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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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70-534 dumps

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
The company has two corporate ofces. Customers will access the websites from datacenters around the
world.

70-534 dumps
You need to architect the global website strategy to meet the business 70-534 exam requirements. Use the drop-down
menus to select the answer choice that answers each queston.
Hot Area:

70-534 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps

QUESTION 6
You need to confgure the deployment of the storage analysis applicaton.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Mobile Service.
B. Confgure the deployment from source control.
C. Add a new deployment slot.
D. Turn on contnuous integraton.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to design the notfcaton service for the customer-facing mobile app.
Which three actons should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actons from the list
of actons to the 70-534 dumps answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 8
You are designing an Azure application that will use a worker role. The worker role will create temporary
files.You need to minimize storage transaction charges.
Where should you create the files?
A. In Azure local storage
B. In Azure Storage page blobs
C. On an Azure Drive
D. In Azure Storage block blobs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
When reading videos from a resource, which is the recommended Android storage location for
video files?
A. /res/anim
B. /res/raw
C. /res/movie
D. /res/values
70-534 pdf 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of these is the correct processing necessary for data update notification at the time of
creating an individual ContentProvider and using it?
A. In the update method of the ContentProvider class, notify by calling the
ContentResolver.setNotificationUri method.
B. In the update method of ContentProvider class, notify by calling the Cursor.notifyChange
QUESTION NO: 11
When reading videos from a resource, which is the recommended Android storage location for
video files?
A. /res/anim
B. /res/raw
C. /res/movie
D. /res/values
70-534 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of these is the correct processing necessary for data update notification at the time of
creating an individual ContentProvider and using it?
A. In the update method of the ContentProvider class, notify by calling the
ContentResolver.setNotificationUri method.
B. In the update method of ContentProvider class, notify by calling the Cursor.notifyChange
A. Option a
B. Option b
C. Option c
D. Option d
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which is the processing that cannot be executed by using the emulator during development?
A. Displaying information of the heap and threads.
B. Emulation of outgoing calls
C. Ending a process
D. Receiving E-mail
70-534 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of these is the correct explanation of the Android license form?
A. It is necessary to register with Android Market and pay a license fee in order to develop a paid
for application on Android.
B. There is no special provision regarding application license operation on Android.
C. If an application is developed using Android, it is not a licensing violation if the source code is
not made public.
D. Since Android uses libraries licensed in various ways such as GPL, BSD, and LGPL,
applications developed under Android are subject to the severest license, GPL.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
For playing an audio file, where does the Android Developer’s Guide recommend placing the file?
A. res/raw
B. res/values
C. data/data
D. system/data
70-534 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of these URI schemes is not supported by Android?
A. android://
B. content://
C. http://
D. market://search?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which function is not provided by the Android Development Tools Plugin?
A. Creating an Android project
B. Creating supporting resource files
C. Executing an Android application
D. Supporting creation of a View
70-534 pdf 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
The following program uses an Intent to open a Web page designated by a Web browser. Which is
the correct code that goes into (1)?
A. android.intent.VIEW
B. android.intent.action.VIEW
C. android.intent.View
D. androidJntent.action.View
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which code acquires a MediaPlayer class instance?
A. MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.music);
B. newMediaPlayer(this, R.raw.music);
C. MediaPlayer.getSource(this, R.raw.music);
D. MediaPlayer.newInstancefthis, R.raw.music),
70-534 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Access management
B. Request Fulfillment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: B
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 21
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
70-534 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the
following items need to be identified?
A. Business Objectives, IT Objectives, Process Metrics
B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
70-534 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Resources and Capabilities
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Utility and Warranty
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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  • Cisco’s structured troubleshooting module
  • The troubleshooting toolkit, including change control procedures, managing configuration files, limiting show command output with modifiers, hardware diagnostic commands, and SPAN, NetFlow, and EEM configuration.
  • Troubleshooting Layer 2 issues such as VLANs, IEEE 802.1Q trunks, VTP, STP, and EtherChannel
  • Troubleshooting IP addressing including determining the IP addresses of clients and router interfaces, checking IP address reachability, DHCPv4 address assignment, and IPv6 dynamic address assignment
  • Troubleshooting basic routing issues such as IPv4 and IPv6 static routing, RIPv2 and RIPng, HSRP, VRRP, GLBP, and FHRP object tracking
  • Troubleshooting EIGRP issues including neighborship formation, routing issues, and named EIGRP

