[2017-10-NEW] 100% Real Cisco 400-101 Dumps CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam With New Discount on Youtube

Cisco 400-101 dumps in one month, is it possible? “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” is the name of Cisco 400-101 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. 100% real Cisco 400-101 dumps CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam with new discount on youtube. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (828 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 400-101 dumps is CCIE. Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps certification is the best proof of your knowledge, skills, and expertise.it is the process in which you prove technical skills through the Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching cisco Exam.

Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 828

[2017-10-NEW Cisco 400-101 Dumps Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWczJDVzl1SUJLWms

[2017-10-NEW 70-412 Dumps Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTVhyb3I4T3F4blE

400-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about asymmetric routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It can cause packet loss over stateful ICMP and UDP connections
B. It can cause packet loss when a stateful firewall is in use.
C. It can cause TCP connections to close.
D. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use.
E. It is uncommon in large networks.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which PIM mode can forward traffic by using only (*.G) routing table entries?
A. Space-dese mode
B. Bidirectional mode
C. Deuce mode
D. Sparse mode
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Refer To the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which IS-IS process is responsible for flooding local link information to adjacent routers ?
A. decision
B. receive
C. forward
D. update
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller note ?
(Choose two)
A. Neutron server plugin
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Neutron layer 2 agent
D. Identify Service
E. Neutron Layer 3 agent
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit
400-101 dumps
Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. It creates an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60
B. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops.
C. It prevent the device from falling back to dense mode.
D. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds.
E. It configure the router as the rendezvous point
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Exhibit:
400-101 dumps
Your network is suffering excessive output drops. Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem?
(Choose two.)
A. Install a switch with larger buffers.
B. Configure a different queue set.

C. Reconfigure the switch buffers.
D. Configure the server application to use TCP.
E. Update the server operating system.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 8
In a Cisco ACL environment .which option best describes “contracts”?
A. named group of related endpoints
B. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. a layer 3 forwarding domain
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which characteristic of an IS-IS single topology is true?
A. Its IPv4 and IPv6 interfaces must have a 1:1 correlation.
B. It supports asymmetric IPv4 and IPv6 interface.
C. It uses a separate SPF calculation than the IPv4 routing table
D. The metric-style wide command must be enabled.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of ipv6 multicast traffic on a switch?
A. MLD filtering
B. IGMP snooping
C. MLD snooping
D. IGMP filtering
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
If interface FastEthernetO/1 goes down,how does router R5 respond?
A. It sends query packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24.
B. It sends update packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24
C. It is stuck in active for destination 192.168.24.0/24
D. It uses interface F0/0 and neighbor 192.168.35.3 as the new path to destination 192.168.24.0/24
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What is the default time-out value of an ARP entry in Cisco IOS Software?
A. 720 minutes
B. 240 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 480 minutes
E. 120 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello
packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 14

400-101 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running EIGRP and the network has R3 to R4 are configured as EIGRP
stub, if when the R2 goes down,which statement is true?
A. R1 sends traffic destined to 192.168.0.100 via R2
B. R2 does not have a router to 192.168.0.0/24 in the routing table.
C. The prefix 192.168.0.0/24 becomes stuck-in-active on R4
D. R3 does not advertise 192.168.0.0/24 to R4 anymore 100% Valid Cisco Exams
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two options are benefits of EIGRP OTP? {Choose two)
A. It fully supports multicast traffic.
B. It allow the administrator to use different autonomous system number per EIGRP domain.
C. It allow EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider without the service provider involvement.
D. It allows the customer EIGRP domain to remain contiguous.
E. It requires only minimal support from the service provider.
F. It allows EIGRP neighbors to be discovered dynamically.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
which two statements about IP SLAs are true? {Choose two)
A. They are used primarily in the distribution layer.
B. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip
C. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB
D. Data can be collected with a physical probe.
E. They are layer 2 transport independent.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which two statements about logging are true?(Choose two)
A. Log messages are displayed in a Telnet session by default.
B. Interface status changes are logged at the Informational level.
C. Interface status changes are logged at the Notification level

D. Log messages are sent to the console port by default.
E. Reload requests are logged at the Notification level.
F. System restart messages are logged at the Critical level.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three)
A. ERMS
B. EPL
C. ERS
D. MPLS
E. EMS
F. EWS
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Refer to exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which AS paths are matched by this access list?
A. the directly attached AS 65596 and any
B. the origin AS 64496 only
C. the origin AS 64996 and any ASs after AS 64496
D. the directly attached AS 64496 and any ASs directly attached to AS 64496
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 20
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching 400-101 dumps focuses on the knowledge and skills needed to perform real job responsibilities. This Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert Routing and Switching provides https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps that allows you key skills and talent to be internationally recognized.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/PyNCK41BG10

Cisco 350-040 Exam Guide, Most Popular Cisco 350-040 Dump Online Shop

Welcome to download the newest Dumpsoon IIA-CIA-PART3 dumps:

Fully Updated Do not hesitate to choose Flydumps  Cisco 350-040 Exam Dumps, all are updated timely by IBM expert professionals.Visit the site Flydumps.com to get the free  Cisco 350-040 pdf dumps and free vce player.

QUESTION 100
What statement is true with regard to VSANs and pWWWN zones?
A. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic
B. Routing, naming, and zoning protocols are not available on a per VSAN basis
C. Zones enforce membership only at the source and destination ports
D. Zones enforce membership at each E port, source port, and destination port
E. None of these statements are true

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
What is the User-specified VSAN IDs range?
A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
Click the Exhibit button. What is the maximum rate at which a host with a 2Gb/s HBA can write to a disk with a 2Gb/s fibre channel adapter if it must traverse a three port, 1Gb/s per link portchannel if srcID/dstID load balancing is configured?

A. 1Gb/s
B. 2Gb/s
C. 3Gb/s
D. 3.2Gb/s
E. 4Gb/s

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 103
What zoning option is valid in interop mode 2 and 3 with a mixed vendor fabric?
A. domain / port
B. nWWN
C. fcid
D. lun zoning
E. sWWN

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
What Switch Fabric Internal Link services (SW_ILS) command indicates if the FCIP connection is a E-Port or a B-Port?
A. ESC
B. EFP
C. ELP
D. LSU
E. EPP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
The MDS FICON portaddress “prohibit” subcommand:
A. Does not prohibit symmetrically; if you prohibit Port 0 from talking to Port 15. You must also explicitly prohibit Port 15 from talking to Port 0
B. Causes the port to start transmitting the OLS primitive sequence
C. Is VSAN-specific
D. Can be applied to the CUP
E. Cannot be applied to a FCIP interface
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 106
What is the general timer for missing events within a sequence?
A. Connection Request Time-out
B. Error Detect Time-out
C. Resource Allocation Time-out
D. Receiver-Transmitter Time-out
E. Missing Events Time-out
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
In iSCSI proxy mode, host iSCSI initiators can be differentiated by:
A. Static PWWN assigned by MDS
B. Static PWWN assigned by administrator
C. IQN name of the iSCSI initiator
D. IP address of the iSCSI initiator
E.
F. 164 address of the iSCSI initiator

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 108
What statement is NOT correct for FCIP compression?
A. FCIP compression uses LZS compression algorithm.
B. FCIP compression is dependent on the type of data compressed.
C. By default FCIP compression is disabled.
D. High-throughput and high-comp-ratio mode may be configured simultaneously.
E. FCIP compression has to be configured under FCIP interface.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
What settings would be required on a MDS9000 switch for proper use of a PAA?
A. PAA requires a TE port to connect and must be in its own VSAN.
B. PAA requires an SD port and must be it its own VSAN.
C. PAA requires an ethernet connection to the MDS supervisor.
D. PAA requires an SD port connection.
E. PAA requires ST and SD ports.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
You have a storage array connected to interface fc1/5 that has LUN masking enabled. You want to be able to see all the LUNs configured behind this port using the MDS “discover scsi-target local os linux lun” command. What command will give you the PWWN you need to use to configure the storage array so that the “show scsi-target lun” command will display the LUNs?
A. show wwn switch
B. show interface fc1/5
C. show scsi-target internal driver
D. sho flogi database interface fc1/5
E. show scsi-target pwwn
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 111
What statement is NOT correct for Inter Vsan Routing?
A. When using the IVR feature, all border switches in a given fabric must be Cisco MDS switches.
B. Non-MDS switches may be present in the transit VSAN(s) if the interop mode 1 option is enabled.
C. IVR is not supported in any interop modes.
D. Inter-VSAN control traffic that is allowed includes Switch-to-Switch FSPF routing information.
E. On Cisco MDS 9000 switches you can configure up to 200 IVZs and 2000 IVZ members.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A. The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
B. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
C. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
D. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
E. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
What statement regarding LUN zoning is accurate?
A. LUN zoning is a standards based feature that can be used to connect to another switch while in interop mode.
B. The MDS LUN zoning feature cannot be used when the LUN masking feature is used on a storage subsystem.
C. When LUN 0 is not included within a zone, control traffic to LUN 0 (for example, REPORT_LUNS, INQUIRY) is still supported.
D. When LUN 0 is not included within a zone, data traffic to LUN 0 (for example, READ, WRITE) is still supported.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
A vty terminal type can be changed to vt100 by what method or command?
A. From EXEC level enter “terminal terminal-type vt100
B. From configuration mode enter “terminal vty 0-4 type vt100”
C. From configuration mode enter “line 0-4 type vt100”
D. From EXEC level enter “line mode terminal-type vt100”
E. None – the vty terminal type cannot be changed.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 115
On the 9120 an additional ISL is required and ports 1-4 and 6 are already occupied. What additional port can be used?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. None – the 9120 can only use ports 1-4 for ISLs.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 116
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only. User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
B. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
C. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
D. Show, debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
E. Show, debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
Read only zones on MDS switches are implemented using:
A. SCSI I/O operation type
B. LUN masking
C. LUN mapping
D. LUN binding
E. LUN trespass

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
What is true about MDS FCIP Profiles?
A. The Profile IDs must match the FCIP interface ID.
B. Only one FCIP Interface per profile.
C. FCIP profile contains the assigned IP address to which it is bound.
D. FCIP profile is not required if only one FCIP interface is used.
E. FCIP Profile is assigned to a GiGE interface.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
What selection below lists the architectural levels of the Fibre Channel protocol in order from the lowest level to highest level?
A. Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Common Services, Upper Layer Protocol
B. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Device Control, Network, Transport, Upper Layer Protocol
C. Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Transport, Presentation
D. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Upper Layer Protocol
E. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Fibre Channel Protocol

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
What standard association is working in the definition of the iSCSI and Fibre Channel protocols respectively?
A. SNIA, IETF
B. FCIA, IETF
C. IETF, ANSI
D. FCIA, SNIA
E. SNIA, T11
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 121
Which steps are required to downgrade Fabric Manager Server to an earlier or previous release?
A. In FM use the “Revert” tab under “Server Admin” to initiate downgrade to previous release
B. Delete the “.cisco_mds9000” and restore earlier version from automatically created “mds_backup” directory
C. Fabric Manager Server cannot be downgraded to an earlier release
D. Close all instances of FM/DM, run the “Uninstall” program, then re-install the previous release
E. Downgrade the MDS switch to the correct version of code; when Fabric Manger is opened it will automatically downgrade to the earlier version located on the MDS

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Brocade 12000 core PID mode 1
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Inrange FC/9000
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
Which are functions of the Domain Identifier Assigned (DIA) ILS?
A. It indicates that a Principal Switch has been selected, and that the upstream neighbor Switch has been assigned a Domain Identifier.
B. It indicates that the receiving Switch can proceed requesting a Domain Identifier.
C. It indicates that the principal switch selection and address assignment phase is completed and the fabric is operational.
D. It indicates that the principal switch selection is started, but a principal switch has not been identified yet.
E. It indicates that a Request Domain Identifier ILS has been received by principal switch.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 124
To ensure FCID persistency is persistent , what needs to be configured?
A. Static VSAN ID
B. Static port ID
C. Static FC_ID
D. Static port map
E. Static Domain ID
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 125
With FC-SP, when an “Initiator” sends a “AUTH Negotiate” the “Responder” replies with?
A. DHCHAP Success
B. DHCHAP Negotiate
C. AUTH Negotiate
D. DHCHAP Challenge
E. AUTH Access Request
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
Which are true statements about the Receiver_Transmitter timeout value (R_T_TOV)?
A. It is a timer, by default 100ms, used by the receiver logic to detect Loss-of-Synchronization.
B. It is a timer, by default 100ms, used for detecting a protocol error condition.
C. It is a timer equal to 2 X E_D_TOV that is used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery_Qualifier.
D. It is a value for the R_T_TOV is negotiated between the N_Port and the Fabric, during the Fabric Login as one of the Common Service Parameters exchanged.
E. It is used to time events occurring on a single link.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 127
What is NOT a capability of RBAC in the MDS?
A. Define roles with specific allowed commands to be executed by users within these roles
B. Allowed to synchronize to a RADIUS server for user access and authentication
C. To define roles on a per VSAN basis
D. Have three define roles and operations access created (Security Administrator, SAN Administrator and SAN Operator)
E. Create rules for commands on a physical port level

