indirect costs so that the final decision is based on comparisons that are equal.
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?
A. Requirements document created in collect requirements process
B. Project files from previous projects
C. Project Charter
D. Al1 of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Define Scope – Inputs Requirements document created in collect requirements process, Project Charter
and Organizational Process Assets (Project files from previous projects, lesson learned)
QUESTION 34
Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a project?
A. RACI mAl,x
B. sow
C. Staffing management plan D)0 CPI
70-694 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The RACI matrix lists responsibilities of all resources. The staffing management plan only lists types of
resources and timing.
QUESTION 35
_________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
A. ISO
B. CAPM
C. pMI
D. iscn
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ISO is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
QUESTION 36
The work breakdown structure is ________.
A. Used to break down the project into manageable pieces
B. Set and does not change throughout the project
C. Needed as part of the project charter
D. [Needed as part of the project scope statement

70-694 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): A deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements which organizes
and defines the total scope of the project. It sub divide the major tasks to minor details.
QUESTION 37
If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule
B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.
QUESTION 38
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have assigned
the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?
A. Pi’ojectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional
70-694 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full authority to
assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project. Strong Matrix: The project
manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff. Project manager has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix: Power reset with Functional Manager. Functional: In this organization
Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager like marketing
engineer, sales engineer.
QUESTION 39
At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?
A. The beginning of the project
B. ^ust before the end of the project
C. QA Phase
D. Execution phase
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk and uncertainty are the highest at the beginning or a project.
QUESTION 40
From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure?
A. The customer
B. The qualify director
C. Project management office
D. Project manager
70-694 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
need to gain this formal acceptance at project closure from the customer and sponsor.

QUESTION 41
Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?
A. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total.
B. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
C. Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.
D. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total. It is more accurate.

Pass4isture 70-694 dumps exams documents include hands-on undertakings and certifiable situations; in simply a question of days, you’ll be more profitable and grasping new innovation principles. Pass4itsure online assets and occasions empower you to concentrate on realizing https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-694.html dumps exactly what you need on your time period.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/8MADjTEF2uE

[2017-11-NEW] Easily To Pass Valid Cisco 200-155 Dumps DCICT Certification | Cisco CCNA Data Center DCICT Exam Youtube With New Discount

What Is the best place for getting the Cisco 200-155 dumps? “Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies” is the name of Cisco 200-155 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Easily to pass valid Cisco 200-155 dumps certification Cisco CCNA Data Center DCICT exam youtube With new discount. Pass4itsure Cisco 200-155 dumps exam questions answers are updated (85 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 200-155 dumps is CCNA Data Center.  Passing Cisco CCNA Data Center https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html dumps exam certification in Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies exam questions is very hard.

Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

[2017-11-NEW Cisco 200-155 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWNHFtR0VqbXVEeUU

[2017-11-NEW Cisco 210-260 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWU0xad3NvRWR4Qzg