300-135 dumps

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
You have received notification from network monitoring system that link between R1 and R5 is down and you noticed that the active router for HSRP group 1 has not failed over to the standby router for group 1. You are required to troubleshoot and identify the issue.
A. There is an HSRP group track command misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP group priority misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
D. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
E. This is not an HSRP issue; this is routing issue.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When looking at the HSRP configuration of R1, we see that tracking has been enabled, but that it is not tracking the link to R5, only the link to R2:
R1 should be tracking the Eth 0/1 link, not 0/0 to achieve the desired affect/
QUESTION 12
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
The following debug messages are noticed for HSRP group 2. But still neither R1 nor R2 has identified one of them as standby router. Identify the reason causing the issue. Note: only show commands can be used to troubleshoot the ticket. R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:39.234: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:40.034: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:40.364: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:41.969: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:42.719: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:42.918: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:44.869: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:45.485: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:45.718: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:47.439: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:48.252: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:48.322: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.389: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.735: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.921: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.089: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.338: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active pri130vlP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.633: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
A. HSRP group priority misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
D. This is not an HSRP issue: this is DHCP issue.
E. The ACL applied to interface is blocking HSRP hello packet exchange
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 300-135 dumps
Explanation:
On R1 we see that access list 102 has been applied to the Ethernet 1/0 interface:
This access list is blocking all traffic to the 224.0.0.102 IP address, which is the multicast address used by HSRP.
QUESTION 13
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
Examine the configuration on R4. The routing table shows no entries for 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.20.0/24. Identify which of the following is the issue preventing route entries being installed on R4 routing table?
A. HSRP issue between R4 and R2
B. This is an OSPF issue between R4 and R2
C. This is a DHCP issue between R4 and R2
D. The distribute-list configured on R4 is blocking route entries
E. The ACL configured on R4 is blocking inbound traffic on the interface connected to R2
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Consider the following code: What is the output when you run this script in the browser?
A. An alert box displaying the following: John, Paul, George, Ringo
B. An alert box displaying the following: Ringo, John, Paul, George
C. An alert box displaying the following: Ringo, Paul, George
D. An alert box displaying the following: John, Ringo, George
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which statement about the JavaScript form object is true?
A. The JavaScript form object has no relationship to the X/HTML <form> element.
B. You can use a single instance of the form object to represent multiple forms on a Web page.
C. The form object cannot be used to access the individual field elements that compose the form.
D. The JavaScript form object is available when the X/HTML <form></form> tags are present in the X/
HTML document.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Consider the following code:
What is the expected result of this script?
A. When you leave the page, the alert box will display.
B. The page will ignore the function, so a blank page will display on entry and exit.
C. When you enter the page, you will be warned that there is unfinished JavaScript to run.
D. When you leave the page, there will be a JavaScript error because you cannot unload an alert box.
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following comparison statements will return true?
A. x = 10;y = 5;x <= y;
B. x = 10;y = 5;x !== “X”
C. x = 10;y = 5;x === y;
D. x = 10;y = 5;x == y;
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about the getElementByID() method?
A. It returns only the first element with the specified ID.
B. It returns an array containing all elements with the specified ID.
C. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by name.
D. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by tag name.
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Consider the following code:
Will this function generate an error?
A. No, because the code is well-formed
B. Yes, because the alert syntax is incorrect
C. Yes, because there are no valid variables returned
D. Yes, because the passed arguments have not been defined before the function call
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which script block will display Hello World in the browser when the script is run?
A. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(message + message2);</script>
B. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(message & message2);</script>
C. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = Hello ;var message2 = World ;document.write(message +

message2);</script>
D. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(“message + message2 “);</script>
300-135 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a browser security issue that JavaScript developers should remember when
developing a script?
A. JavaScript cannot be disabled in the client and will always run.
B. JavaScript functionality is immune to viruses, trojans and malware.
C. JavaScript is a cross-platform scripting language and will generate consistent results regardless of the
client or server being used.
D. Certain JavaScript functionality may be blocked by some browsers, which prevents the script from
running as expected for all users.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which statement will open this Web document in a new browser window?
A. document.open(http://www.CIWcertified.com);
B. window.open(http://www.CIWcertified.com);
C. window.open(“http://www.CIWcertified.com”);
D. document.open(“http://www.CIWcertified.com”);
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 14, 2017
Q&As: 206

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070-413 dumps

QUESTION 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.

D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
070-413 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only
supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical 070-413 dumps requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The
Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications
as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and
flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses
innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management
and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and
management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance
customers.
Reference: Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
QUESTION 3
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The
solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
070-413 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to
contoso.com.
Reference: Delegation of Control Wizard
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the
users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to
contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to
the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the
contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com.
On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
070-413 vce 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION NO: 5
In the SmartBPM methodology, when should project enablement training (role based training)
begin? (Choose one)
A. Project Initiation
B. Elaboration
C. Inception
D. None of the above
070-413 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
The full scope of the Directly Capturing Objectives (DCO) session is defined as running the
Application Profiler during the Inception phase. True or False
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
From a flow rule you can see links to what elements of the flow? (Choose four)
A. Various shapes in the flow
B. Requirements
C. Starting models
D. Flow-wide Local Actions
E. Entire flows
070-413 dumps Answer: A,B,D,E
QUESTION NO: 8
The following action occurs during all phases of the SmartBPM® Methodology: (Choose one)
A. Quality checks
B. Governance
C. Directly Capturing Objectives
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
Use case rules can reference or be referenced by which other rules? (Choose 3)
A. Flows
B. Activities
C. Requirements
D. Validation rules
E. Properties
070-413 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 10
The program roadmap presents the big picture for solution development. This roadmap is divided
into which are divided into which are made up of . (Choose one)
A. Use cases, slivers, projects
B. Projects, use cases, slivers
C. Use cases, projects, slivers
D. Projects, slivers, use cases
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
It is a best practice to create an inventory of existing objectives, requirements, use cases, and
other project artifacts because: (Choose Two)
A. Reusing artifacts saves time and effort
B. These artifacts can be used to enter information into the Application Profiler
C. These artifacts can be used to extract information from the Project Management Framework
D. These artifacts are required to create a new application
070-413 vce Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 12
When these artifacts are combined they result in a checklist that shows the business has received
the expected value from this application: (Choose two)
A. Objectives
B. Requirements
C. Use cases
D. Project scenarios
Answer: A,B

 