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 128
Which conditions must exist for a FICON-enabled VSAN with a CUP device on an MDS 9509 switch, assuming that fibre channel zones are not used to control access to FICON-attached devices?
A. Fabric binding
B. Default zone permit
C. In-order delivery of frames
D. CUP resides in a zone in the active zoneset.
E. Source_ID/Destination_ID/Exchange_ID load balancing

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 129
What are the 3 types of Ordered Sets defined in Fibre Channel?
A. Offline sequence, online sequence, and link reset
B. Start of frame, end of frame, and idle
C. Frame delimiters, primitive signals, and primitive sequences
D. K28.5, D16.0, and D31.2
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 130
A customer has an existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding an MDS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required? (Topology: McData 6400 – (ISL)

Brocade12000 – (ISL) — MDS)

A.
Open Fabric Mode

B.
Native

C.
Interop 1

D.
Interop 2

E.
Interop 3
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 131
Which are effects of a Build Fabric (BF) ILS?
A. The BF causes a disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
B. The BF causes a non-disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
C. The BF causes a new principal switch selection to happen.
D. The BF causes the change of all the addresses assigned in the fabric while holding data traffic, to avoid traffic loss.
E. The BF helps to resolve overlapping domain identifiers.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 132
FCanalyzer is recommended for use with which types of captures?
A. FC frames from initiator to target
B. FC frames from initiator to FC switch
C. Class F frames from FC switch to FC switch
D. Used with SPAN function to capture FC Frames
E. Can be used to send captured frames remotely out the management 10/100 interface for ethereal.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 133
When using IVR traversing a FCIP link, what is not required?
A. Transit VSAN over FCIP link
B. Two or more VSANs in configuration
C. InterVSAN zoneset active for host to access storage
D. Border switch will be member of at least two VSANs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
What type of ordered set is sent to indicate a condition or state exists in Fibre Channel protocol?
A. Arbitrate Signals
B. K28.5
C. Primitive Signals
D. Primitive Sequence
E. Fill words

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
When adding a iSCSI initiator, what is the minimum that must be configured when using iSCSI proxy initiator mode?
A. Zone changes must be done to add new iSCSI initiator’s pWWN.
B. A new VSAN must be created to add iSCSI initiator.
C. The iSCSI initiator must be added with the ip address of the new iSCSI initiator.
D. The iSCSI virtual target must be created to permit access for the new iSCSI initiator.
E. LUN masking on the storage array must be changed to allow the new iSCSI initiator pWWN to access LUN.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 136
A switch boot failure can be caused by a corrupted image or corrupted bootflash file system. In the event of a corrupted bootflash filesystem which steps could be used to access BIOS so the system could be booted via TFTP?
A. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl ]” or ESC to enter BIOS setup.
B. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl X” to enter BIOS setup
C. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl C” to enter BIOS setup
D. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl C” to access switch(boot)# prompt
E. Supervisor cannot recover from corrupted bootflash. The card must be replaced.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 137
What is FALSE about traffic shaping implemented by the MDS 9000 FCIP TCP stack?
A. It uses variable rate, per-flow shaping when sending data.
B. Traffic shaping is particularly useful in conjunction with compression because it paces the flow of compressed data on the wire reacting to different per-packet compression rates.
C. If the FCIP path has a Gigabit or more of dedicated bandwidth available, then shaping is not required.
D. Traffic shaping is always required, regardless of the bandwidth available on the FCIP path.
E. The shaper works by sending packets at a rate that is consumable by the downstream network, based on the configured minimum and maximum bandwidth parameters.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Initializing
B. Up
C. Suspended
D. Active
E. Down

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 139
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FB
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FD
E. FF.FF.FE
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 140
A reason for persistent binding to be enabled on an HBA is to provide what benefit?
A. To prevent other hosts from accessing a specific target
B. To configure a user specified PWWN to the HBA
C. To assign the same SCSI target ID to a storage device’s PWWN
D. To allocate the same FCID to a fibre channel device
E. To allocate the same domain ID to a switch in a VSAN

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
Hosts and storage are connected to 2 MDS units interconnected by ISLs in the following manner: FCID Initiator/Target MDS VSAN Zone 0x01000a Initiator 1 A 0x01000b Target 1 B 0x01000c Initiator 2 A 0x02000a Target 2 1 A 0x02000b Initiator 2 1 B 0x02000c Target 1 2 A All default zones are set to deny and IVR is not enabled. Trunking is disabled on all of the ISLs, which reside in VSAN 1. How many pairs of source-destination flows are possible over the ISLs in this configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 142
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology?
A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hop (ie: traversing 2 switches) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be dedicated to FICON traffic .
D. Two-byte link addressing is mandatory.
E. Persistent FCIDs must be enabled.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 143
What method is used to assign a pWWN to a dynamically assigned iSCSI initiator in a MDS?
A. Assigned by system
B. Assigned by user in the configuration of the iSCSI Target
C. Assigned by iSCSI host
D. Created with iSCSI host name, iSCSI driver and Connection ID
E. Assigned by Fibre Channel attached Storage System
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 144
A “system initialization” is used to perform what function on the MDS switch?
A. Recover lost “admin” password
B. Restart supervisor module after maintenance testing.
C. Format the bootflash and erases configuration files
D. Prepare standby supervisor module for system upgrade.
E. Compress existing files and restart the bootflash file system

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 145
FICON-enabled hosts send a Query Security Attribute (QSA) extended link service command to the well known Fibre Channel Service address of:
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FD
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FE
E. FF.FF.F7

Correct Answer: B

FLYDUMPS provides you everything that you need to pass your Cisco 350-040 exam. FLYDUMPS also provides you the Cisco 350-040  exam objectives with there detailed and verified answer relevant to your certification. The purpose of FLYDUMPS Cisco 350-040  exam sample questions is to promote Cisco 350-040 test. It’s surely not an easy task to do but doing the Cisco 350-040 Certification Cisco 350-040 Training by using Cisco 350-040 certification exam test questions will ensure and encourage that you can earn the Cisco 350-040 exam. Exam Cisco 350-040 of VMware Certification provides you with Cisco 350-040  test questions that are covered in details and utmost care is taken in selecting the right answers.

Welcome to download the newest Dumpsoon IIA-CIA-PART3 dumps: http://www.dumpsoon.com/IIA-CIA-PART3.html

Avaya 6103 Certification Exams, Discount Avaya 6103 Guide Provider On Store

Cisco 350-040 Exam Download, New Updated Cisco 350-040 Dumps With New Discount

Welcome to download the newest Dumpsoon IC3-3 dumps:

Attention Please: Professional new version Cisco 350-040 PDF and VCE dumps can now free download on Flydumps.com all are updated timely by our experts covering all new questions and questions.100 percent pass your Cisco 350-040 exam.

QUESTION 116
A storage administrator wishes to make a “ficon_new” of the current IPL file “ficon current” in use on a
FICON-enabled VSAN 20.
What command must the administrator use?

A. Copy ficon file ficon_current ficon_new
B. Ficon copy ipl ficon_current ficon_new vsan20
C. Copy ficon file ficon_current ficon_new vsan20
D. Ficon vsan20 copy file ficon_current ficon_new
E. copy running-configuration:ficon_current bootflash:ficon_ne w

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Which two features would best improve “write” performance on a single FCIP tunnel over a 10 Mbps WAN with high delay?(Choose two)
A. Increase Buffer-to-buffer credits
B. High-comp-ratio compression
C. Port Channel
D. QoS
E. Write Acceleration

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 118
What statement describing Port Channel functionality is FALSE?
A. It provides a point-to-point connection over an ISL (E ports) or EISL (TE ports)
B. It increases the aggregate bandwidth on an ISL by distributing traffic among all functional links in the channel.
C. It load balances across multiple links and maintains optimum bandwidth utilization
D. It provides high availability for an ISL If one link fails, traffic previously carried on this link is switch ed to the remaining links
E. Port Channels can only be configured on the 16 port Fibre Channel module

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 119
Which commands prevent a host from setting the clock in the FICON VSAN?
A. no host control set-timestamp
B. no host set-timestamp
C. no host port control
D. no host control clock
E. no host control set-clock

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 120
Exhibit:

Each Gigabit Ethernet interface on the MOS 9509-1 is peering with the corresponding Gigabit Ethernet interface on MOS 9509-2 via a point-to-point circuit on the SONET ring. Furthermore, the GE interfaces on each MOS are configured as a port-channel. An FCIP tunnel is configured to carry SAN traffic across this network. If the point-to-point circuits were configured with UPSR protection on the SONET ring, a failure of anyone of the spans (span A, B, C, or D) would lead to what scenario?
A. FSPF would have to re-converge first in order for traffic continue flowing over FCIP
B. The SONET ring would heal within 50rns and traffic would continue flowing.
C. The traffic would switch from one of the GE interfaces to the other
D. The FCIP tunnel would be temporarily down while the SONET ring healed; then traffic would continue to flow
E. Interface FCIP would need to be administratively shutdown

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Which steps are required to downgrade Fabric Manager Server to an earlier or previous release?
A. In FM use the “Revert” tab under “Server Admin” to initiate downgrade to previous release
B. Delete the “cisco_mds9000” and restore earlier version from automatically created “mds_backup” directory
C. Fabric Manager Server cannot be downgraded to an earlier release
D. Close all instances of FM/DM, run the “Uninstall” program, then re-install the previous release
E. Downgrade the MDS switch to the correct version of code; when Fabric Manager is opened it will automatically downgrade to the earlier version located on the MDS

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
FICON VSAN numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are configured and active on an MDS 9216 switch. VSAN 3 is configured with active equals saved. Which are the effects of making a non-FICON configuration change to VSAN 3? (Choose two)
A. A copy of the updated running-configuration is sent to the CUP
B. The switch’s updated running-configuration is written to the startup-configuration
C. The IPL file for VSAN 3 is updated
D. The IPL files for all FICON VSANs is updated
E. The IPL file for VSAN 3 is not updated

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 123
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Initializing
B. Up
C. Suspended
D. Active
E. Down
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 124
When IVR is activated between VSAN A on Switch 1 and VSAN B on Switch 2 it allows:
A. Switches A and B to communicate with each other
B. All nodes of different zones in VSAN A of Switch 1 to communicate with each other
C. Specific members in VSAN A and VSAN B to communicate with each other
D. VSAN A and VSAN B zones to merge
E. All RSCNs other than IVR-related RSCNs the ability to pass between VSAN A and VSAN B
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
In Raid 0+1:
A. The disks are just striped
B. The disks are just mirrored
C. The disks are mirrored and then striped
D. The disks are striped and then mirrored
E. Two arrays are striped

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
You have a Host that needs to find all target devices that supports SCSl in the fabric. What is the D_ID of the frame to query for this information?
A. 0xFFFFFA
B. 0xFFFFFC
C. 0xFFFFFD
D. 0xFFFFFF
E. 0xFFFFFE

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?
A. RDI
B. DIA
C. ELP
D. EFP
E. ESC

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 128
What must be eliminated to make migration of storage and a HP-UX host non-disruptive?
A. Changes to Host name
B. Speed changes to Host
C. FC_ID changes to the Host port
D. FC_ID changes to the Target port
E. Default zone deny
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 129
What feature can be used to eliminate a single point of failure of gigabit Ethernet interfaces?
A. SACK
B. VRRP
C. PMTU
D. VSAN
E. Sub-Interface
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
FC analyzer is recommended for use with which types of captures? (Choose three)
A. FC frames from initiator to target
B. FC frames from initiator to FC switch
C. Class F frames from FC switch to FC switch
D. Used with SPAN function to capture FC Frames
E. Can be used to send captured frames remotely out the management 10/100 interface for ethereal

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 131
Access control for multiple hosts connecting through the same iSCSI Proxy Initiator to different LUNs on the same storage port is controlled with:
A. iSCSI virtual target configuration
B. PWWN zoning
C. LUN zoning
D. LUN security or mapping on the storage array
E. CHAP authentication

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 132
The running configuration can be copied to any file name. Without specifying the destination file as
“startup-config”.
What statement is true with the command “copy running-config myconfig.txt”?

A. file “myconfig.txt” will be saved on bootflash:myconfig.txt
B. file “myconfig.txt” will be saved in /mnt/cfg/1/ascii/myconfig.txt
C. file “myconfig.txt” will overwrite the “startup-config”
D. file “myconfig.txt” will be save in /volatile:myconfig.txt
E. file “myconfig.txt” will be saved in nvram as myconfig.txt

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 133
With FCC enabled, after detecting congestion, an MOS switch performs what action?
A. It increases the amount of performance buffers
B. It sends an SW-RSCN to the switch, which has the source of the congestion
C. It increases TCP window size on all FCIP tunnels in the path
D. It sends an edge quench message to the switch which is the source of the congestion
E. It sends RSCNs to the end device, which is the source of the congestion as logging into a name server will slow down the device

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 134
Select the correct order of logins to initiate a host to storage SCSI connection as initiated by the host Nport :
A. FLOGI, PRLI, PLOGI
B. PRLI, PLOGI, FLOGI
C. FLOGI, PLOGI, PRLI
D. PRLI, PLOGI
E. PLOGI, PRLI
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 135
Exhibit:

Using the switch default DWRR weights 50:30:20, traffic from host 20:02:00:75:C1 :00:83:22 will be serviced what percentage (more or less) differently from other data traffic sourced in VSAN 10?
A. 20% more than
B. 30% less than
C. 50% more than
D. 50% less than
E. It will be serviced equally

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 136
Which statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Fabric Logins are sent to destination FCID 0xFFFFFA
B. Name Server Logins are sent to destination FCID 0xFFFFFD
C. FSPF HLO packets are sent from source FCID 0xFFFFFD
D. FCID 0xFFFFF A is reserved for the Management Server
E. Fabric Logins are sent to destination FCID 0xFFFFFC
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 137
Exhibit: What command would successfully transfer the “special_config.txt” file to a workstation, PC, or File Server?