200-155 Dumps

QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.
If Server A is an FTP server, which setting will enable active FTP optimization on Steelhead Mobile Client
R?
A. Steelhead A. in-path auto srcport 20
B. Steelhead A. in-path auto dstport 20
C. Client R: in-path auto dstport 20
D. Default auto-discovery rules will work
E. None of the above
200-155 exam 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit.
If Steelhead Mobile Client B offers up a share on the network, what is needed on Steelhead Mobile Client
R to open an optimized connection to this share if enhanced auto-discovery is enabled on all Steelhead
appliances?
A. Default auto-discovery will work fine without modification
B. The connection to Client B cannot be optimized because the Steelhead Mobile Controller cannot
optimize incoming connections
C. A fixed-target rule to Client B’s IP address is needed in order for optimization to occur on Mobile Client B
D. The addition of a peering rule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
Company X has many offshore oil rigs they want to bring optimization to. The only available connection is through a satellite that has frequent bursts of packet loss. There are very few users per rig and HTTPS based SharePoint performance is so poor they often time out pulling down even a small file. CIFS often does not work at all. They are considering the Steelhead Mobile solution to solve this problem. You suggest they deploy a Steelhead in-path at the data center and:
A. Steelhead Mobile with FEC turned on to help with lossy links
B. Steelhead Mobile with HS-TCP configuration
C. Steelhead Mobile running MX-TCP to deal with the loss
D. Deploy Steelhead appliances with MX-TCP to deal with the loss
E. Deploy Steelhead appliances with HS-TCP, Window Scaling, fixed-target rules, and TCP New Reno to
overcome the loss
200-155 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 86
Is any user data sent across the out-of-band (OOB) connection of a Steelhead appliance?
A. No data is sent across this connection
B. Yes, only after 60 seconds
C. Yes, when the peer Steelhead appliance requests information
D. Yes, when the connection is setup
E. Yes, every 30 seconds
F. Yes, every 30 minutes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
The Node B antenna gain is 17 dB and receiver sensitivity 112 dBm, radiated power
(EIRP) of user equipment (Ue) is 18 dBm and feeder cable loss is 3 dB. What is the
MAXIMUM path loss?
A. 114 dB
B. 116 dB
C. 144 dB
D. 147 dB
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Physical channel power optimisation has to be done at the level of:
A. routing area and CELLDCH state.
B. RNC and cell area.
C. location and routing area.
D. site and cell area.
Answer: B
QUESTION 89
In the case of compressed mode and lower spreading code usage:
A. there is no impact on interference level.
B. the average interference level increases approximately 20%.
C. the average interference level increases approximately 5%.
D. the interference level is reduced approximately 5%.
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Too wide soft handover areas can be indicated MOST easily by:
A. measuring CPICH coverage.
B. calculating inter cell interference.
C. comparing actual active set sizes.
D. monitoring traffic.

Answer: C
QUESTION 91
How can the cell/area data traffic profile best be monitored?
A. Measuring RT and NRT throughput.
B. Following up cell loading classes.
C. Counting RAB PS attempts.
D. Following up DCH channel allocations.
200-155 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 92
DCH traffic has the smallest impact on:
A. coverage area.
B. hard or soft blocking.
C. soft handover triggering.
D. lub utilisation.
Answer: C
QUESTION 93
Minimum coupling loss (MCL) is the minimum allowed:
A. overall loss between BTS and UE.
B. Loss from the UE to the MHA.
C. loss in antenna line.
D. loss from the UE Tx to BTS antenna.
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 94
If the NodeB antenna direction has been modified:
A. pilot coverage areas need no recalculation.
B. new EbNo values have to be selected.
C. softer handover areas are changed.
D. power control parameters need to be changed.
Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?

A. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
B. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the same scrambling code group.
C. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
D.There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 96
Which one of the following statements relating to WCDMA inter-working is TRUE?
A. Inter frequency measurements have IMSI verification.
B. Inter system measurements have BSIC verification.
C. Inter system measurements have IMSI verification.
D. Inter frequency measurements have BSIC verification.
Answer: B
QUESTION 97
The Common Control Channel (CCCH) is:
A. a uni-directional channel for transmitting control information from network to UEs.
B. a uni-directional channel for transmitting control information from UEs to network.
C. only used by mobiles having RRC connection with the network.
D. a bi-directional channel for transmitting control information between network and
UEs.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 98
Which one of the following statements concerning simulations on the planning tool is
NOT true?
A. Monte Carlo simulation is a form of static simulation.
B. Static simulations make use of an iterative process.
C. Static simulation is a time consuming process.
D. Simulations are not dynamic.
Answer: B

Pass4itsure prepares Cisco 200-155 dumps and training material makes it easy for you. For this Cisco Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies exam upgrading the https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html dumps qualification and skills are necessary.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/we3j96ptWco

[2017-10-NEW] 100% Real Cisco 400-101 Dumps CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam With New Discount on Youtube

Cisco 400-101 dumps in one month, is it possible? “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” is the name of Cisco 400-101 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. 100% real Cisco 400-101 dumps CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam with new discount on youtube. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (828 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 400-101 dumps is CCIE. Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps certification is the best proof of your knowledge, skills, and expertise.it is the process in which you prove technical skills through the Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching cisco Exam.

Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 828

[2017-10-NEW Cisco 400-101 Dumps Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWczJDVzl1SUJLWms

[2017-10-NEW 70-412 Dumps Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTVhyb3I4T3F4blE

400-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about asymmetric routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It can cause packet loss over stateful ICMP and UDP connections
B. It can cause packet loss when a stateful firewall is in use.
C. It can cause TCP connections to close.
D. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use.
E. It is uncommon in large networks.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which PIM mode can forward traffic by using only (*.G) routing table entries?
A. Space-dese mode
B. Bidirectional mode
C. Deuce mode
D. Sparse mode
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Refer To the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which IS-IS process is responsible for flooding local link information to adjacent routers ?
A. decision
B. receive
C. forward
D. update
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller note ?
(Choose two)
A. Neutron server plugin
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Neutron layer 2 agent
D. Identify Service
E. Neutron Layer 3 agent
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit
400-101 dumps
Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. It creates an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60
B. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops.
C. It prevent the device from falling back to dense mode.
D. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds.
E. It configure the router as the rendezvous point
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Exhibit:
400-101 dumps
Your network is suffering excessive output drops. Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem?
(Choose two.)
A. Install a switch with larger buffers.
B. Configure a different queue set.

C. Reconfigure the switch buffers.
D. Configure the server application to use TCP.
E. Update the server operating system.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 8
In a Cisco ACL environment .which option best describes “contracts”?
A. named group of related endpoints
B. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. a layer 3 forwarding domain
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which characteristic of an IS-IS single topology is true?
A. Its IPv4 and IPv6 interfaces must have a 1:1 correlation.
B. It supports asymmetric IPv4 and IPv6 interface.
C. It uses a separate SPF calculation than the IPv4 routing table
D. The metric-style wide command must be enabled.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of ipv6 multicast traffic on a switch?
A. MLD filtering
B. IGMP snooping
C. MLD snooping
D. IGMP filtering
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
If interface FastEthernetO/1 goes down,how does router R5 respond?
A. It sends query packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24.
B. It sends update packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24
C. It is stuck in active for destination 192.168.24.0/24
D. It uses interface F0/0 and neighbor 192.168.35.3 as the new path to destination 192.168.24.0/24
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What is the default time-out value of an ARP entry in Cisco IOS Software?
A. 720 minutes
B. 240 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 480 minutes
E. 120 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello
packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 14

400-101 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running EIGRP and the network has R3 to R4 are configured as EIGRP
stub, if when the R2 goes down,which statement is true?
A. R1 sends traffic destined to 192.168.0.100 via R2
B. R2 does not have a router to 192.168.0.0/24 in the routing table.
C. The prefix 192.168.0.0/24 becomes stuck-in-active on R4
D. R3 does not advertise 192.168.0.0/24 to R4 anymore 100% Valid Cisco Exams
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two options are benefits of EIGRP OTP? {Choose two)
A. It fully supports multicast traffic.
B. It allow the administrator to use different autonomous system number per EIGRP domain.
C. It allow EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider without the service provider involvement.
D. It allows the customer EIGRP domain to remain contiguous.
E. It requires only minimal support from the service provider.
F. It allows EIGRP neighbors to be discovered dynamically.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
which two statements about IP SLAs are true? {Choose two)
A. They are used primarily in the distribution layer.
B. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip
C. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB
D. Data can be collected with a physical probe.
E. They are layer 2 transport independent.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which two statements about logging are true?(Choose two)
A. Log messages are displayed in a Telnet session by default.
B. Interface status changes are logged at the Informational level.
C. Interface status changes are logged at the Notification level

D. Log messages are sent to the console port by default.
E. Reload requests are logged at the Notification level.
F. System restart messages are logged at the Critical level.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three)
A. ERMS
B. EPL
C. ERS
D. MPLS
E. EMS
F. EWS
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Refer to exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which AS paths are matched by this access list?
A. the directly attached AS 65596 and any
B. the origin AS 64496 only
C. the origin AS 64996 and any ASs after AS 64496
D. the directly attached AS 64496 and any ASs directly attached to AS 64496
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 20
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching 400-101 dumps focuses on the knowledge and skills needed to perform real job responsibilities. This Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching provides https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps that allows you key skills and talent to be internationally recognized.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/PyNCK41BG10