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 437

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300-115 dumps

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1
port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To start a new flow-based SPAN (FSPAN) session or flow-based RSPAN (FRSPAN) source or destination session, or to limit (filter) SPAN source traffic to specific VLANs, use the monitor session filter global configuration command.
Usage Guidelines
You can set a combined maximum of two local SPAN sessions and RSPAN source sessions. You can have a total of 66 SPAN and RSPAN sessions on a switch or switch stack. You can monitor traffic on a single VLAN or on a series or range of ports or VLANs. You select a series or range of VLANs by using the [ , | -]
options. If you specify a series of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the comma. If you specify a range of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the hyphen ( -). VLAN filtering refers to analyzing network traffic on a selected set of VLANs on trunk source ports. By default, all VLANs 300-115 dumps are monitored on trunk source ports. You can use the monitor session session_number filter vlan vlan-id command to limit SPAN traffic on trunk source ports to only the specified VLANs. VLAN monitoring and VLAN filtering are mutually exclusive. If a VLAN is a source, VLAN filtering cannot be enabled. If VLAN filtering is configured, a VLAN cannot
become a source.
Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch 300-115 pdf? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on an switch that has been connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors) traffic received or sent (or both) on sou
ports or source VLANs to a destination port for analysis. RSPAN supports source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports on different switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple
switches across your network. The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated for that RSPAN session in participating switches 300-115 vce. The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the RSPAN VLAN and forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPA
VLAN to a destination session monitoring the RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources. The destinati always a physical port
Reference:
QUESTION 7
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-grou
mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we have a situation where one switch is using active mode, which is an LACP mode, and the other is using desirable, which is a PAGP mode. You can mix the LACP and PAGP protocols to form an etherchannel. Here is a summary of the various etherchannel modes:
  EtherChannel PAgP Modes
Mode Description auto Places a port into a passive negotiating state, in which the port responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets. This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel). desirable Places a port into an active negotiating state, in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending PAgP packets. This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel). EtherChannel LACP Modes
Mode Description active Places a port into an active negotiating state in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending LACP packets. passive Places a port into a passive negotiating state in which the port responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This
setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
QUESTION 8
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses, IP addresses, or Layer 4 port numbers, and either source mode, destination mode, or both. The mode you select applies to all EtherChannels that you configure on the switch. Use the option that provides the greatest variety in your 300-115 dumps configuration. For example, if the traffic on a channel only goes to a single MAC address (which is the case in this example, since all traffic is going to the same web server), use of the destination MAC address results in the choice of the same link in the channel each time. Use of source addresses or IP addresses can result in a better load balance.
QUESTION 9
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally:
monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “monitor session filter” command is used to specify which VLANS are to be port mirrored using SPAN. This example shows how to monitor VLANs 1 through
5 and VLAN 9 when the SPAN source is a trunk interface:
Switch(config)# monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 5 , 9
QUESTION 10. Which of the following are components of the Sniffer Enterprise Management Architecture?
A. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Sniffer Monitors
B. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Sniffer Distributed Consoles
C. Sniffer Distributed Consoles and Sniffer Monitors
D. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Switch Monitors
300-115 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 11. When deploying Sniffer Distributed in your network, where should Sniffer analyzers be placed?
A. On backbones and uplinks
B. On critical ports and segments
C. On WAN connections
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 12. is a protocol that enables software components to communicate directly over a network in a reliable, secure and efficient manner.
A. Distributed Console Out-of Band
B. Distributed Communication Module
C. Distributed Component Object Model
D. None of the above
300-115 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 13. With Sniffer Distributed RMON+ :
A. Capture and decode occurs and stays at the Sniffer Distributed Appliance, not the console
B. Capture and decode does not occur
C. Has the same functionality as Expert
D. Has no support for Expert Analysis Add-on
Answer:A
QUESTION 14. Controlling and viewing agents is the job of which of the following components?

A. Sniffer Distributed Console
B. Sniffer Distributed Agent C. Sniffer Monitor
D. Sniffer Portable Network Analyzer
300-115 exam Answer:A
QUESTION 15. What protocol does the Distributed Appliance used to communicate with the console? :
A. DCOM
B. SCOM
C. WCOM
D. JOCM
300-115 dumps Answer:A
QUESTION 16. Sniffer Distributed Agents need at least adapter(s).
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B
QUESTION 17. Which of the following is true about RMON+ ?
A. is basically the same as Expert
B. is capable of capturing traffic but not monitoring
C. RMON+ capture can be looked at by an agent with the Expert option
D. B and C
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 188

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  1. Design and implement websites (15-20%)
  2. Create and manage virtual machines (20-25%)
  3. Design and implement cloud services (20-25%)
  4. Design and implement a storage strategy (20-25%)
  5. Manage application and network services (15-20%)

70-532 dumps

QUESTION 1
You are deploying the web-based solution in the West Europe region.
You need to copy the repository of existing works that the plagiarism detection service uses. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of time.
What should you do?
A. Copy the files from the source file share to a local hard disk. Ship the hard disk to the West Europe data center by using the Azure Import/Export service.
B. Create an Azure virtual network to connect to the West Europe region. Then use Robocopy to copy the files from the current region to the West Europe region.
C. Provide access to the blobs by using the Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN).
Modify the plagiarism detection service so that the files from the repository are loaded from the CDN.
D. Use the Asynchronous Blob Copy API to copy the blobs from the source storage account to a storage account in the West Europe region.
70-532 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You update the portion of the website that contains biographical information about students. You need to provide data for testing the updates to the website.
Which approach should you use?
A. Use SQL Server data synchronization.
B. Use the Active Geo-Replication feature of Azure SQL Database.
C. Use SQL Replication.
D. Use the Geo-Replication feature of Azure Storage.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You need to configure storage for the solution. What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate XML segments to the correct locations. Each XML segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view 70-532 dumps content.
Select and Place:
70-532 dumps

QUESTION 4
You need to find all existing works about World History that are overdue and are stored in the
repository.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options
in the answer area.