A. Copy special_config.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt
B. Copy boot flash:special_config.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt
C. Copy <ftp://bootflash:special_config.txt> <ip address>/<path>/special_config.txt
D. Copy <ftp://<ip> address>/<path>/<filename> special_config.txt
E. Copy special’.txt ftp://<ipaddress>/<path>/special_config.txt

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
A Host has just been implicitly logged off a Fabric. Which are the possible primitive sequences that the host either transmitted or received? (Choose two)
A. NOS
B. OLS
C. LR
D. LRR
E. LIP

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 139
The MDS “ficon swap portnumber” command: (Choose two)
A. Supports swapping logical FICON ports
B. Supports swapping physical ports that are part of a port channel
C. Supports swapping a port with 10 BB_credits for an OSM port
D. Is VSAN-specific
E. Supports swapping non-existent/non-implemented ports

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 140
What is the typical time for a SONET ring to fail over to the protect ring?
A. 10 microseconds
B. 50 microseconds
C. 10 milliseconds
D. 50 milliseconds
E. 1 second
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 141
Which are configurable VSAN attributes? (Choose two)
A. VSAN name
B. Operational state
C. EISL trunking
D. Host membership
E. Load-balancing scheme
Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 142
RAID is: (Choose two)
A. Random Array of Idle Drives
B. Redundant Array of Independent Drives
C. Redundant Array of In-expensive Drives
D. Readily Available Independent Drives

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 143
In the Cisco MDS, CHAP authentication is used on which iSCSI sessions?
A. Discovery session only, per the iSCSI RFC
B. Target sessions only, per the iSCSI RFC
C. Neither, iSCSI uses PAP not CHAP for authentication
D. Discovery and each Target session
E. Monitoring session only, Per the iSCSI RFC

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
What statement is NOT correct based on the display output below? MDS_switch# show ivr vsan-topology active AFID SWITCH WWN Active Cfg VSANS
1 20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de* yes 202,205 1 20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40 yes 205,298 Total: 2 entries in active IVR VSAN-Topology Current Status Inter-VSAN topology is ACTIVE Last activation time: Sat Feb 21 00:03:42:2004
A. VSAN 205 is the transit VSAN
B. The wwn of MDS_switch is 20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de
C. The wwn of MDS_switch is 20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40
D. IVR topology is activated on Sat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004
E. VSAN 298 and 202 are edge VSANs

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 145
Initiator 10 111 establishes an iSCSI discovery session through portal 10. 1.1.2 and only finds fibre
channel targets on VSAN 1.
What is the most likely cause for no targets discovered inVSAN5?

A. Dynamic import of targets only applies to VSAN 1
B. There are no targets logged into VSAN 5
C. Interface iSCSI1/8 is not a member of VSAN 5
D. Initiator 10.1.1.1 has not been configured with a port WWN
E. There is no active zoneset on VSAN 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 146
Exhibit: When an existing Domain ID of a VSAN is changed from preferred to static, to ensure FCID persistency across reboots:

A. VSAN needs to be disruptively restarted
B. Switch needs to be restarted
C. Line cards alone needs to be restarted
D. VSAN needs to be restarted non-disruptively
E. Domain ID mode cannot be changed for VSNS on MDS switch

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 147
An FCIP profile can be shared by how many FCIP interfaces?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 148
What is the effect of a packet/frame loss on SAN Extension transport such as FCIP, DWDM and CWDM?
A. A packet loss on a FCIP link does not cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence, while a frame loss on DWDM and CWDM does
B. A packet loss on a FClP, DWDM and CWDM link does cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence
C. Only for CWDM a frame loss will cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence
D. A frame loss on SAN Extension connections will never directly affect the application because it is handled directly by the switches terminating the FClP, DWDM or CDWM links
E. A frame drop on SAN Extension connections will always affect the application (that will abort and restart the SCSI sequence)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 149
On the 9120 an additional lSL is required and ports1-4 and 6 are already occupied. What additional port can be used?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. None- the 9120 can only use ports 1-4 for ISLs

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
If the MDS iSCSI interface is configured for proxy initiator mode, and 4 ISCSI-attached hosts attach and can see access storage via that interface, how many host port logins will the storage array receive?
A. 4, one port login for each host
B. 2, a read and a write port login
C. 1, port login from the proxy initiator
D. 0, no logins, proxy initiator does not use port logins
E. 8, one read and one write port login for each host

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 151
The committee/association responsible for the production and overseeing of Fibre Channel standards is:
A. IFTF
B. ANSI
C. T11
D. T10
E. None of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 152
Configuring IVR on an MDS is required to allow a device to:
A. Communicate with two or more devices
B. Communicate over an FCIP tunnel which crosses a non COP enabled router
C. Exist in a transit VSAN
D. Communicate with a device on a non-MOS Switch
E. Communicate with devices in another VSAN
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 153
What do ARB, R_RDY and IDLE have in common?
A. They are Primitive Signals as defined is FC-SW & FC-GS
B. They are Primitive Sequences found on a Loop
C. They are Primitive Signals as defined in FC-PH & FC-AL
D. They are used to determine signal loss on a Fibre Channel Physical Connection
E. They are Primitive Sequences as defined in FC-PO & FC-AL

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
The default VSAN policy for any role is permit. Changing this policy to “vsan policy deny” and then entering “no vsan policy” will have what effect on the role being configured?
A. No effect on the role, every vsan can execute commands allowed by the “rule” command
B. The role will be disabled due to conflicting configuration statements
C. The role will require a “vsan permit” configured to define allowed VSANs
D. No effect, the “vsan permit deny” is an invalid command option
E. No effect, both commands are invalid

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 155
What settings would be required on a MDS9000 switch for proper use of a PAA?
A. PAA requires a TE port to connect and must be in its own VSAN
B. PAA requires an SD port and must be it its own VSAN
C. PAA requires an ethernet connection to the MDS supervisor
D. PAA requires an SD port connection
E. PAA requires ST and an SD port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 156
Which are effects of a Build Fabric (BF) ILS? (Choose two)
A. The BF causes a disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric
B. The BF causes a non-disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric
C. The BF causes a new principal switch selection to happen
D. The BF causes the change of all the addresses assigned in the fabric while holding data traffic, to avoid traffic loss
E. The BF helps to resolve overlapping domain identifiers
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 157
Exhibit A: Exhibit B:
The administrator has noticed that there is no FSPF route in vsan 775 to reach domain Ox62 in vsan 777. What is the likely cause?
A. VSAN 777 is running in interop mode 2
B. VSAN 8 is also using domain id 0x62.
C. Both Host1 and tape device are logged out of the fabric.
D. The IVR VSAN topology has different VSAN configured for each MDS
E. The IVR border switch will never propagate FSPF routes between IVR VSANS.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
A customer has existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding
an MOS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required?
(Topology: McData6400 – (ISL) – Brocade12000 – (ISL) — MDS)

A. Open Fabric Mode
B. Native
C. Interop1
D. Interop2
E. Interop3

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 159
Which are true statements about Cisco’s MDS implementation of FICON CUP? (Choose two)
A. CUP may block/unblock ports
B. CUP may modify the VSAN a port resides in.
C. CUP must be defined as a control unit in the HCD and IOCP with a CUP port address of FC
D. CUP may prohibit/permit ports
E. CUP must be assigned a virtual FICON port number

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 160
Which advanced features of the MDS FCIP configuration will engage the traffic shapping abilities for the TCP connection? (Choose two)
A. Compression
B. Write acceleration
C. QOS for data and control
D. Use of Maximum bandwidth settings
E. Send Buffer Size setting

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 161
What term is used to identified the special characters used in Fiber Channel Encoding?
A. Kxx.y
B. 8b/10b
C. 3b/4b
D. Dxx.y
E. idle

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 162
role name guest description Guest User Role rule 1 deny config rule 2 deny exec rule 3 permit config feature zone rule 4 permit config feature zoneset rule 5 permit show rule 6 permit exec feature fcping rule 7 permit exec feature fctrace rule 8 permit exec feature ips rule 9 permit exec feature discover rule 10 permit config feature ivr rule 11 permit config feature ficon rule 12 permit config feature fcip rule 13 permit config feature in-order-guarantee rule 14 permit config feature interface rule 15 permit exec feature ping rule 16 permit config feature vsan vsan policy deny permit vsan 10-19 What CLI command function will be permitted by the role name “guest”?
A. creation of vsan 12
B. copy running-config to startup-config
C. enable T ACACS+
D. creation of port-channels
E. change interface mode from auto to F

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 163
An MDS 9509 director has a 16-port Fibre Channel module in slot 1 and a 32-port Fibre Channel module in slot 2. The director is assigned Domain ID 32 in FICON VSAN 27. Assume VSAN 27 is using the default value for the “fcid-last-byte” configuration command. If port 2/1 is a member of VSAN 27, what FCID is assigned to it?
A. 0x201B00
B. Ox200201
C. Ox201100
D. Ox202000
E. Cannot be determined

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 164
A physical fabric with some but not all MDS switches participating in IVR, what switch should have IVR enabled?
A. All the switches
B. All of the switches in edge VSANs and transit VSANs
C. All of the edge switches, border switches and all switches in transit VSANs
D. Only edge switches and border switches
E. Only border switches

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 165
Which features are required for an operational FICON VSAN? (Choose two)
A. Fabric-binding
B. Last byte of FCID 0x00
C. Persistent FCID
D. In-order delivery
E. Source-Destination-Exchange load balancing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 166
Which are intended for TCP slow start algorithm? (Choose two)
A. Slow start, immediately after the TCP connection has been initiated or after a long period of idle, makes sure that new packets are sent at the same rate at which acknowledges are returned.
B. Slow start slows down the transmission rate of the sender, when congestion in the network is detected
C. It causes a linear growth of the transmitter window size every time an ACK is received
D. It causes an exponential growth of the transmitter window size every time an ACK is received
E. It causes a linear drop of the transmitter window size every time an ACK is lost

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 167
On the Cisco Port Analyzer Adapter (PAA), what truncation mode needs to be set if an SD port is configured for 2Gb/s and the PAA’s Ethernet port is configured for 1Gb to guarantee zero frame loss by the PAA?
A. MNM
B. NTM
C. ETM
D. STM
E. DTM

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 168
There are three different roles on MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only. User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
B. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
C. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
D. Show, debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
E. Show, debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 169
A2-byte link address defined for a mainframe definitively indicates a:
A. Cascaded FICON environment
B. Non-cascaded FICON environment
C. QSA frame will be sent during N-port login
D. CUP device is in use
E. Control Unit Image
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 170
If all FC targets are required to be seen by iSCSI initiators, what is the easiest way to accomplish this?
A. When iSCSI is enabled all FC targets are imported by default
B. Enable dynamic import of FC target into iSCSI
C. Virtualization software most be enabled on hosts
D. Statically create Virtual targets on storage arrays primary path only
E. Enable storage array iSCSI target export ability
Correct Answer: B

In order to get rid of the doubts that customers have about the product quality of Cisco 350-040 exam sample questions, Killtest offers a demo for free trials. FLYDUMPS Cisco 350-040 offer you a definite competitive edge over others as you will be able to prepare for your Cisco 350-040 test within no time and with more efficiency. We give you all knowledge that is required to pass the Cisco 350-040 at affordable rates for a definite success. We provide you with test questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. The Cisco 350-040 exam sample questions provide you with the experience of taguide the pass Cisco 350-040 test.

Welcome to download the newest Dumpsoon IC3-3 dumps: http://www.dumpsoon.com/IC3-3.html

Avaya 6007.1 Exam Practice Test, Most Popular Avaya 6007.1 Study Guide Book Online Sale

Cisco 350-030 Real Exam, First-hand Cisco 350-030 Exam Download With Low Price

The Newest VCE and PDF! As we know,only valid and newest Cisco 350-030 Flydumps vce can help you a lot in passing the exam. Just try Flydumps Cisco 350-030 latest vce and pdf, which are authenticated by expert and covering every aspect of Cisco 350-030 exam.100% money back guarantee!