[2017-10-NEW] Discount IBM C2020-011 Dumps Question Description Try Free Exam With Accurate Answers [Video]

Why should someone do IBM C2020-011 dumps? “IBM SPSS Statistics Level 1 v2” is the name of IBM C2020-011 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real IBM exam. Discount IBM C2020-011 dumps question description try free exam with accurate answers. Pass4itsure IBM https://www.pass4itsure.com/C2020-011.html dumps exam questions answers are updated (60 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of C2020-011 dumps is IBM Certified Specialist.  Pass4itsure give you complete info about C2020-011 dumps IBM SPSS Statistics Level 1 v2 certification is based on 55 questions which aim to target the practical abilities of candidates.

Exam Code: C2020-011
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Statistics Level 1 v2
Q&As: 60

[2017-10-NEW 300-101 Dumps Dumps From Google Drive]:https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWDdYaFM0SVFwMTA

[2017-10-NEW VCP550 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWOXJ1Qzl3R2ZPa2c

C2020-011 dumps

Question No : 1 What statistical test should be used to assess whether the percentage differences
observed in a crosstabs tablecould have occurred by chance?
A. Correlation
B. Linear Regression
C. T-Test
D. Chi-square test of independence
C2020-011 exam Answer: D
Question No : 2 The text file shown in the figure below is an example of a fixed format text file.
C2020-011 dumps

A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question No : 3 In the Variable View, if you have a series of variables that share the same category coding
scheme, you can enter value labels for one variable, then copy these labels to the other
variables.
A. True
B. False
C2020-011 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 4 For a variable salary we have the statistics as shown in the figure below.
C2020-011 dumps
The reported Mean is incorrect because a value, -9999, is included in its calculation. How
can this situation be fixed?
A. Define -9999 as a system-missing value.
B. Remove allcases with the value -9999 for the variable salary from the data file.
C. Define -9999 as a user-missing value.
D. Define -9999 as both a system- and user-missing value.
Answer: C
Question No : 5 Which statement is true about this box plot?
C2020-011 dumps

A. Themean is 14.
B. The standard deviation is 14 (20 minus 6).
C. The standard deviation is4 (16 minus 12).
D. of the outliers are on the lower end of the distribution.
C2020-011 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 6 Which statement is the correct interpretation of this crosstab table?
C2020-011 dumps

A. 56.5% of females believe in life after death.
B. 86.0% of females believe in life after death.
C. 27.5% of females believe in life after death.
D. 53.7% of females believe in life after death.
Answer: B
Question No : 7 Consider the data filebelow and answer the following: The calculation of the mean of the
variables X, Y, Z is contained in the variable Av_XYZ. What method was used to calculate
the mean?
C2020-011 dumps

A. The Compute Variable dialog and the expression (X+Y+Z) 13
B. The Compute Variabledialog and the expression X+Y+Z/3
C. The Compute Variable dialog and the expression MEAN(X, Y, Z)
D. The Compute Variable dialog and the expression MEAN.2(X, Y, Z)
Answer: D
Question No : 8  If you request an aggregated dataset or data file in the Aggregate procedure, the number of cases in the new aggregated file is equal to what?
A. Number of cases in the original data file
B. Number of aggregated summary variables
C. Number of categories of the variables specified in the Break Variables list
D. Numberof cases that you specified in the Aggregate Data dialog box
Answer: C
Question No : 9 What does the Paste button in this dialog box do?
C2020-011 dumps

A. Runs a MEANS table.
B. Pastes the MEANS command into a Syntax Editor window.
C. Pastes the MEANS command intothe Viewer window.
D. Runs a MEANS table, opens a new Syntax Editor window, and pastes the MEANS
command
C2020-011 vce Answer: B
Question No : 10 If you use the IBM SPSS Statistics Select Cases dialog to conduct analysis on a subset of
cases and you want to keep all cases in the same dataset, which option is appropriate?
A. Copy unselected cases to a new dataset
B. Copy selected cases to a new dataset
C. Delete unselected cases
D. Filter out unselected cases
Answer: D
Question No : 11
Which interpretation is correctfor this Regression Coefficients table?
C2020-011 dumps