70-532 dumps

70-532 dumps

QUESTION: 5
When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
70-532 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP
tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances
to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC’s on ADSP’s system board to
act as one for high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP
appliances are configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 7
What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
70-532 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 8
Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of
following modes would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum
Analysis and capture information about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?

A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C
QUESTION: 9
Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID
makes it easier for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for
disallowing these two practices is that it helps “hide” the network. What is the problem
with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol
analyzer
70-532 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 10
You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user
credentials upon GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP.
What additional step must be taken to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the
RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for
authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce
Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS
Accounts button in Appliance Manager
70-532 dumps  Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access
points receive the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) identifier from the station in the
reassociation frame. What other information must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer : D
QUESTION: 12
Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A19
Exam Name: Citrix XenDesktop 5 Basic Administration
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 90

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This exam requires the candidates to have the following skills:

  • The candidate must be able to identify Pre-installation requirements
  • He should be able to set up the infrastructure
  • He should be able to configure a XenDesktop environment
  • He must be able to manage the XenDesktop environment
  • He should be able to troubleshoot problems

1Y0-A19 dumps

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A customer needs to configure a XenDesktop environment so that an end user has the best
experience when launching a virtual desktop. The environment needs to be configured with fault tolerance
so that when a XenServer goes down for maintenance the target device can still be deployed by any
XenServer with the least load.
Currently, the customer has a XenServer pool consisting of 16 XenServer hosts with 8 GB of memory and
a 2 TB SATA hard disk A 2 TB Fibre Channel Storage Area Network is attached to the XenServer. The
Provisioning services host is configured on a stand-alone server with 8 GB of memory and three 500 GB
SCSI hard disks configured as a RAID 5 configuration. What is the best write caching method for deploying
800 target devices within a XenServer pool?
A. Cache on the target device and redirect to the RAM of the target device.
B. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on the local file system.
C. Cache on the target device and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage
repository.
D. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel
storage repository.
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In a Provisioning services environment, what is the default location of the write cache if no location is
specified manually?
A. RAM of the target device
B. Local drive of the target device
C. A subdirectoryinthe vDisk location
D. A subdirectory in the default Provisioning services installation path
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An administrator is planning a XenDestop 5 Quick Deploy 1Y0-A19 dumps to demonstrate superior end user experience. What would be considered when planning the Quick Deploy?
A. SQL Sewer 2008 R2 should first be instated and configured on the server that will run the Controller.
B. The SQL Server 2005 database for the XenDesktop site should be located on the same subnet as the
Controller.
C. The hypervisor should on the same subnet as the SQL Server 2008 R2 database for the XenDesktop
site.
D. SQL Express 2008 R2 should be installed as a prerequisite on the Controller running Microsoft
Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company has two sites about 3000 miles apart, one in New York and the other in Los Angeles.
Each site has 1500 users. XenDesktop site access must be available for all the users at both locations.
High availability is required so no single port of failure is acceptable. A minimum of _______XenDesktop
Controller(s) and _________Provisioning services host(s) are necessary to support all 3000 users given
the requirements. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 1,1
B. 2,2
C. 3,3
D. 4,4

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
According to Citrix best practices, which storage type should an administrator use to set up a XenDesktop
environment using XenServer?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. NTFS
D. Clustered Shared Volume
1Y0-A19 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which three storage types can XenServer use for the virtual machine disks if migrating virtual machines
without downtime is required? (Choose three)
A. CSV
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. Local Disk
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to configure port exceptions to allow the collection of Windows metrics using the
Windows Remote Management 2.0 service. Which port must the administrator allow for this environment?
A. 1494
B. 3389
C. 4752
D. 5985
1Y0-A19 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator configured a master virtual machine and created a pooled catalog with a
desktop group. The administrator discovered that antivirus software was not installed on the master virtual machine. How would the administrator update the image pool to include antivirus software for the pooled desktops with the least amount of administrative effort?
A. Recreate the master virtual machine and install the antivirus software.
B. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, then update the catalog
C. Convert the master virtual machine to a template and install antivirus software on the template.
D. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, take a snapshot of the virtual machine and
assign the snapshot to the catalog
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
When installing XenDesktop5 using the Quick Deploy method, ___________ (Choose the correct phrase
to complete the sentence.)
A. all of the components must be installed on the same server
B. the master virtual machine must be running on XenServer 5.5 or higher

C. the master virtual machine must be a member of the same domain as the Controller
D. all of the components that need to be installed are the XenDesktop Controller, Desktop Studio and the
license server
1Y0-A19 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
When too pieces of information must be supplied to install Proponing series and connect to a SQL Express
database? (Choose two.)
A. File group
B. Host name
C. Port number
D. Instance name
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11
An administrator using a third-party firewall needs to manually reconfigure the 1Y0-A19 dumps  firewall to allow port 3389 in order to permit________ (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. HDX communication
B. database communication
C. shadowing through Desktop Director
D. remote assistance through Desktop Studio
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to create a Microsoft Windows 7 template for a XenDesktop environment and has
already created a virtual machine with Microsoft Windows 7. Which step must the administrator take next
before converting the virtual machine to a template?
A. Restart the virtual machine.
B. Restart the virtual hard disk.
C. Suspend the virtual hard disk.
D. Shut down the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 14, 2017
Q&As: 427

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70-417 dumps

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the
following table.