QUESTION 58
A customer needs to create a plan for deploying QoS across the company network in anticipation of adding a VoIP solution and to clean up the existing network. Employees currently use a corporate intranet to report expenses and access ERP and manufacturing applications, the Intemet for customer support and customer orders, and a recently installed IP-based video-conferencing system, which has been only marginally successful because of poor quality.
Which four CoS-DSCP values should be applied to the customer network so that voice, video, and data all function properly? (Choose four.)
A. ERP and manufacturing protocols AF31
B. video AF41, video signaling CS3
C. Voice bearer AF43, voice signaling AF26
D. Internet BE
E. ERP and manufacturing protocols AF43
F. voice bearer EF, voice signaling CS3

Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 59
Which statement about the Media Resource Group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?
A. Different types of media resources cannot be grouped into the same Media Resource Group.
B. A Media Resource Group contains a prioritized list of media resources.
C. The default Media Resource Group is defined in the service parameters of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Once a media resource is associated with a Media Resource Group, it is no longer eligible to be associated with another Media Resource Group.
E. The Media Resource Group configuration page allows administrators to choose whether to use multicast for MOH audio.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
Which three are valid T1 CAS types? (Choose three.)
A. E&M signaling
B. semicompelled signaling
C. loop-start signaling
D. line signaling
E. Group 1 signaling
F. ground-start signaling

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 61
Which two of these are possible reasons why a JTAPI subsystem might have the status PARTIAL_SERVICE? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center is not able to resolve the host name of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A referenced CTI Route Point is not associated with the JTAPI user.
C. The JTAPI user password is not correct.
D. There is an error in one of the scripts being loaded.
E. The CTI Manager service is not running on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 62
Integrity, authentication, and encryption are some of the security features that are supported on Cisco
Unified Communications Manager and IP phones. Which of these describes an integrity threat?
A. modification of call-processing signals between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and IP phones
B. man-in-the-middle attacks
C. phone and server identity theft
D. TFTP file manipulation
E. unauthorized capturing and decoding of voice signaling packets

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63

Which of the following three messages could be sent by the UAC in response to the 180 Ringing? (Choose three.)
A. PR ACK
B. ACK
C. BYE
D. CANCEL
E. INVITE

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 64 PS:由于原CCIE语音群已满请大家转到新 CCIE-QQ(500人)群:53357075 —王Sir
Which signaling method cannot solve the FXO disconnect problem?
A. power denial
B. tone-based supervisory disconnect
C. pulse dial
D. ground-start signaling
E. battery reversal

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
bbs.56CTO.com-CCIE 350-030 Vioce Written

Refer to the exhibit. Which data rate, in bits per second, would be negotiated for a T.38 fax call?
A. 33600
B. 28800
C. 14400
D. 24000
E. 19200

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic flows from the IP phone that is connected to SW1 to the IP phone on SW2. If the trust boundary has been extended to the IP phone on SW1, in what two places will traffic be marked and classified so that the proper QoS settings may be carried through the network? (Choose two.)
A. IP phone attached to SW1
B. SW1 ingress port
C. R1 ingress port
D. SW1 egress port
E. R1 egress port

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 67
Which two telephony interfaces on a Cisco IOS gateway can be controlled by Cisco Unified Communications Manager using SCCP? (Choose two.)
A. analog E&M
B. ISDN BRI
C. ISDN PRI
D. analog FXS
E. analog FXO
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 68

Refer to the exhibit. Which gatekeeper mechanism prevents the gatekeeper from using all the resources on either gateway 1 or gateway 2 when sending calls to zones SE and NW?
A. bandwidth remote
B. resource availability indicator
C. bandwidth total
D. bandwidth zone
E. Irq immediate advance
F. ras timeout brq

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
LLQ belongs to which Cisco quality of service feature?
A. classification
B. congestion management
C. congestion avoidance
D. shaping and policing
E. link efficiency mechanisms

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
You are implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution utilizing MGCP gateways with PRI interface cards. You are working with your security department, which has a firewall in place between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and the gateway. After the firewall is turned up, your PRI is no longer working. You suspect that the backhaul port has been blocked. What port does Cisco Unified Communications Manager use between itself and an MGCP gateway for PRI backhaul traffic?
A. 2427
B. 2428
C. 2727
D. 2728
E. 9900
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
Which statement about the H.323 Fast Connect (also known as fast start) procedures is correct?
A. Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by forcing all H.245 negotiations to take place earlier during the H.225 message exchanges, setup time by allowing H.323 devices to propose and confirm master-slave determination in H.225 message exchanges.
B. Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by permitting calls to bypass certain H.225 steps and move directly from H.225 setup to H.225 exchanges.
C. Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by allowing H.323 devices to propose and confirm Open Logical Channel in H.225 message connect.
D. Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by allowing H.323 devices to use UDP as a transport protocol for H.245 negotiation messages, exchanges.
E. Fast Connect shortens the call reclaiming time that is otherwise used for TCP handshakes.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which of these is not a valid switchback method for SCCP hardware conference bridges?
A. immediate
B. never
C. graceful
D. guard
E. uptime

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Which three statements are true about multicast IGMP snooping? (Choose three.)
A. When a host in a multicast group sends an IGMP leave message, only that port is deleted from the multicast group.
B. An IP multicast stream to the IP host can be stopped only by an IGMP leave message.
C. IGMP snooping does not examine or snoop Layer 3 information in packets that are sent between the hosts and the router.
D. When the switch hears the IGMP host report from a host for a particular multicast group, the switch adds the host’s port number to the associated multicast table entry.
E. IGMP control messages are transmitted as IGMP multicast packets so that they can be distinguished from normal multicast data at Layer 2.
F. A switch that is running IGMP snooping examines every multicast data packet to verify whether it contains any pertinent IGMP “must control” information.
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 74
What are two advantages of multicast technologies? (Choose two.)
A. Denial of service attacks in the network are prevented.
B. They eliminate multipoint applications.
C. They reduce traffic by delivering a separate stream of information to each corporate recipient or home environment, which reduces bandwidth
D. They control network traffic and reduce server and CPU load.
E. They eliminate traffic redundancy.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 75
Which two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system components do not support integration redundancy? (Choose two.)
A. CTI ports
B. AXL service
C. Cisco Unified CM Telephony trigger
D. CSQ
E. dialog groups
F. HTTP trigger

Correct Answer: DE

Whenever Cisco candidates take a tour of sample questions of Cisco 350-030 exam they find their training to be matchless to great extent.Passing the Cisco 350-030 on your own can be a difficult task,but with Cisco 350-030 preparation products,many candidates who appeared online passed Cisco 350-030 easily.

Cisco 350-029 Exam Practice PDF, 50% OFF Cisco 350-029 Actual Test Guaranteed Success

Are you struggling for the Cisco 350-029 exam? Good news,Flydumps IT technical experts have collected and certified 445 questions and answers which are updated to cover the knowledge points and enhance candidates’abilities.With Cisco 350-029 preparation tests you can pass the exam easily and go further on Microsoft career path.

QUESTION 44
During the IPv6 address resolution, a node sends a neighbor solicitation message in order to discover which of these?
A. The Layer 2 multicast address of the destination node
B. The solicited node multicast address of the destination node
C. The Layer 2 address of the destination node based on the destination IPv6 address
D. The IPv6 address of the destination node based on the destination Layer 2 address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which one of these statements is true of OSPF type 5 LSAs?
A. They are used to summarize area routes to other areas.
B. They are used in not-so-stubby areas to propagate external routes.
C. They are used to notify areas of the ASBR.
D. They are flooded to all areas except stub areas (external route).

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected. Given the configuration, how many EIGRP routes will router B see in its routing table?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running OSPF, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?

A. The routers are not on the same network.
B. The network statements do not match.
C. The process number does not match.
D. The MTU does not match.
E. The OSPF cost does not match.
F. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 199.155.24.0 network are unable to reach the 16.10.0 network. What is the most likely solution?

A. Router ISP1 should be configured to peer with router B.
B. Router ISP2 should be configured with no synchronization.
C. Router ISP1 should be configured with no synchronization.
D. Router ISP2 should be configured with no auto-summary.
E. Router ISP1 or IPS2 should be configured with network 176.16.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
Two BGP peers connected through a routed firewall are unable to establish a peering relationship. What could be the most likely cause?
A. BGP peers must be Layer 2-adjacent.
B. EBGP multihop is not configured.
C. The firewall is not configured to allow IP protocol 89.
D. The firewall is not configured to allow UDP 179.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which two of these steps are minimum requirements to configure OSPFv3 under IPv6?(Choose two.)
A. Configure a routing process using the command ipv6 router ospf [process-id].
B. Add the network statement for the interfaces on which OSPF will run.
C. Configure OSPF on the interface that it will run on.
D. Use the passive-interface command on the interfaces on which OSPF should not run.
E. Enable routing.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 51
You add the following commands into a routed topology: router eigrp 1 variance 3 traffic-share min across-interfaces. Users now complain about voice quality in your VoIP system. What should be done?
A. Add the command: router eigrp 1 traffic-share voice interface fast 0/0.
B. Reconfigure EIGRP to recognize voice packets.
C. Remove the variance from the configuration.
D. Reconfigure the VoIP system to use RTP sequence number headers.
E. Use an H.323 gatekeeper for your VoIP system to negotiate an H.245 uneven packet buffer.
F. Reconfigure EIGRP to version 2.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit. How would you get the 1.1.1.1 network into the OSPF database?
A. Configure RTA as an ASBR.
B. Redistribute connected routes on RTA into OSPF.
C. Set up a virtual link between area 1 and area 0.
D. Set up a virtual link between area 1 and area 2.
E. Add a static route into RTB and enter it into OSPF.
F. Place a network 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.0 command into RTB.
G. Set up a unique router ID on RTA using an RFC 1918 address.
H. Change area 0 on RTB to area 1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. Router E learned about the PIM RP (designated as 7.7.7.7) from four different sources. Routers A and D advertised the 7.0.0.0 network via EIGRP. Routers B and C advertised the
7.0.0.0 network via OSPF. Considering that all four Ethernet interfaces on router E could potentially lead back to the PIM-RP, when router E receives the first multicast packet down the shared tree, which incoming interface will be used to successfully pass the RPF check?

A. E0
B. E1
C. E2
D. E3
E. None of these interfaces will be used to successfully pass the RPF check.
F. All of these interfaces would successfully pass the RPF check.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
The core of a network has four routers connected in a square design with Gigabit Ethernet links using /30 subnets. The network is used to carry voice traffic and other applications.Convergence time is taking more than expected. Which three actions would you take to improve OSPF convergence time? (Choose three.)
A. Increase MTU of the interfaces to accommodate larger OSPF packets.
B. Change the network type to point-to-point on those links.
C. Reduce SPF initial timer.
D. Increase hello interval to avoid adjacency flapping.
E. Enable OSPF.

Correct Answer: BCE

Free practice questions for Cisco 350-029 exam.These questions are aimed at giving you an idea of the type of questions you can expect on the actual exam.You will get an idea of the level of knowledge each topic goes into but because these are simple web pages you will not see the interactive and performance based questions – those are available in the Cisco 350-029.

Cisco 350-029 Questions And Answers, Sale Latest Cisco 350-029 Certification Online

Flydumps is the best place for preparing IT Certifications as we are providing latest and guaranteed questions for all certifications. We offer you the ultimate preparation resource of Cisco 350-029 exam question. Wondering what could be this effective? It is our training material which serves as a guide to achieving your dream as a certified professional.

QUESTION 55
Which four services use the inner labels of an MPLS label stack? (Choose four)
A. MPLS VPN
B. switching path in MPLS core
C. Cisco MPLS Traffic Engineering and Fast Reroute
D. MPLS over ATM
E. VPN over Traffic Engineering core
F. any transport over MPLS

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 56
Which 4 statements regarding MPLS Label Stack Encoding is true?
A. A value of 4 represents the “Implicit NULL Label.”
B. A value of 0 represents the “IPv4 Explicit NULL Label.”
C. A value of 1 represents the “Router Alert Label”.
D. A value of 2 represents the “IPv6 Explicit NULL Label”
E. A value of 1 represents the “IPv1 Explicit NULL Label”
F. A value of 3 represents the “Implicit NULL Label”

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 57
The mechanisms for distributing LDP are:
A. CEF and the FIB table
B. UDP and IP
C. A and B
D. RSVP and CEF
E. LDP and RSVP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 58
Based on the following output in R1, which statement is true:
R1#show mpls forwarding-table 50.0.0.3 detail
Local Outgoing Prefix Bytes Label Outgoing Next Hop
Label Label or Tunnel Id Switched interface
19 17 50.0.0.3/32 0 Et0/0 192.168.0.14
A. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 17, all the labels will be removed and a clear IP packet is sent to Next Hop 192.168.0.14 on Ethernet 0/0.
B. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 17, the label is replaced with label 19 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/0 interface.
C. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 19, the label is replaced with label 17 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/1 interface.
D. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 19, the label is replaced with label 17 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
What is the encapsulation mode for MPLS running on Ethernet?
A. Transparent mode.
B. Frame mode
C. Channel mode
D. Packet mode.
E. Tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?
A. Show mpls ldp parameters
B. Show mpls ldp bindings
C. Show mpls forwading-table
D. Show mpls ldp discovery
E. Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) corresponds to which four of these? (Choose four).
A. Layer 2 circuits (ATM, FR, PPP, HDLC, Ethernet
B. Groups of addresses/sites-VPN
C. IPSEC Encryption Algorithm
D. A bridge/switch instance-VSI
E. Tunnel interface-traffic engineering
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 62
Which two statements about forwarding equivalence class (FEC) are true? (Choose two)
A. FEC might correspond to a destination IP subnet, but it might also correspond to any traffic class that the edge LSR considers significant.
B. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over a different path, but with the same forwarding treatment.
C. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over the same path, and with the same forwarding treatment.
D. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over a different path, but with the different forwarding treatment.
E. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over the same path, but with a different forwarding treatment.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 63
What is the role of Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) in MPLS?
A. FEC determines how to establish an LSP path.
B. FEC determines how IP packets are forwarded in MPLS LSP.
C. FEC determines how MPLS labels are stacked in LSP.
D. FEC determines how a group of IP packets are mapped to an LSP.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
In MPLS traffic engineering, which one of the following protocols is used for Path Setup?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. ISIS
D. RSVP
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
In the diagram, R1 is the head-end of a TE tunnel that terminates on R5. The red line indicates the protected link, and the gold line indicates the backup tunnel. Which router is the Point of Local Repair?