A. For every additional year that you get older, your beginning salary decreases on
average by $13.
B. For every additional year that you get older, your beginning salary decreases on
average by $35.9.
C. Forevery additional year that you get older, your beginning salary increases on average
by $13.
D. For every additional year that you get older, your beginning salary increases on average
by $35.9.
C2020-011 exam Answer: D
Question No : 12 In order to access the New Custom Attribute feature in the Data Editor, the Data Editor
must be viewed from the:
A. Value Labels button.
B. Dialog Recall button.
C. Data View tab.
D. Variable View tab.
Answer: D
Question No : 13. You have issued the switch debugging command debugging rip packets from the management terminal,
but you are not receiving any debug output. What is the reason you are not getting any debug output from
the switch?
A.RIP has not been enabled, and therefore there is no debug output
B.Output from the debugging command only goes to the syslog server
C.You forgot to issue the enable debugging command at the System View
D.You forgot to issue the terminal debugging command, directing the output to your management terminal
C2020-011 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 14. Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed when creating
an LA group? (Choose two.)
A.A member link port can only belong to one LA group
B.Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C.A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of an LA group
D.LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on the switches
Answer: AB
Question No : 15. GARP VLAN Registration Protocol (GVRP) maintains and distributes Virtual LAN (VLAN) registration
information only about the dynamically created VLANs using GARP.
A. True B.
False
C2020-011 pdf Answer: B

These C2020-011 dumps questions must be answered in the allotted time of 90 minutes. No additional time is allotted to the candidates and they are not allowed to consult any helping material during exam time. This https://www.pass4itsure.com/C2020-011.html dumps certification is only held in English.

 

[2017-10-NEW] Helpful Microsoft Azure 70-534 Dumps PDF Practice Exam Video Training Is What You Need To Take [Video]

Which site offer Microsoft 70-534 dumps? “Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions” is the name of Microsoft 70-534 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Helpful Microsoft Azure 70-534 dumps pdf practice exam video training is what you need to take. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-534 dumps exam questions answers are updated (249 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-534 dumps is Microsoft Specialist: Microsoft Azure. The most awesome use of Pass4itsure is that it provides a study material which is to the aspect and thoroughly effective https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-534.html dumps.

Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

[2017-10-NEW Microsoft 70-534 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWdmxvVW43RmxVM2M

[2017-10-NEW Microsoft 70-695 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWYS1lM3BQOC1zaFU

70-534 dumps

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
The company has two corporate ofces. Customers will access the websites from datacenters around the
world.

70-534 dumps
You need to architect the global website strategy to meet the business 70-534 exam requirements. Use the drop-down
menus to select the answer choice that answers each queston.
Hot Area:

70-534 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps

QUESTION 6
You need to confgure the deployment of the storage analysis applicaton.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Mobile Service.
B. Confgure the deployment from source control.
C. Add a new deployment slot.
D. Turn on contnuous integraton.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to design the notfcaton service for the customer-facing mobile app.
Which three actons should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actons from the list
of actons to the 70-534 dumps answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 8
You are designing an Azure application that will use a worker role. The worker role will create temporary
files.You need to minimize storage transaction charges.
Where should you create the files?
A. In Azure local storage
B. In Azure Storage page blobs
C. On an Azure Drive
D. In Azure Storage block blobs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
When reading videos from a resource, which is the recommended Android storage location for
video files?
A. /res/anim
B. /res/raw
C. /res/movie
D. /res/values
70-534 pdf 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of these is the correct processing necessary for data update notification at the time of
creating an individual ContentProvider and using it?
A. In the update method of the ContentProvider class, notify by calling the
ContentResolver.setNotificationUri method.
B. In the update method of ContentProvider class, notify by calling the Cursor.notifyChange
QUESTION NO: 11
When reading videos from a resource, which is the recommended Android storage location for
video files?
A. /res/anim
B. /res/raw
C. /res/movie
D. /res/values
70-534 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of these is the correct processing necessary for data update notification at the time of
creating an individual ContentProvider and using it?
A. In the update method of the ContentProvider class, notify by calling the
ContentResolver.setNotificationUri method.
B. In the update method of ContentProvider class, notify by calling the Cursor.notifyChange
A. Option a
B. Option b
C. Option c
D. Option d
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which is the processing that cannot be executed by using the emulator during development?
A. Displaying information of the heap and threads.
B. Emulation of outgoing calls
C. Ending a process
D. Receiving E-mail
70-534 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of these is the correct explanation of the Android license form?
A. It is necessary to register with Android Market and pay a license fee in order to develop a paid
for application on Android.
B. There is no special provision regarding application license operation on Android.
C. If an application is developed using Android, it is not a licensing violation if the source code is
not made public.
D. Since Android uses libraries licensed in various ways such as GPL, BSD, and LGPL,
applications developed under Android are subject to the severest license, GPL.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
For playing an audio file, where does the Android Developer’s Guide recommend placing the file?
A. res/raw
B. res/values
C. data/data
D. system/data
70-534 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of these URI schemes is not supported by Android?
A. android://
B. content://
C. http://
D. market://search?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which function is not provided by the Android Development Tools Plugin?
A. Creating an Android project
B. Creating supporting resource files
C. Executing an Android application
D. Supporting creation of a View
70-534 pdf 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
The following program uses an Intent to open a Web page designated by a Web browser. Which is
the correct code that goes into (1)?
A. android.intent.VIEW
B. android.intent.action.VIEW
C. android.intent.View
D. androidJntent.action.View
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which code acquires a MediaPlayer class instance?
A. MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.music);
B. newMediaPlayer(this, R.raw.music);
C. MediaPlayer.getSource(this, R.raw.music);
D. MediaPlayer.newInstancefthis, R.raw.music),
70-534 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Access management
B. Request Fulfillment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: B
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 21
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
70-534 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the
following items need to be identified?
A. Business Objectives, IT Objectives, Process Metrics
B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
70-534 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Resources and Capabilities
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Utility and Warranty
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: A

There is nothing which can bother you on any anchorman of your study material. Pass4itsure has created the Microsoft 70-534 dumps study easy with the help of a team of a professional who know well the standards of the Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-534.html dumps actual exam, but they also have powerful details of the candidates’ knowing stage.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/_TWien5LmPc

[2017-9-NEW] High Success Rate Cisco TSHOOT 300-135 Dumps Vce Question Description Youtube Study Free Download [Video]

How to get free Cisco 300-135 dumps? “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks” is the name of Cisco 300-135 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High success rate Cisco CCNP TSHOOT 300-135 dumps vce question description youtube study free download. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 dumps exam questions answers are updated (118 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 300-135 dumps is CCNP Routing and Switching. To help you prepare for https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps examination certification, we provide you with a sound knowledge and experience.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

[2017-9-NEW Cisco 300-135 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVjNzVmpXTDBzU00

[2017-9-NEW Microsoft 70-534 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWdmxvVW43RmxVM2M

What You Will Learn From Cisco 300-135 dumps

  • Cisco’s structured troubleshooting module
  • The troubleshooting toolkit, including change control procedures, managing configuration files, limiting show command output with modifiers, hardware diagnostic commands, and SPAN, NetFlow, and EEM configuration.
  • Troubleshooting Layer 2 issues such as VLANs, IEEE 802.1Q trunks, VTP, STP, and EtherChannel
  • Troubleshooting IP addressing including determining the IP addresses of clients and router interfaces, checking IP address reachability, DHCPv4 address assignment, and IPv6 dynamic address assignment
  • Troubleshooting basic routing issues such as IPv4 and IPv6 static routing, RIPv2 and RIPng, HSRP, VRRP, GLBP, and FHRP object tracking
  • Troubleshooting EIGRP issues including neighborship formation, routing issues, and named EIGRP