70-417 dumps

You plan to create a checkpoint of VM1. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the checkpoint of VM1. What should you do before you create the checkpoint?
A. Decrease the Maximum RAM.
B. Convert Disk1.vhd to a dynamically expanding disk.
C. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
D. Run the Resize-VHD cmdlet.
70-417 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is stopped The checkpoint contains the state of the hard
disks only. For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is running The checkpoint contains the state
of the hard disks and the data in memory. Note: A checkpoint saves the state of each virtual hard disk that
is attached to a virtual machine and all of the hard disk’s contents, including application data files. For
virtual machines on Hyper-V and VMware ESX Server hosts, a checkpoint also saves the hardware
configuration information. By creating checkpoints for a virtual machine, you can restore the virtual
machine to a previous state.
QUESTION 2
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 dumps

You install a network monitoring application on VM2. You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2. What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: J
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch ports that are monitored as well as
the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic. And since Port mirroring allows the network traffic of a virtual machine to be monitored by copying the traffic and forwarding it to another virtual machine that is configured for monitoring, you should configure port mirroring on VM2.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs 70-417 dumps Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
70-417 dumps

You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Integration Services settings on virtual machines include services such as operating system
shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heartbeat, and Backup (volume snapshot services). This
snapshot will ensure that the state of VM1 is saved prior to backup.
References:

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following 70-417 pdf table.

70-417 dumps

VM3 is used to test applications. You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown,
time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you
should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410 dumps, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings.

QUESTION 5
Which port needs to be opened for Alert Channel communication between Sensor and Manager through a
firewall?
A. 8501
B. 8502
C. 8503
D. 8555
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Setting a threshold to allow an IPS to react when traffic volume exceeds the set limit is an example of what
type of detection method?
A. Signature based
B. Pattern matching
C. Denial of Service
D. Remediation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Performance debugging mode can be enabled on a sensor for a specified time duration by issuing which
of the following CLI commands?
A. sensor perf-debug 100
B. sensor perf-debug on 100
C. sensor perf-debug Interface all 100
D. sensor perf-debug assert 100
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What type of encryption is used for file transfers between the Sensor and the Manager?
A. SSL with RC4
B. SSL with MD5
C. SSL with RC4 and MD5
D. DES
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
When placed in Layer3 mode, a Sensor detects a Layer2 device based on which of the following?
A. MAC address
B. IP address
C. DNS
D. Subnet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the CLI command that enables the output of the MAC/IP address mapping table to the sensor
debug files?

A. arp spoof status
B. arp spoof enable
C. arp dump
D. arp flush
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
DoS detection is implemented in which of the following modes? (Choose two)
A. Learning mode
B. Configuration mode
C. Threshold mode
D. Bidirectional mode
E. Inbound mode
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
Which port needs to be opened for Packet Log Channel communication between Sensor and Manager
through a firewall?
A. 8501
B. 8502
C. 8503
D. 8555
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
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QUESTION NO: 34
Productivity is increased if value is added to a product.
A. True
B. False
100-105 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
Quality assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards,
and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 36
A latent defect is the same as a fault.
A. True
B. False
100-105 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
Quality and quality assurance are synonymous.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
Vision is a clear definition of the result you are trying to achieve.
A. True
B. False
100-105 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
A standard is not an expected norm
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
Quality control relates to a specific product or service.
A. True
B. False
100-105 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which two elements are the major causes of documentation problems? (Choose any Two)
A. Forgetfulness
B. Not enough time
C. Personal attitudes
D. Low priority
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 42
Almost one-half of a programmer’s time is spent identifying and fixing errors in specifications.
A. True
B. False
100-105 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 43
What is the present value of money of a $10,000 expenditure that you will spend one year from
now if money is worth 14 percent?
A. $1600
B. $8770
C. $8600
D. $2630
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
National Quality Awards are intended to foster continuous improvement activities.
A. True
B. False
100-105 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 45
The objective of the present value of money calculation is to convert future dollars into current
dollars.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
In the IT workbench, quality, and performance of the work are the responsibility of the QA
department.
A. True
B. False
100-105 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
The process used for documenting user’s requirements is known as validation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 48
A large portion of the cost of quality is usually the cost of rework.
A. True
B. False
100-105 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
Function points quantify data processing work outputs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 50
Function points are hardware and software independent.
A. True
B. False
100-105 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
The inspection is an evaluation technique that relies on visual examination of an item.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 52
The three parts of the function point count must be determined individually.
A. True
B. False
100-105 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 53
The intent of the quality control checklist should be to improve the quality of the product being
controlled by investigative means.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 54
Measurement of function points cannot be used for comparing two different kinds of systems.
A. True
B. False
100-105 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 55
A process/activity during which a high number of defects occur is known as a defect-prone
process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 56
The number-one skill needed for the tester analyst is listening.
A. True
B. False
100-105 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 57
A program whose purpose is to reduce the number of defects produced is known as a quality
improvement program.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO:58 You want to implement site level disaster recovery. Which two are valid options to consider? (Choose two.)
A. Use SAN Copy to copy LUNs from the primary site to the recovery site.
B. Use SAN Copy to mirror a LUN from the primary site to the recovery site. C.
Use MirrorView to mirror LUNs from the primary site to another local array.
D. Use SnapView to create a clone, then use SAN Copy to copy the clone to the recovery site.
100-105 exam Answer: AD
QUESTION NO:59 You have installed SAN Copy. Which 100-105 dumps statement is true?
A. The storage array must be rebooted.
B. SAN Copy cannot be upgraded, except by a complete re-install.
C. Any LUN within the SAN is automatically made available to be copied.
D. The admhost utility must be installed on each storage array that Navisphere Manager resides on.
E. SAN Copy sessions can be managed through the Navisphere Manager Enterprise Storage window.
Answer: E
QUESTION NO:60 Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
B. Snapshots may be created using the admhost CLI utility.
C. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs. D.
SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN. E.
Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION NO:61 Which three statements are correct about clones? (Choose three.)
A. Clones can be copied using SAN Copy to a remote storage array.
B. Clones typically consume about 20% of the size of the source LUN.