A. R2
B. R5
C. R3
D. R1
E. R4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which methods would enable traffic to be forwarded along an MPLS TE tunnel (Choose 4.)
A. MP-BGP routing
B. Static routing
C. Policy routing
D. Autoroute
E. Forwarding adjacency

Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 67
In the context of MPLS Traffic engineering, TE path calculation is conducted by:
A. TE middle point
B. TE tail end
C. Independent server
D. All TE nodes along the path
E. TE head end

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
Which two routing protocols support MPLS traffic engineering link information distribution? (Choose two)
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. RIP version 2
D. IS-IS
E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 69
Which statements are correct for forwarding traffic into MPLS TE tunnels? (Choose 3)
A. Autoroute causes the tunnel to be treated as a directly connected link to the head-end.
B. Autoroute causes the TE head-end to establish IGP adjacency with the tail-end over the tunnel.
C. Forwarding adjacency makes the TE head-end node advertise the Tunnel LSP into the IGP.
D. Forwarding adjacency supports unequal cost load balancing over multiple TE tunnels.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 70
Which three statements about MPLS traffic engineering (MPLS TE) are true? (Choose three)
A. MPLS TE supports admission control
B. MPLS TE tunnel traffic is a link attribute to compute the TE tunnel path
C. MPLS TE uses BGP extension to advertise link attributes
D. MPLS TE provides protection capability
E. MPLS TE uses RSVP to establish LSP
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 71
Which of these is not a component of MPLS traffic engineering?
A. trunk admission control
B. forwarding traffic to tunnel
C. information distribution
D. path selection, calculation, and setup
E. traffic patterns prediction
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 72
Which two statements about MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering (P2MP TE) are true? (Choose two)
A. P2MP TE uses an OSPF extension that is different from the OSPF extension that is used in P2P TE.
B. Loose path is not supported in P2MP TE.
C. Multiple IP multicast groups can map to one P2MP tunnel.
D. Affinity is not supported in P2MP TE.
E. P2MP TE uses Constrained Shortest Path First (CSPF) to calculate paths.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 73
Where are MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering packets replicated?
A. head-end router
B. branch-point router
C. midpoint router
D. leaf-point router
E. tail-end router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which statement about MPLS Traffic Engineering class-based tunnel selection (CBTS) is not true?
A. Local mechanism is at the middle-point router.
B. EXP selection is between multiple tunnels to the same destination
C. Bundle members are configured with EXP values to carry.
D. The tunnel selection is configured on the tunnel master.
E. The tunnel master bundles the tunnel members

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which statement about MPLS Traffic Engineering policy-based tunnel selection (PBTS) is not true?
A. The tunnel that is not configured with the policy-class command acts as the default.
B. EXP selection is between multiple tunnels to the same destination
C. There is no requirement for IGP extensions
D. Tunnels are configured using the policy-class command and carry multiple EXP values.
E. It supports VRF traffic, IP-to-MPLS switching, and MPLS-to-MPLS switching
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which two models are the models of DiffServ-Aware Traffic Engineering? (Choose two)
A. Policy-based Model
B. Class based Model
C. Russian Doll Model
D. Global Tunnel Model
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 77
Which three statements about the Cisco MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) process are true? (Choose three.)
A. TE tunnels that are configured with the FRR option cannot be used as backup tunnels.
B. TE tunnels that are configured with the FRR option can be used as backup tunnels.
C. The backup tunnel that is used to protect a physical interface must have a valid IP address configured.
D. Interfaces must use MPLS global label allocation.
E. The source IP address of use backup tunnel and the merge point (MP) should not be reachable.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 78
Which statement about MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) link protection operation is not true?
A. It requires a next-hop backup tunnel.
B. The backup tunnel terminates on the same tail-end router as the primary tunnel.
C. The point of local repair (PLR) swaps the label and pushes the backup label.
D. The restoration time is expected to be under 50 ms.
E. The backup tunnel can have associated bandwidth capacity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which statement about MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) node protection operation is not correct?
A. It requires a next-next hop backup tunnel.
B. Point of local repair (PLR) swaps the next hop label and pushes the backup label.
C. The backup tunnel terminates on the merge point (MP) where traffic rejoins the primary tunnel.
D. The backup tunnel can have associated bandwidth capacity.
E. Restoration time is expected under 50 ms.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 80
With the BGP peerings shown, which 3 solutions are most correct? (Choose three.)

A. rtrA and rtrD are route-reflector-clients; rtrB and rtrC are route reflectors part of the same cluster.
B. rtrA and rtrD are route-reflector-clients; rtrB and rtrC are route reflectors part of the different cluster.
C. rtrA, rtrB and rtrC are part of a confederation sub-AS and rtrD is part of a different confederation sub-AS
D. rtrA, rtrB are part of one confederation sub-AS and rtrC, rtrD are part of a different confederation sub-AS
E. rtrA, rtrB and rtrC are part of a confederation sub-AS where rtrB is a route reflector and rtrA, rtrC are routereflector-clients.

Correct Answer: BDE

The Cisco 350-029 training is a vital way of becoming the best.This Cisco 350-029 certification has helped the candidates to enhance their capabilities by providing a great learning platform to them so that they can polish their skills.

Cisco 350-029 Self Study, High Quality Cisco 350-029 Demo Download 100% Pass With A High Score

Flydumps guarantee your Cisco 350-029 exam success with our Exam Resources. Cisco 350-029 braindumps are the latest and developed by experience’s IT certification Professionals working in today’s prospering companies and data centers.All our  Cisco 350-029 brain dumps including Cisco 350-029 exam questions which guarantee you can 100% success Cisco 350-029 exam in your first try exam.

QUESTION 30
All of these are fundamental building blocks of a differentiated services Traffic Conditioner Block except which one?
A. dropper
B. classifier
C. marker
D. querier
E. meter
F. shaper

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. You would like to guarantee 7 Mb/s for FTP traffic in your LAN, as it seems that peer-to-peer traffic is taking up a large amount of bandwidth. When testing the configuration, you notice that FTP traffic doesn’t reach 7 Mb/s. What is the problem?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. The Ethernet interface should have keepalives enabled.
B. The duplex settings are wrong on the Ethernet interface.
C. The qos pre-classify command should be removed from the tunnel interfaces.
D. the priority queue for the voice class is probably taking all the bandwidth
E. there are probably not enough interface buffers; they should be tuned.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which types of prefixes will a router running BGP most likely advertise to an IBGP peer, assuming it is not configured as a route reflector?
A. prefixes received from any other BGP peer and prefixes locally originated via network statements or redistributed
B. all prefixes in its routing table
C. prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes locally originated via network statements or redistributed
D. prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes received from route reflectors
E. prefixes received from other IBGP peers, prefixes received from EBGP peers, and prefixes redistributed to BGP PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
F. prefixes received from other IBGP peers and prefixes received from route reflectors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
You have two EBGP peers connected via two parallel serial lines. What should you do to be able to load-balance between two EBGP speakers over the parallel serial lines in both directions?
A. nothing, BGP automatically load-balances the traffic between different autonomous systems on all available links
B. peer between the eBGP speaker’s loopbacks, configuring eBGP multihop as required, and use an IGP to load-share between the two equal-cost paths between the loopback addresses
C. configure a loopback as update source for both EBGP peers and have on each AS an IGP to introduce two equal-cost paths to reach the EBGP peer loopback address; it is also necessary to use the next-hop-self command
D. use the ebgp-load-balance command on the neighbor statement on both sides
E. configure a loopback as update source for both EBGP peers and have on each AS an IGP to introduce two equal-cost paths to reach the peer loopback address; it is also necessary to use the ebgp-multihop and next-hop-self commands

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which three of these statements about penultimate hop popping are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is used only for directly connected subnets or aggregate routes.
B. It can only be used with LDP.
C. It is only used when two or more labels are stacked.
D. It enables the Edge LSR to request a label pop operation from its upstream neighbors.
E. It is requested through TDP using a special label value that is also called the implicit-null value. F. It is requested through LDP using a special label value that is also called the implicit-null value.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 35
Which of these best identifies the types of prefixes a router running BGP will advertise to an EBGP peer?
A. prefixes received from any other BGP peer and prefixes locally originated via network statements or redistributed to BGP
B. all prefixes in its IP routing table
C. only prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes locally originated via network PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001 statements or redistributed
D. only prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes received from route reflectors E. all prefixes in its routing table except the prefixes received from other EBGP peers
E. all prefixes in its routing table except the prefixes received from other IBGP peers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Which standard supports multiple instances of spanning tree?
A. 802.1D
B. 802.1s
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1z
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Spanning Tree Protocol calculates path cost based on which of these?
A. interface bandwidth
B. interface delay
C. interface bandwidth and delay
D. hop count
E. bridge priority

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. What type of issue does this error log indicate if the IP address in the error log is located off of the Router A WAN? 900761443.gif
A. HSRP standby configuration error
B. HSRP burned-in address error
C. HSRP secondary address configuration error
D. this is not an HSRP problem, but rather an STP error or router or switch configuration issue

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
What two features in Cisco switches help prevent Layer 2 loops? (Choose two.)
A. UniDirectional Link Detection PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
B. Hot Standby Router Protocol
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
D. PortFast
E. root guard
F. loop guard
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Which switching feature is being tested?

A. loop guard
B. PortFast
C. root guard
D. BDPU guard

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. This exhibit shows the NAT configuration for Router A and the output for a ping issued from device 171.68.200.48 and destined to 172.16.47.142. Based on this information, what change must be made to Router A in order for the ping to work?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. reload the router
B. clear the route cache
C. add a static route
D. configure IP as classless
E. load a newer IOS image

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
In PIM-SM what control plane signaling must a multicast source perform before it begins to send multicast traffic to a group?
A. The source must send a PIM Register message to the rendezvous point (RP).
B. The source must first join the multicast group using IGMP before sending.
C. The source must perform a Request to Send (RTS) and Clear to Send (CTS) handshake with the PIM designated router (DR).
D. No control plane signaling needs to be performed; the source can simply begin sending on the local subnet.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which of these statements about PIM join messages in classic PIM-SM is correct?
A. PIM join messages are sent every 60 seconds to refresh the upstream router’s mroute state for the multicast tree. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
B. Routers send a PIM join acknowledgement in response to each PIM join message received from a downstream router.
C. PIM join messages are only sent when the multicast distribution tree is first being established.
D. PIM join messages are sent every three minutes to refresh the upstream router’s mroute state for the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
The ip pim autorp listener command is used to do which of these?
A. enable a Cisco router to “passively” listen to Auto-RP packets without the router actively sending or forwarding any of the packets
B. allow Auto-RP packets in groups 224.0.1.39 and 224.0.1.40 to be flooded in dense mode out interfaces configured with the ip pim sparse-mode command
C. enable the use of Auto-RP on a router
D. configure the router as an Auto-RP mapping agent

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
In order to configure two routers as anycast RPs, which of these requirements, at a minimum, must be satisfied?
A. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol mesh-groups must be configured between the two anycast RPs.
B. The RPs must be within the same IGP domain.
C. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol must be configured between the two anycast RPs.
D. The two anycast RPs must be IBGP peers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Which two of these statements correctly describe classic PIM-SM? (Choose two.)
A. The IOS default is for a last-hop router to trigger a switch to the shortest path tree as soon as a new
source is detected on the shared tree.
B. The IOS default is for every one of the routers on the shared tree to trigger a switch to the shortest path tree as soon as a new source is detected on the shared tree.
C. The default behavior of switching to the shortest path tree as soon as a new source is detected on the shared tree can be disabled by setting the value in the ip pim spt-threshold command to “infinity.”
D. The default behavior of switching to the shortest path tree as soon as a new source is detected on the shared tree can be disabled by setting the value in the ip pim spt-threshold PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001 command to “zero.”