300-135 dumps

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
You have received notification from network monitoring system that link between R1 and R5 is down and you noticed that the active router for HSRP group 1 has not failed over to the standby router for group 1. You are required to troubleshoot and identify the issue.
A. There is an HSRP group track command misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP group priority misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
D. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
E. This is not an HSRP issue; this is routing issue.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When looking at the HSRP configuration of R1, we see that tracking has been enabled, but that it is not tracking the link to R5, only the link to R2:
R1 should be tracking the Eth 0/1 link, not 0/0 to achieve the desired affect/
QUESTION 12
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
The following debug messages are noticed for HSRP group 2. But still neither R1 nor R2 has identified one of them as standby router. Identify the reason causing the issue. Note: only show commands can be used to troubleshoot the ticket. R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:39.234: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:40.034: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:40.364: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:41.969: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:42.719: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:42.918: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:44.869: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:45.485: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:45.718: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:47.439: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:48.252: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:48.322: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.389: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.735: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.921: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.089: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.338: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active pri130vlP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.633: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
A. HSRP group priority misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
D. This is not an HSRP issue: this is DHCP issue.
E. The ACL applied to interface is blocking HSRP hello packet exchange
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 300-135 dumps
Explanation:
On R1 we see that access list 102 has been applied to the Ethernet 1/0 interface:
This access list is blocking all traffic to the 224.0.0.102 IP address, which is the multicast address used by HSRP.
QUESTION 13
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
Examine the configuration on R4. The routing table shows no entries for 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.20.0/24. Identify which of the following is the issue preventing route entries being installed on R4 routing table?
A. HSRP issue between R4 and R2
B. This is an OSPF issue between R4 and R2
C. This is a DHCP issue between R4 and R2
D. The distribute-list configured on R4 is blocking route entries
E. The ACL configured on R4 is blocking inbound traffic on the interface connected to R2
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Consider the following code: What is the output when you run this script in the browser?
A. An alert box displaying the following: John, Paul, George, Ringo
B. An alert box displaying the following: Ringo, John, Paul, George
C. An alert box displaying the following: Ringo, Paul, George
D. An alert box displaying the following: John, Ringo, George
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which statement about the JavaScript form object is true?
A. The JavaScript form object has no relationship to the X/HTML <form> element.
B. You can use a single instance of the form object to represent multiple forms on a Web page.
C. The form object cannot be used to access the individual field elements that compose the form.
D. The JavaScript form object is available when the X/HTML <form></form> tags are present in the X/
HTML document.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Consider the following code:
What is the expected result of this script?
A. When you leave the page, the alert box will display.
B. The page will ignore the function, so a blank page will display on entry and exit.
C. When you enter the page, you will be warned that there is unfinished JavaScript to run.
D. When you leave the page, there will be a JavaScript error because you cannot unload an alert box.
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following comparison statements will return true?
A. x = 10;y = 5;x <= y;
B. x = 10;y = 5;x !== “X”
C. x = 10;y = 5;x === y;
D. x = 10;y = 5;x == y;
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about the getElementByID() method?
A. It returns only the first element with the specified ID.
B. It returns an array containing all elements with the specified ID.
C. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by name.
D. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by tag name.
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Consider the following code:
Will this function generate an error?
A. No, because the code is well-formed
B. Yes, because the alert syntax is incorrect
C. Yes, because there are no valid variables returned
D. Yes, because the passed arguments have not been defined before the function call
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which script block will display Hello World in the browser when the script is run?
A. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(message + message2);</script>
B. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(message & message2);</script>
C. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = Hello ;var message2 = World ;document.write(message +

message2);</script>
D. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(“message + message2 “);</script>
300-135 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a browser security issue that JavaScript developers should remember when
developing a script?
A. JavaScript cannot be disabled in the client and will always run.
B. JavaScript functionality is immune to viruses, trojans and malware.
C. JavaScript is a cross-platform scripting language and will generate consistent results regardless of the
client or server being used.
D. Certain JavaScript functionality may be blocked by some browsers, which prevents the script from
running as expected for all users.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which statement will open this Web document in a new browser window?
A. document.open(http://www.CIWcertified.com);
B. window.open(http://www.CIWcertified.com);
C. window.open(“http://www.CIWcertified.com”);
D. document.open(“http://www.CIWcertified.com”);
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

The 300-135 dumps questions designed by Pass4itsure can help you easily pass the exam. The Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 TSHOOT dumps including 300-135 exam questions and answers, 300-135 test, https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps, 300-135 study guide.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/K2S9iwgc3BY