C. Fractured clones can later be synchronized with the source LUN to update the contents.
D. Clones can be fractured from the source LUN, then mounted to a secondary host and accessed just
like another LUN.
100-105 pdf Answer: ACD
QUESTION NO:62 You want User1 to have Administrator access to storage system A that is located in a branch office.
However, you want User1 to have read-only access to the remaining storage systems within the domain.
Which scenario best accomplishes this task?
A. User accounts must be either global or local because the user inherits the most restrictive role
assigned to the user.
B. Create a local account with Administrator access on storage system A, then create a global account for
User1 with Monitor access.
C. Create a global account with Monitor access on storage system A, then modify the account policy to
allow User1 to administer only storage system A.
D. Create a global account with Monitor access on the master node, then have User1 log in to storage
system A using the local default manager account.
Answer: B

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-767 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION: 1
Four separate operating requirements and four individual storage management methods for
XML document data are listed below. Considering the general characteristics, which
individual management method ([Management Methods]) combines most optimally with
which requirement ([Operating Requirements])?
[Operating Requirements]
1. Retrieve a portion of the XML document according to values in the XML document
2. Identify the XML document by unique values, and retrieve the entire XML document
3. Perform aggregation and statistical calculations of the values in the XML document
4. Continuously check the data types for the values in the XML document, and search
through data using queries on the XML document [Management Methods]
A) XML document file (text file) management via file system
B) Management via RDB (relational database), and program for storing data from an XML
document into the RDB (assume the RDB does not maintain an XML document tree
structure)
C) Management via XMLDB, using XML Schema definitions
D) Management via XMLDB, without using XML Schema definitions
A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
70-767 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 2
Assume that a certain XMLDB requires disk capacity in excess of the size of an XML
document when storing the XML document to accommodate XML node information and
other information (such as management considerations, etc.) The following describes the
capacity needed: When eliminating ignorable whitespace in the XML document 1.5 times
the XML document file size When not eliminating ignorable whitespace in the XML
document 2.0 times the XML document file size At the initial stage, the total size of the
XML document files to be stored is 1GB. At the operating stage, repeated additions and
deletions of XML documents will result in a projected disk requirement of plus or minus
10% compared to the prior year. Assume that the disk size configured at initial stage cannot
be changed for two years. The required disk capacity will be calculated according to these
conditions; however, to provide a safety margin, the decision has been made to set aside the
equivalent of twice the maximum required disk capacity as calculated above. Select the
value representing the required disk capacity when ignorable whitespace is not eliminated
from the XML document. Do not consider any facts or conditions other than those given
above.
A. 3.3GB
B. 3.63GB
C. 4.4GB
D. 4.84GB

Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
Assume that [testmixsd] (referenced in a separate window) has been defined. Without
rewriting this XML Schema Document ([testml-xsd]), create a new, separate XML Schema
Document to partially change the schema definition replacing the phone element with a
cellPhone element. As a result, the following [XML Document] will be valid against the
new schema.

Which of the following correctly descnbes the new XML Schema Document? Assume that
the XMLDB or XML parser correctly processes the XML Schema schema Location
attribute.
[XML Document]
<TestML>
<person> <name>John Smith</name>
<cellPhone>000-1111-2222</cellPhone>
</person>
</TestML>
A. <xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema”>
<xs:import schemaLocation=”testml.xsd” />

<xs:element name=”cellPhone” type=”xs:string” />
</xs:schema>
B. <xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://wvwv.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema”>
<xs:include schemaLocation=”testmLxsd” />
<xs:element name=”cellPhone” substitutionGroup=”phone” type=”xs:string” />
</xs:schema>
C. <xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema”>
<xs:redefine schemaLocation-‘testml.xsd”>
<xs:element name=”cellPhone” base=”phone” type=”xs:string” />
</xs:redefine>
</xs:schema>
D. This type of definition cannot be created using XML Schema
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
See separate window.
Assume you wish to execute a query on [example.xml] (separate window) to obtain a
record element that includes a data element having a value equal to or greater than 100 and
less than 200. Select the correct result of executing the [XQuery] (separate window). The
expected result would be “C;” however, the query may not be processed as expected.
A. <result/>
B. <result>

<record date=”2007-05-15″>
<data condition=”bad”>50</data>
<data condition=”bad”>80</data>
<data condition=”good”>250</data>
</record>
</result>
C. <result>
<recorddate=”2007-05-16″>
<data condition=”bad”>60</data>
<data condition=”good”>90</data>
<datacondition=”good”>150</data>
</record>
</result>
D. <result>
<recorddate=”2007-05-15″>
<data condition=”bad”>50</data>
<data condition=”bad”>80</data>
<datacondition=”good”>250</data>
</record>
<recorddate=”2007-05-16″>
<data condition=”bad”>60</data>
<data condition=”good”>90</data>
<data condition=”good”> 150</data>
</record>
</result>
Answer: D
QUESTION: 5
Assume that you wish to create an XML Schema document against which [XML
Document] (referenced in a separate window) is valid.

Select which of the two answers below are correct as descriptions for (1) in the following
[XML Document]. Assume that the elements with namespace “um:xmlmaster division” or
“urrvxmtmaster:title’ in [XML Document] have been property defined in separate XML
Schemas.