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 47
In Layer 2 topologies, spanning-tree failures can cause loops in the network. These unblocked loops can cause network failures because of excessive traffic. Which two Catalyst 6500 features can be used to limit excessive traffic during spanning-tree loop conditions? (Choose two.)
A. loop guard
B. storm control
C. storm suppression
D. broadcast suppression
E. BPDU guard

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 48
Why does RSTP have a better convergence time than 802.1D?
A. it is newer
B. it has smaller timers
C. it has less overhead
D. it is not timer-based

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Under which two circumstances would an RSTP bridge flush its CAM table? (Choose two.)
A. upon a port state change
B. upon receiving a topology change notification
C. when transitioning from discarding to forwarding
D. when transitioning from forwarding to discarding
E. only when changing from listening to discarding
F. when CAM resources have been completely used up

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 50
Which of these correctly identifies a difference between the way BPDUs are handled by 802.1w and 802.1D?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
A. 802.1D bridges do not relay BPDUs.
B. 802.1w bridges do not relay BPDUs.
C. 802.1D bridges only relay BPDUs received from the root.
D. 802.1w bridges only relay BPDUs received from the root.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
NBAR supports all of these with the exception of which one?
A. HTTP
B. IP multicast
C. TCP flows with dynamically assigned port numbers
D. non-UDP protocols
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
Modified deficit round robin supports which of these functionalities?
A. priority queue
B. weighted fair queues
C. round-robin service of output queues
D. LLQ

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 53
A router is connected to an HDLC circuit via a T1 physical interface. The SLA for this link only allows for a sustained rate of 768 kb/s. Bursts are allowed for up to 30 seconds at up to line rate, with a window Tc of 125 ms. What should the Bc and Be setting be when using generic traffic shaping?
A. Be = 46320000 , Bc = 96000
B. Be = ,768000 Bc = 32000
C. Be = ,128000 Bc = 7680
D. Be = ,0 Bc = 96000

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
Which of these tables is used by an LSR to perform a forwarding lookup for a packet destined to an address within an RFC 4364 VPN?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
A. CEF
B. FIB
C. LFIB
D. IGP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
Which two of these parameters are used to determine a forwarding equivalence class? (Choose two.)
A. IP prefix
B. Layer 2 circuit
C. RSVP request from CE for bandwidth reservation
D. BGP MED value

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 56
A network is composed of several VRFs. It is required that VRF users VRF_A and VRF_B be able to route to and from VRF_C, which hosts shared services. However, traffic must not be allowed to flow between VRF_A and VRF_B. How can this be accomplished?
A. route redistribution
B. import and export using route descriptors
C. import and export using route targets
D. Cisco MPLS Traffic Engineering

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which of these statements best describes the major difference between an IPv4-compatible tunnel and a 6to4 tunnel?
A. An IPv4-compatible tunnel is a static tunnel, but an 6to4 tunnel is a semiautomatic tunnel.
B. The deployment of a IPv4-compatible tunnel requires a special code on the edge routers, but a 6to4 tunnel does not require any special code.
C. An IPv4-compatible tunnel is typically used only between two IPv6 domains, but a 6to4 tunnel is used to connect to connect two or more IPv6 domains.
D. For an IPv4-compatible tunnel, the ISP assigns only IPv4 addresses for each domain, but for a 6to4 tunnel, the ISP assigns only IPv6 addresses for each domain.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which information is carried in an OSPFv3 intra-area-prefix LSA?
A. IPv6 prefixes
B. link-local addresses
C. solicited node multicast addresses
D. IPv6 prefixes and topology information

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Which IPv6 address would you ping to determine if OSPFv3 is able to send and receive unicast packets across a link?
A. anycast address
B. site-local multicast
C. global address of the link
D. unique local address
E. link-local address

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
You are using IPv6, and would like to configure EIGRPv3. Which three of these correctly describe how you can perform this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. EIGRP for IPv6 is directly configured on the interfaces over which it runs.
B. EIGRP for IPv6 is not configured on the interfaces over which it runs, but if a user uses passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 needs to be configured on the interface that is made passive.
C. There is a network statement configuration in EIGRP for IPv6, the same as for IPv4.
D. There is no network statement configuration in EIGRP for IPv6.
E. When a user uses a passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 does not need to be configured on the interface that is made passive.
F. When a user uses a non-passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 does not need to be configured on the interface that is made passive

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 61
Which of these statements accurately identifies how Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding can be employed to prevent the use of malformed or forged IP sources addresses?
A. It is applied only on the input interface of a router. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
B. It is applied only on the output interface of a router.
C. It can be configured either on the input or output interface of a router.
D. It cannot be configured on a router interface.
E. It is configured under any routing protocol process.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding can perform all of these actions except which one?
A. examine all packets received to make sure that the source addresses and source interfaces appear in the routing table and match the interfaces where the packets were received
B. check to see if any packet received at a router interface arrives on the best return path
C. combine with a configured ACL
D. log its events, if you specify the logging options for the ACL entries used by the unicast rpf command
E. inspect IP packets encapsulated in tunnels, such as GRE

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 63
Which three of these statements about Dynamic Trunking Protocol are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It supports autonegotiation for both ISL and IEEE 802.1Q trunks.
B. It must be disabled on an interface if you do not want the interface to work as a trunk or start negotiation to become a trunk.
C. It is a point-to-multipoint protocol.
D. It is a point-to-point protocol.
E. It is not supported on private VLAN ports or tunneling ports.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 64
You are designing your network to be able to use trunks. As part of this process you are comparing the ISL and 802.1Q encapsulation options. All of these statements about the two encapsulation options are correct except which one?
A. Both support normal and extended VLAN ranges.
B. ISL is a Cisco proprietary encapsulation method and 802.1Q is an IEEE standard.
C. ISL encapsulates the original frame.
D. Both support native VLANs.
E. 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What s the default stratum clock on a Cisco router, when you see the key word “master” configured on the NTP line?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 66
Though many options are supported in EIGRPv6, select two options from the below list that are supported. Choose 2
A. VRF
B. auto-summary
C. per-interface configuration
D. prefix-list support via route-map
E. prefix-list support via distribute-list

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 67
During the IPv6 address resolution, a node sends a neighbor solicitation message in order to discover which of these?
A. The Layer 2 multicast address of the destination node
B. The solicited node multicast address of the destination node
C. The Layer 2 address of the destination node based on the destination IPv6 address
D. The IPv6 address of the destination node based on the destination Layer 2 address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which one of these statements is true of OSPF type 5 LSAs?
A. They are used to summarize area routes to other areas.
B. They are used in not-so-stubby areas to propagate external routes.
C. They are used to notify areas of the ASBR.
D. They are flooded to all areas except stub areas (external route). PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Which OSPF LSA type does an ASBR use to originate a default route into an area?
A. LSA 1
B. LSA 3
C. LSA 4
D. LSA 5
E. LSA 7
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected. Given the configuration, how many EIGRP routes will router B see in its routing table?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
E. 4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running EIGRP, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?

A. The network statements are misconfigured.
B. The IP address statements are misconfigured.
C. The autonomous system is misconfigured.
D. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running OSPF, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. The routers are not on the same network.
B. The network statements do not match.
C. The process number does not match.
D. The MTU does not match.
E. The OSPF cost does not match.
F. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 199.155.24.0 network are unable to reach the 172.16.10.0 network. What is the most likely solution?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. Router ISP1 should be configured to peer with router B.
B. Router ISP2 should be configured with no synchronization.
C. Router ISP1 should be configured with no synchronization.
D. Router ISP2 should be configured with no auto-summary.
E. Router ISP1 or IPS2 should be configured with network 176.16.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 74
Two BGP peers connected through a routed firewall are unable to establish a peering relationship. What could be the most likely cause?
A. BGP peers must be Layer 2-adjacent.
B. EBGP multihop is not configured.
C. The firewall is not configured to allow IP protocol 89.
D. The firewall is not configured to allow UDP 179.

Correct Answer: B

The Cisco 350-029 certification can make you a competent person.It may enable a technician to know about the Cisco 350-029 configurations,get information about the Cisco 350-029 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Cisco 350-029 united computing systems.

Cisco 350-022 Practice Exam, Buy Best Cisco 350-022 Exam Test Questions With High Quality

Flydumps Cisco 350-022 exam questions and answers in PDF are prepared by our expert, Moreover, they are based on the recommended syllabus covering all the Cisco 350-022 exam objectives.You will find them to be very helpful and precise in the subject matter since all the Cisco 350-022 exam content is regularly updated and has been checked for accuracy by our team of Cisco expert professionals.

QUESTION 66
According to the diagram, a PPPoE session is initiated by the user from the PC using the username [email protected] This PPPoE session ultimately terminates on the ISP router, using domain based tunneling on 6400. What is the correct sequence of events which occur during user authentication?

A. The 6400 will query the PC to get the domain name. The 6400 will issue a PPP authentication challenge to which the PC will respond using the username [email protected] Once the tunnel is established, the ISP router will issue a challenge to the user and will authenticate the response.
B. The 6400 will issue a PPP authentication challenge to which the PC will respond using the username [email protected] The 6400 will authenticate the user. It will also use the domain name to find out the tunnel endpoint. The tunnel is established and user traffic will now be allowed to flow without any further authentication.
C. The 6400 will issue a PPP authentication challenge to which the PC will respond using the username [email protected] The 6400 will use the domain name isp1.com to find out the tunnel endpoint. It will forward the authentication information to the ISP router which will authenticate the user.
D. The 6400 will use the PVC number to decide the tunnel endpoint. Once the tunnel is established, the ISP router will issue a challenge to the user and will authenticate the response.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
An architecture that utilizes PPPoA deals with IP address allocation by what type of negotiation?
A. DHCP
B. LDAP
C. IPCP
D. RADIUS
E. NIS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Virtual path identifier (VPI) and virtual channel identifier (VCI) values on the NRP-2 must share ___bits. By default, VPI values are limited to ___ bits (0-15), and VCI values are limited to ___ bits (0-1023). A Network Administrator can change the VPI and VCI ranges, but together the VPI and VCI values cannot exceed ___ bits. Which numbers below, correctly fill in the blanks?
A. 16, 6, 10, 16
B. 18, 4, 12, 16
C. 18, 4, 8, 12
D. 14, 4, 10, 14
E. 14, 5, 9, 14

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
What statement regarding Service Selection Gateway is INCORRECT?
A. For Proxy Service, the SSG will proxy the Access-Request to the remote AAA server. Upon receiving an Access-Accept from the remote RADIUS server, the NRP-SSG responds to the subscriber with the Access-Accept.
B. Transparent passthrough service allows unauthenticated subscriber traffic to be routed through the NRP-SSG in either direction.
C. For Proxy service, the SSG can perform NAT between the address assigned by the remote server and the subscriber’s real IP address.
D. For non-PPP users, such as those in bridged networks, if the user disconnects from a service without logging off, the connection will remain open and the user can reaccess the service without going through logon procedure as long as the session has not timed out.
E. The PPP Termination Aggregation (PTA) service can be used only in dialup environments and with PPPoE in DSL environments. It cannot be used with PPPoA.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 70
A Network Administrator is unable to configure a PVC with the value of 8/49. He looks at the running config and notices the following entry for the interface he is working with.
What is the likely cause of the problem?interface ATM0/0/0no ip addressatm vc-per-vp 2048no atm ilmi-keepalive
A. ILMI has timed out without keepalives.
B. The config is fine; the NSP must be the source of the problem.
C. An IP address is required to turn up PVCs.
D. The interface is shutdown.
E. Too many bits have been assigned to the VCs reducing the possible values of the VP.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
What does the Service Selection Gateway (SSG) feature on the NRP support to authenticate and authorize users?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. MS-CHAP
E. Radius and Tacacs+

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
What is the purpose of the following command? virtual-template {template-number\}pre-clone {number\}
A. Used in a PPPoA environment, it will improve the memory utilization by decreasing the number of dynamic interfaces created.
B. Used in either a PPPoA or PPPoE environment, it will decrease the time needed to boot the NRP by creating needed access interfaces before they are needed.
C. Used in a PPPoE environment, it will increase the time needed for a user to connect to the NRP by allocating access interfaces at boot time.
D. Used in a PPPoE environment, it will pre-create a defined number of dynamic access interfaces to reduce the load on the NRP during times of peak user logins.
E. Used in either a PPPoA or PPPoE environment, it will increase the initial load on the NRP by pre-creating a defined number of dynamic access interfaces.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Inferface FastEthernet 0/0/0ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0!interface ATM 0/0/0.30 multipointpvc 1/43encapsulation aal5ciscoppp Virtual-Template 2!!interface Virtual-Template 2ip unnumbered FastEthernet 0/0/0no peer default ip addressppp authentication pap chapppp ipcp mask 255.255.255.224!Refer to the configuration above. A customer connected to PVC 1/43 boots their CPE (PPPoA encapsulation). The Radius server is properly configured and recognizes the customer. The Radius server assigns the Framed-IP-netmask 192.168.10.1/29. What information does the CPE receive from the NRP via PPP IPCP negotiation?
A. 192.168.10.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.248
B. 192.168.10.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.224
C. 192.168.1.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.224
D. 192.168.1.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.248
E. 192.168.1.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
When a subscriber is configured for PPPoE service, the DSL modem is usually configured as:
A. A basic router (RFC 1483 routing)
B. A basic bridge (RFC 1483 bridging)
C. A router configured for PPPoA session termination
D. A router configured for PPPoE session origination
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
In BGP, why should a Route Reflector be used?
A. To overcome issues of split-horizon within BGP
B. To reduce the number of External BGP peers by allowing updates to reflect without the need to be fully meshed
C. To allow the router to reflect updates from one Internal BGP speaker to another without the need to be fully meshed
D. To divide Autonomous Systems into mini-Autonomous Systems, allowing the reduction in the number of peers
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 76
BGP can implement a policy of ‘Route Dampening’ to control route instability. What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?
A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as half-life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable ‘suppress limit’.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 77
Which are the correct ways to release IBGP from the condition that all IBGP neighbors need to be fully meshed? (multiple answer)
A. Configure local preference
B. Configure route reflectors
C. Configure IBGP neighbors several hops away
D. Configure confederations

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 78
According to the diagram, what attribute is initiated by AS200 (IBGP) to give preference to the path A or D traffic will take when going from AS200 to AS100? What attribute is initiated by AS200 (EBGP) to give preference to the path B or C traffic will take when going from AS100 to AS200?