A. <xs:sequence>
<xs:any namespace=”##any” processContents=”lax”/>
<xs:element ref=”tns:person”maxOccurs=”unbounded”/>
</xs:sequence>
B. <xs:sequence>
<xs:any namespace=”##other” minOccurs=”0″ maxOccurs=”unbounded”
processContents=”lax”/>
<xs:element ref=”tns:person” maxOccurs=”unbounded”/>
</xs:sequence>
C. <xs:sequence>
<xs:any namespace-‘urn:xmlmaster: division urn:xmlmaster:title”
processContents=”lax”/>
<xs:element ref=”tns:person” maxOccurs=”unbounded”/>
</xs:sequence>
D. <xs:choice minOccurs=”0″ maxOccurs=”unbounded”>
<xs:any namespace=”urrrxmlmaster:division um:xmlmaster:title”
processContents=”lax”/>
<xs:element ref=”tns:person”/>
</xs:choice>
70-767 pdf Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 6
Assume that for [XML Document] referenced in a separate window, you wish to create an
XML Schema document that defines that the value of the level attribute of the record
element must be unique within the XML document, and further that the level attribute of
the scenario element must reference the value of the level attribute of the record element.
[XML Document]
<TestML>
<record level=”1″ data=”100″ />
<record level=”2″ data=”250″ />
<scenario stage=”A” level=”1″ />
<scenario stage=”B” level=”2″ />
</TestML>
Select which answer correctly belongs in (1) of the [XML Schema] document below.

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
Select the correct result of executing the [XQuery] on [example xml] referenced in a
separate window.

A.
<result>
<record>
<name/>
</record>
<record>
<name/>

</result>
B.
<result>
<example>
<record>
<name/>
</record>
<record>
<name/>
</record>
</example>
</result>
C.
<result>
<record>
<name>John Smith</name>
</record>
<record>
<name>Harold Jones</name>
</record>
</result>
D.
<result>
<example>
<record>
<name>John Smith</name>
</record>
<record>
<name>Harold Jones</name>
</record>
</example>
</result>
70-767 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
Select which of the following is not a correct description regarding dynamic context
defined by XQuery 1.0.
A. Dynamic context is information that is available at the time the expression is evaluated
B. The dynamic context consists of all the components of the static context (default
element/type namespace, etc.), and additional components (context item, etc.)
C. The value of context size (one of the dynamic context components) can be obtained
using the “fn:last()” function
D. Query prolog cannot be used to set the value for any of the dynamic context components
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
An [XQuery] was executed to join [eventList.xml] and [sessionUst.xml] (referenced in a
separate window) and obtain the following [Expected Execution Result]. However,
executing this [XQuery] resulted in an error.

Select which of the following is an appropriate example of the resulting Error Message.
A. XPST0008:An expression refers to a variable name that is not defined in the static
context.
B. XPTY0018:The result of the last step in a path expression contains both nodes and
atomic values.
C. XGTY0024:The content sequence in an element constructor contains an attribute node
following a node that is not an attribute node.
D. XGST0054:A variable depends on itself.
70-767 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 10
Assume the use of XML Data like [XML Data] referenced in a separate window. When a
data element is present in XML Data, there are three possibilities for b element as shown in
[XML Data b Element] (separate window). No other possibilities are available. Consider
inserting any XML data into an XMLDB using the methods shown in [Operation 1] or
[Operation 2].

Select the correct answer that allows for a clear identification of the three different
possibilities for [XML Data b Element].
[Operation 1]
After validating against the following [XML Schema], insert XML data (having no
validation errors) into the XMLDB. When no b element is present, the b element value is
null. When b element is present, the b element value is either 1 or 2 in [XML Data b
Element].

[Operation 2]
After validating against the following [DTD], insert XML data (having no validation
errors) into the XMLDB (do not consider the existence of a document type declaration in
the XML data). When the b element value is “null”, the value of the b element is null.
When the b element value is a character string other than “null”, the b element value is 1 in
[XML Data b Element].
When the b element is an empty element, the b element value is 2 in [XML Data b
Element].
[DTD]
<!ELEMENT example (data+)>
<!ELEMENT data (a?, b?, c?)>
<!ELEMENT a (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT b (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT c (#PCDATA)>
A. Under the method described in [Operation 1], the three possibilities may not be clearly
identified in some circumstances
B. Under the method described in [Operation 2],the three possibilities may not be clearly
identified in some circumstances
C. The methods in [Operation 1] and [Operation 2] can clearly identify the three
possibilities
D. The methods in [Operation 1] and [Operation 2] cannot clearly identify the three
possibilities
70-767 exam Answer: B

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
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QUESTION NO: 20
What is the call sequence as established by the Q.931 standard?
A. ALERTING, CALL PROCEEDING, CONNECT, ACKNOWLEDGE, FIN
B. ALERTING, CALL PROCEEDING, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, RELEASE
C. SETUP, CALL PROCEEDING, ALERTING, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, DISCONNECT,
RELEASE, RELEASE COMPLETE
D. ESTABLISH, SYN, SYN ACK, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, CALL PROCEEDING,
DISCONNECT, RELEASE, RELEASE ACKNOWLEDGE, FIN
210-255 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
A traditional PBX generally offers all of the following features EXCEPT:
A. Voice mail
B. Call forwarding
C. Call interruption
D. Find me/follow me
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Which type of delay is most likely to cause jitter?
A. Queuing delay
B. Handling delay
C. Transfer delay
D. Propagation delay
210-255 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
How would you represent the IP address and subnet mask for 152.2.100.1/25?
A. 152.2.100.1
255.255.255.120
B. 152.2.100.1
255.255.255.128
C. 152.2.100.1
255.255.255.224
D. 152.2.100.1
255.255.255.240
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following encodes messages in ASCII, uses proxies instead of gatekeepers, and is a
peer-to-peer protocol?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. The local loop
210-255 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
Consider the following entry:
$ORIGIN 7.7.0.0.5.7.2.2.0.6.1.e164.arpa.
IN NAPTR 102 10 “u” “sip+E2U” “!^.*$!sip:[email protected]!i” .
From the information given, what is the purpose of this entry?
A. Calls will be received on a system that uses IPv6.
B. The PBX will act as a backup to the SIP proxy for a call.
C. It routes a PSTN phone number to an SIP-enabled device.
D. It translates calls into e-mail and routes the e-mail to the marketing department.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Which ITU standard allows you to share applications in real time?
A. UDP
B. T.120
C. T.37
D. SNMP
210-255 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27
Your company’s users on the primary LAN have been given soft phones on their personal
computers to make voice calls. You have implemented a VLAN. What priority should you mark the
voice and computer data?
A. Computer data: 0
Voice data: 6
B. Computer data: 0
Voice data: 9
C. Computer data: 1
Voice data: 0
D. Computer data: 5
Voice data: 6
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following best describes the IPv4 and IPv6 address formats?
A. In IPv4 addresses, each of the four 8-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6
addresses, each of the eight 16-bit fields is separated by a colon.
B. In IPv4 addresses, each of the four 16-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6
addresses, each of the seven 32-bit fields is separated by a colon.
C. In IPv4 addresses, the subnet mask fields are separated by a dash, whereas in IPv6
addresses, each of the 10 8-bit fields is separated by a colon.
D. In IPv4 addresses, each of the 32-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6
addresses, each of the 16-bit fields is separated by a colon.
210-255 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following best describes how an H.323 node operates during the call setup phase?
A. Each node sends both the registration information and the media stream through the
gatekeeper.
B. Each node sends registration information to the gatekeeper along with a sample of the data that
will be transmitted.
C. Each node sends call setup information directly to each other, whereas the media stream is
sent directly to the gatekeeper.
D. Each node sends call setup information to a gatekeeper, whereas the media stream is sent
directly from one host to another.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
When a technician connects a North American T1 trunk to a European E1 trunk using a
conversion device, which of the following will result?
A. No less than 80% of the T1 can be used.
B. No more than 80% of the E1 trunk can be used.
C. No connection can be made between E1 and T1.
D. The connection will fail because E1 uses out-of-band transmission and T1 lines use in-band
transmission.
210-255 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
You need to choose a codec according to the following parameters:
– The codec should be standard for convergent voice and video calls.
– Due to the limited capability of the IP phones, the codec should require as little computation
power as possible.
– The codec should create voice at a bit rate of 8 Kbps.
Which codec should you choose?
A. G.711
B. G.723.1
C. G.726
D. G.729a
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following is essential for implementing Telephone Number Mapping (ENUM)?
A. Regional Internet Registry (RIR)
B. The Network Time Protocol (NTP)
C. The Domain Name System (DNS)
D. A DNS Mail Exchanger (MX) record
210-255 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which problem typically occurs if a jitter buffer is too small?
A. Too many delays will occur.
B. Too few packets will be re-sent.
C. Too few interfaces will be addressed.
D. Too many packets will be discarded.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
A proxy device resides at sipproxy.ctpcertified.com. You need to create a URI so that the phone
number 01908 220220 is a valid entry. Which entry accomplishes this goal?
A. [email protected]: 01908 220220
B. sip://[email protected] 220220
C. sip: 01908 [email protected]
D. INVITE: 01908 [email protected]
210-255 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
Which device inspects incoming packets, makes dynamic routing decisions based on the source
and destination IP addresses, and is considered the most appropriate device to use when
forwarding packets between networks?
A. Repeater
B. Gateway
C. Layer 2 switch
D. Layer 3 switch

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
What algorithm is usually selected when voice is companded at 64 Kbps in all parts of the world
except North America and Japan?
A. A-Law
B. Mu-Law
C. G.711
D. G.729a
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
Which term describes a method of attacking resources on a VLAN?
A. Dictionary attack
B. VLAN hopping
C. VLAN spamming
D. Social engineering
210-255 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
Consider the following IP address in CIDR notation:
142.98.8.0/26
How many addresses can theoretically be in each subnet?
A. 62
B. 254
C. 4,094
D. 1,048,574
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39

What impact does the 3-bit User Priority field in an 802.1q frame have to help voice quality in LAN
based communications?
A. It stipulates the format of the MAC address for each network host.
B. It names a collision domain.
C. It replaces a system’s MAC address.
D. It identifies the prioritization settings.
210-255 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
You require an architecture that provides the following:
– Support for both packet-switched and circuit-switched calls
– Support for fixed and mobile voice calls and data transmission
– A non-proprietary architecture
– Ability to enable access to the Internet
– Ability to interoperate with SIP.
Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Calling Line Identification Presentation (CLIP)
B. IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
C. Session Announcement Protocol (SAP)
D. Realtime Transport Protocol (RTP)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following describes how Realtime Control Protocol (RTCP) allocates a port when it is
paired with the Realtime Transport Protocol (RTP)?
A. RTCP uses TCP port 8080.
B. RTCP uses UDP port 1719.
C. RTCP allocates a port one greater than that used by RTP.
D. RTCP relies on the SIP proxy or H.323 gateway to determine the port used.
210-255 pdf Answer: C

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