A. MED; Origin
B. MED; Local Preference
C. Community; Origin
D. Local Preference; MED
E. Origin; Community

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
Routers E and F are running HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol). Router E has a higher priority, and both routers have standby preempt configured. Since Router E is normally the active router, what IP address should Host G use for its default gateway?

A. 10.1.3.1
B. Router E’s IP address, since it is normally active; Router F will take over Router E’s address if it fails.
C. Router F’s IP address; the active router will take over the standby router’s IP address until it fails
D. The virtual address configured when enabling HSRP
E. The virtual address assigned by HSRP; this address is dependent on the group number configured

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
What statement is correct concerning the shown configuration?

A. Two RIP updates will be sent out on Ethernet 0: one broadcast to 255.255.255.255 and one unicast to
10.0.0.2.
B. Only one RIP update will be sent out on Ethernet 0 to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255, but no RIP updates will be received on Ethernet 0.
C. Two RIP updates will be sent out on Ethernet 0, one broadcast to 10.255.255.255 and one unicast to
10.0.0.2.
D. Only one RIP update will be sent out on Ethernet 0 to the unicast address 10.0.0.2.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
A DSL subscriber says that his DSL modem is trained at the subscribed rates, 1024 kbps downstream and 256 kbps upstream, but he has no access to the internet. The internet service was working until today. The modem remains trained – it is not dropping train or frequently retraining. Manually retraining the modem does not correct the problem. The customer can ping from his PC to the Ethernet interface on the DSL modem, but not addresses “in the network”. Initial troubleshooting shows that the DSL modem can ping the subscriber’s PC, but no addresses in the network. What could cause this problem?
A. A telephone is connected to the DSL line with no microfilter or splitter installed. The phone is “loading” the line and disrupting DSL service.
B. The subscriber powered-down the DSL modem, and when it was powered-up it defaulted to G.Lite mode (G.992.2). The port in the DSLAM is full-rate DMT (G.992.1).
C. The DSL port in the DSLAM was left in a “shutdown” state by mistake following DSLAM maintenance.
D. There is a problem with the subscriber’s ATM PVC between the DSLAM and ATM switch. An incorrect VCI was assigned between the DSLAM and ATM switch shortly after midnight, during the service provider’s network rearrangements.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Which DSL modulation types allows line sharing (DSL and POTS voice on the same line)?
A. G.SHDSL, IDSL, and DMT
B. CAP and DMT
C. DMT and G.SHDSL
D. IDSL and SDSL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
What is not a valid service type between an 827 and a 6400?
A. PPPoA
B. HDLC
C. PPPoE
D. L2TP
E. RFC1483
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
What ADSL DMT line rate requires (occupies) the most bandwidth on a telephone line?
A. 8 mbps downstream, 800 kbps upstream on 1 kft (300 meters) of cable.
B. 8 mbps downstream, 800 kbps upstream on 9 kft (2.75 km) of cable.
C. 1 mbps downstream, 256 kbps upstream on 1 kft (300 meters) of cable.
D. 512 kbps downstream, 128 kbps upstream on 17 kft (5.2 km) of cable.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
In DMT DSL transmission systems, what is the effect of turning off half of the available downstream carriers (tones)?
A. The downstream DSL bandwidth is reduced.
B. The downstream line rate and throughput remains unchanged, but FEC efficiency is reduced.
C. The upstream DSL bandwidth can be increased, since more carriers become available for upstream traffic.
D. Downstream RS error correction effectiveness is reduced.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
What is true concerning interleaved versus fastpath mode in DMT DSL service?
A. Fastpath mode allows higher DSL rates.
B. Interleaved mode allocates traffic to more than one ATM PVC.
C. Interleaved mode allows greater forward error correction (FEC).
D. Fastpath mode gives data precedence over voice traffic.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
The major difference between DMT and CAP is:
A. CAP uses a single center frequency; DMT is multiple-carrier.
B. DMT is single-carrier; CAP is multiple-carrier.
C. CAP is used in IDSL; DMT is used in ADSL.
D. DMT is used in VDSL; CAP is used in ADSL.
E. CAP is used in ADSL, DMT is used in SDSL.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
In ADSL DMT systems, the highest downstream transmit power occurs at what rate/reach combinations?
A. 384 kbps at 17 kft (5.1 km)
B. 8 mbps at 1 kft (305 meters)
C. 1 mbps at 9 kft (2.75 km)
D. 8 mbps at 9 kft (2.75 km)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
What is true concerning fastpath versus interleaved mode in DMT DSL service?
A. Fastpath mode provides lower latency (delay) than interleaved mode.
B. Fastpath mode allows higher DSL trained rates.
C. Fastpath mode allows higher effective throughput on noisy transmission lines.
D. Interleaved mode ensures that all provisioned ATM PVCs on a DSL line are given equal bandwidth.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
A DSLAM is using Reed-Solomon forward error correction on a DMT DSL line. The DSL service is using TCP/IP over ATM over DSL. A high number of upstream RS uncorrected errors are occurring on the DSL line, as reported by the DSLAM in the following status message:DSL Statistics:Init Events: 2Transmitted Superframes: near end: 93681573 far end: 0Received Superframes: near end: 93516422 far end: 0Corrected Superframes: near end: 142631 far end: 31571Uncorrected Superframes: near end: 191 far end: 1LOS Events: near end: 0 far end: 0LOF/RFI Events: near end: 0 far end: 0ES Events: near end: 5 far end: 1What is the result of the uncorrected errors?
A. The DSL frames will be continuously retransmitted by the DSL transceivers until an error-free frame is received.
B. If errors on the DSL line can not be corrected by the RS algorithm, the line will be automatically taken out of service.
C. The errored data resulting from uncorrected layer-1 errors will be handled by TCP.
D. When Reed-Solomon forward error correction is used, all errors are corrected at layer 1. The uncorrected state was present only until forward error correction algorithms corrected the errors.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
A DSL subscriber reports that the CPE modem untrains and retrains several times each hour, but not at regular intervals. The subscriber has a DMT modem operating on 10 kft of #26 cable (3 km of 0.4 mm cable). The provisioned downstream rate is 2 mbps, and the provisioned upstream rate is 256 kbps. When the modem retrains, the downstream DSL may be as low as 512 kbps.
Sometimes manually retraining the modem allows it to return to a 2 mbps line rate, and sometimes manually retraining the modem does not improve the DSL line rate. Which options would cause the intermittent train/untrain symptom as described? (multiple answer)
A. A telephone on the same phone line was installed without a microfilter. When the telephone handset is taken off-hook, the phone causes excessive attenuation of the DSL frequencies and the resulting high error rate results in a retrain. Because of the degraded signal levels while the phone is off-hook, the modem can not retrain at 2 mbps.
B. There is an interfering signal in the same cable. When the interfering signal is present, an excessive error rate results. The modem retrains at a lower line rate in order to recover an acceptable noise margin and error rate.
C. The noise margin was incorrectly set too high. Reducing the noise margin will correct the symptom.
D. ADSL DMT will not permit 2 mbps downstream rates at 10 kft of #26 cable (3 km of 0.4 mm cable). ADSL 2 megabit service will always be unreliable and intermittent on this cable length and wire size.
E. The DMT profile is using interleaved mode. Changing to fastpath will correct the symptom.
F. The ATM QoS is UBR, and the subscriber’s traffic is yielding to VBR or CBR traffic.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 92
IDSL and SDSL use what line coding scheme?
A. B8ZS
B. 2B1Q
C. QAM
D. CAP
E. DMT
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Which modulation techniques are typical of ADSL, but not SDSL, SHDSL, or IDSL?
A. CAP and DMT
B. TC/PAM and DMT
C. CAP and TC/PAM
D. CAP and 2B1Q

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
The network associated with Router A’s Ethernet 0 port is designed to be publicly accessible. However, Router B’s Token Ring 0 network should be accessible only to hosts from Router A’s Ethernet 0 network. What access list for Router B would accomplish this?

A. access-list 99 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255access-list 99 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
B. access-list 103 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255access-list 103 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
C. access-list 88 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255access-list 88 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255
D. access-list 3 permit 191.8.1.0 255.255.255.0access-list 3 deny 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
E. access-list 99 permit 191.8.10.0 0.0.0.0access-list 99 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
What Q.931 message cannot be received in response to sending a Q.931 SETUP message?
A. Alerting
B. Call Proceeding
C. Connect
D. USER Information
E. Progress
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 96
If a Dialer Profile exists in the local configuration of a router, what is true?
A. A virtual-access password is configured automatically.
B. A virtual-access interface will inherit all configurations from the dialer profile.
C. AAA parameters cannot be applied to an interface.
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 97
To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, IS-IS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called:
A. Redundant DIS
B. BDR
C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS
D. Designated Redundant System

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 98
When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer)
A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address.
B. It is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routing wih the same process.
C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLV field on the L-1/L-1 LSPs.
D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 99
A router has the above routes listed in its routing table and receives a packet destined for 172.16.0.45. What will happen?

A. The router will not forward this packet, since it is destined for the 0 subnet.
B. The router will forward the packet through 172.31.116.65, since it has the lowest metric.
C. The router will forward the packet through 10.1.1.1.
D. The router will forward the packet through 172.31.116.65, since it has the lowest administrative distance.
E. The router will forward the packet through 192.168.1.4.

Correct Answer: C

We provide Cisco 350-022 help and information on a wide range of issues. Cisco 350-022 is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Cisco 350-022 free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

Cisco 350-021 Q&A, Real Cisco 350-021 Vce & PDF Sale

Flydumps Cisco 350-021 exam questions and answers in PDF are prepared by our expert, Moreover,they are based on the recommended syllabus covering all the Cisco 350-021 exam objectives.You will find them to be very helpful and precise in the subject matter since all the Microsoft Cisco 350-021 exam content is regularly updated and has been checked for accuracy by our team of Microsoft expert professionals.

QUESTION 61
An incoming frame is received by a transparent bridge. If the destination address of the frame is not present in the database, the bridge will:
A. Discard the frame
B. Send out the frame on all interfaces, except on the interface where the frame originate
C. Put the destination MAC address in the table
D. Broadcast the frame on all interfaces
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
A Fast Ethernet connection supporting multiple VLANs is referred to as:
A. A circuit group
B. An emulated LAN (LANE)
C. A trunk
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63
Host D sends a frame to Host B at the same time that Host B sends a frame to Host D. Bridging is enabled on Router 1, and the two frames collide into each other. Select the best explanation of why Host B will or will not receive the original frame from Host D:

A. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B & D are in the same VLAN.
B. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same routing domain.
C. Host B will not receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same collision domain.
D. Host B will not receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in different broadcast domains.
E. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same bridging domain.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of the following CGMP (Cisco Group Management Protocol) statements is correct? (multiple answer)
A. CGMP manages multicast traffic in Catalyst 5000 series switches by allowing directed switching of IP multicast traffic.
B. CGMP will switch IP multicast packets to all ports in one specific VLAN.
C. CGMP filtering requires a network connection from the Catalyst 5000 series switch to a router running CGMP.
D. CGMP handles ARP, SAP, UDP, SSAP and DSAP.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 65
With CGMP enabled, which are unique about the following MAC address range: 01-00-5E-00-00-00 to 01-00-5E-00-00-FF? (multiple answer)
A. CGMP does not prune those MAC addresses.
B. They contain the CGMP Multicast addresses for the IGMP Leaves and IGMP Queries.
C. CGMP filters those MAC addresses when they arrive at the processor
D. They are the reserved IP addresses of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 for forwarding local IP multicast traffic in a single Layer 3 hop.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 66
According to the MGCP call flow shown, from what line can it be deduced that Call agent requested the gateway to play dial tone.

A. N
B. X
C. R
D. S
E. RQNT

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
Shown is a an output display of “show cable modem” which shows SID 7 in a state indicating that the:

A. DHCP request was sent and acknowledged
B. Client has received an ip address
C. Cable modem has completed the DHCP process
D. PCs cannot surf the Internet
E. Cable modems cannot ping the gateway

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
According to the MGCP call flow shown, from what line can it be deduced that call agent is requesting that this residential gateway collect digits?

A. N
B. X
C. R
D. S
E. RQNT

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
What would be the proper recommendation to an MSO’s marketing department for offering data services?
A. Data service at 1mb rates for $59.95 per month
B. Data service at 2mb rates for $79.95 per month
C. Tiered data rates with symmetrical speeds
D. Tiered data rates with asymmetrical speeds
E. Flat rate pricing for maximum speed

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
According to the MGCP call flow shown, from what line can it be deduced that Call agent requests notification about an on hook condition?

A. N
B. X
C. R
D. S
E. RQNT

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
When configuring the smart-relay feature on the CMTS, what command allows you to populate the GIADDR with multiple secondary addresses?
A. ip dhcp relay information option
B. cable dhcp-giaddr policy
C. cable relay-information-option
D. cable relay-agent-option
E. ip dhcp relay information policy

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
When allocating address space within Cisco Network Registrar which statement is most correct?
A. The scope for modems should be legal routable ip addresses.
B. The scope for CPEs are usually legal routable ip addresses.
C. Scopes should be set up to accurately reflect the subnets defined on the CMTS.
D. Client class provisioning should be utilized to handle multiple CMTS requests.
E. One large scope for all modem/CPE requests is best.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
The main purpose of tags within cisco network registrar is to:
A. Require modems to be provisioned from client-class-processing
B. Allow DHCP requests to be processed to the correct MAC address
C. Associate clients, client classes, and scopes.
D. Act as an index point for provisioning from the system-default-policy
E. Allow the relay agent to modify option 82 requests

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
The correct search order for policies in Cisco Network Registrar is:
A. client named policyclient class named policyclient class embedded policy
B. client embedded policyclient class named policyscope embedded policy
C. client class named policyclient embedded policyscope embedded policy
D. client class named policyclient class embedded policyscope embedded policy

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
You have been assigned to disable modem to modem communications to stop gaming on the recently built plant. What command would you implement?
A. no cable arp
B. no cable proxy arp
C. no cable relay-agent option
D. arp timeout 0
E. cable upstream 0 admission-control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Below are four ‘out’ access-lists, configured on an interface. What list will block an IP packet with source address 144.23.67.94, destination address 197.55.34.254, destination TCP port 23 from leaving the router?
A. access-list 100 deny ip tcp 144.23.67.0 0.0.0.7 eq telnet 197.55.34.240 0.0.0.15 eq telnetaccess-list 100 permit ip any any
B. access-list 100 deny tcp 144.23.67.94 0.0.0.7 any eq telnetaccess-list 100 permit ip any any
C. access-list 100 deny tcp 144.23.67.86 0.0.0.7 eq telnet 197.55.34.240 0.0.0.15access-list 100 permit ip any any
D. access-list 100 deny ip 144.23.67.94 0.0.0.7 host 144.23.67.94access-list 100 permit ip any any
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
MPLS traffic engineering routing information is carried by:
A. BGP MEDs
B. MP-BGP
C. OSPF Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
D. RTP or RTCP packets
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
The two label distribution protocols that provide support for MPLS traffic engineering are: A. RSVP and OSPF
B. CR-LDP and IBGP
C. RSVP and CR-LDP
D. LPS and LDS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:
A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGP MEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets nswer: A

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
MPLS does not support:
A. Multicast
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. Multicast and OSPF

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
When designing a 2-way data system, the most common bandwidth constraint that must be overcome is:
A. Internet link(s) for the MSO
B. Hub-to-Hub backbone speed
C. Downstream 64 or 256 QAM between CMTS and CM
D. Upstream between the CMTS and CM
E. Satellite QAM downlink for HITS feed

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
What is the expected RF signal level range for an upstream DOCSIS 16-QAM digitally modulated carrier when measured at Point K in the figure?

A. -15 to +15 dBmV
B. 0 to +10 dBmV
C. +8 to +55 dBmV
D. +8 to +58 dBmV
E. +50 to +61 dBmV

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
What is the expected RF signal level range for a downstream DOCSIS digitally modulated carrier when measured at Point K in the figure?

A. -15 to +15 dBmV
B. 0 to +10 dBmV
C. +8 to +55 dBmV
D. +8 to +58 dBmV
E. +50 to +61 dBmV

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
What is the recommended minimum carrier-to-noise ratio for downstream DOCSIS 64- and 256-QAM
digitally modulated carriers?
A. 22 dB
B. 25 dB
C. 35 dB
D. 43 dB
E. 50 dB

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
At what level relative to adjacent channel analog visual carrier levels should a DOCSIS 64- or 256-QAM digitally modulated carrier be operated?
A. 6 dB to 10 dB higher
B. The same level
C. 6 dB to 10 dB lower
D. 10 dB to 17 dB lower
E. 15 dB to 20dB lower

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
What is the expected RF signal level range for a downstream DOCSIS digitally modulated carrier when measured at Point C in the figure?

A. -15 to +15 dBmV
B. 0 to +10 dBmV
C. +8 to +55 dBmV
D. +8 to +58 dBmV
E. +50 to +61 dBmV

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 87
What is the upper boundary for the Euro-DOCSIS upstream frequency range?
A. 65 Mhz
B. 62 MHz C. 45 MHz
D. 42 MHz

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
What is the recommended minimum carrier-to-noise ratio for upstream DOCSIS QPSK and 16-QAM digitally modulated carriers?
A. 22 dB
B. 25 dB
C. 35 dB
D. 43 dB
E. 50 dB

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
What is the correct DOCSIS initialization sequence for cable modems to come online?
A. init(r1), init(d), init(i) init(t), init(o), online
B. init(r1), init(i), init(d) init(o), init(t), online
C. init(r1), init(d), init(t) init(i), init(o), online
D. init(r1), init(i), init(o) init(t), init(d), online
E. init(r1), init(d), init(i) init(o), init(t), online

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
Running BPI, the “cable privacy mandatory” command:
A. Requires TEK & KEK establishment to online modems
B. Means that cable modems must support BPI
C. Is one of the minimum requirements for BPI configuration
D. Ensures authentication of encryption keys
E. Ensures the encryption of RF traffic

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
The “Rec Power” field in the report produced by the “show cable modem” command includes an asterisk (*) with the power level for a particular cable modem. This is an indication of:
A. The power level received from the CMTS by the cable modem and an indication that the level has changed.
B. The RF power level received at the CMTS line card upstream port and an indication that the cable modem has reached its maximum transmit power level.
C. The RF power level received at the CMTS line card upstream port is an indication of power adjustment fluctuations.
D. The power level received from the CMTS by the cable modem and an indication that the cable modem has reached its maximum transmit power level.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
In order to enable baseline privacy, which are the minimum items required? (multiple answer)
A. Crypto images on the CMs and CMTSs
B. Class-of-Service Privacy Enable (0/1): 1
C. Have P images on the CMs and CMTSs
D. CMTS Authentication (0/1): 1
E. cable shared-secret [0 | 7] authentication-key

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 93
Entering the command “cable downstream if-output prbs” from the interface configuration prompt of the CLI will: (multiple answer)
A. Activate an unmodulated downstream test signal which comprises a continuous wave carrier at the downstream RF frequency
B. Activate a downstream test signal which comprises a random data pattern modulated to look like a real data stream
C. Activate a downstream test used to ping modems without disruption of normal operations
D. Activate a pseudo random bit stream to be used for downstream spectrum analyzer test measurements

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 94
The “Rec Power” field in the report produced by the “show cable modem” command includes an exclamation point (!) with the power level for a particular cable modem. This is an indication of:
A. The power level received from the CMTS by the cable modem and an indication that the level has changed
B. The RF power level received at the CMTS line card upstream port and an indication that the cable modem has reached its maximum transmit power level
C. The RF power level received at the CMTS line card upstream port and an indication that a power adjustment has been made
D. The power level received from the CMTS by the cable modem and an indication that the cable modem has reached its maximum transmit power level

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
During the modem boot process, how is the modem’s power level set to communicate reliably with the headend ?
A. The modem scans the downstream QAM signal and sets a value specified by the upstream channel descriptor.
B. The modem is commanded by the CMTS to set power levels until the ranging is complete.
C. The modem tuner sets a level as defined by the DOCSIS specification.
D. The modem uses the default value in the broadcom chipset.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
Entering the command “clear cable modem <ip-addr> reset” from the interface configuration prompt of the CLI will:
A. Add the specified cable modem from the station maintenance list and force it to begin a reset sequence
B. Reset to the default value the number of hosts that can be attached to the specified cable modem
C. Clear the specified modem from the flap-list and the flap-list history
D. Do nothing; “clear cable modem <ip-address> reset” is not a valid interface command
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
The Hold-Down Timer used in Distance Vector protocols:
A. Sets the time limit of how long a router may keep a packet in its buffer, if the routing protocol is in the process of converging
B. Determines the number of seconds a router will wait before sending another update to neighbor routers
C. Sets a specific period for routers to neither accept or advertise a route from a destination where an original route was recently lost
D. Sets a duration where routes are not accepted from the neighbor router that caused a routing loop

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
In a Distance Vector protocol, “counting to infinity”:
A. Calculates the time taken for a protocol to converge
B. Checks to make sure the number of route entries do not exceed a set upper limit
C. Counts the packets dropped during a routing loop
D. Sets an upper limit for hop count, so that routing loops can be broken if this limit is reached
E. Causes the router to enter an infinite loop and requires the router to be restarted

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
For the spanning tree algorithm, a bridge builds part of its forwarding table based on:
A. Destination MAC addresses
B. 802.2 headers
C. Source MAC addresses
D. The Ethernet type field
E. The SNAP field
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:
A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
An incoming frame is received by a transparent bridge. If the destination address of the frame is not present in the database, the bridge will:
A. Discard the frame
B. Send out the frame on all interfaces, except on the interface where the frame originate
C. Put the destination MAC address in the table
D. Broadcast the frame on all interfaces
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
Host D sends a frame to Host B at the same time that Host B sends a frame to Host D. Bridging is enabled on Router 1, and the two frames collide into each other. Select the best explanation of why Host B will or will not receive the original frame from Host D:

A. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B & D are in the same VLAN.
B. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same routing domain.
C. Host B will not receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same collision domain.
D. Host B will not receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in different broadcast domains.
E. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same bridging domain.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
The diagram shows a collapsed L3 switched building backbone consisting of two L3 switches: W and U. Each L3 switch has a routed interface on every subnet (VLAN) in the building. There are no VLAN trunks in the network. In other words the L3 switches are acting as native routers. There are exactly 4 client-side VLANs (subnets): a, b, c, d. There are exactly 2 server-side VLANs (subnets): x and y. There is one routed link (Subnet e) connecting the L3 switches in the core. How many equal-cost paths to Subnet d does L3 Switch W keep in its routing table?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: A

Preparing Cisco 350-021 exam is not difficult now.You can prepare from Cisco 350-021 Certification or Cisco 350-021 dumps.Here we have mentioned some sample questions.You can use our Cisco 350-021 study material notes for test preparation. Latest Cisco 350-021 study material available.

Cisco 350-020 Certification Braindumps, The Most Recommended Cisco 350-020 PDF With Low Price

Preparing for Microsoft exams of Cisco 350-020 is really a tough task to accomplish.Flydumps delivers the most comprehensive preparation material,covering each and every aspect of Cisco 350-020 exam curriculum and all the brain is the latest.You can pass Cisco 350-020 exam without any problem

QUESTION 45
Which can be defined as the mean optical power required to obtain a required BER at a given bit rate?
A. Receiver sensitivity
B. Receiver propagation power delay
C. Transmitter sensitivity
D. Transmitter power
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
What is the purpose of Dual Ring Interconnect in SONET rings?
A. Protects signals against a node failure in a single ring
B. Protects signals when a ring switch fails
C. Protects signals when multiple span switches fail
D. Protects pre-emptible traffic from being dropped when a ring switch occurs
E. Protects signals against intermediate node failures between rings

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Why is it important to leave some residual dispersion at an amplifier site when 10Gb/s signals in a DWDM system have gone through a dispersion compensating device?
A. Reduces the effect of polarization mode dispersion
B. Avoids gain tilt through the amplifier
C. Compensating to zero dispersion has too much loss penalty
D. Suppresses some non-linear effects like XPM and SPM
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
What SAN topology has the ability to scale to very large networks?
A. Switched Fabric
B. Arbitrated Loop
C. Point to Multipoint
D. Loop Channel bypass
E. Point to Point

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
RPR capability on the ML-series cards increases the scalability of the ML architecture from 10 cards per ring to how many cards per ring?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 255
D. 4080
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Click the Exhibit button to view the topology.
In the MPLS network shown, how many routing tables are on Router A?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit represents a power to frequency graph of a modulated optical signal with a base frequency of
193.00 THz. What do the smaller peaks on each side of the base frequency represent?

A. Pink noise of the transmitter
B. Four-wave mixing products
C. Modulation sidebands of the optical signal
D. Other wavelengths in a DWDM system
E. Gain tilt of wavelengths in a DWDM system

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
What establishes routing table precedence in a routing table?
A. Default metrics
B. Routing priority
C. Type of service
D. Iambic pentameter
E. Administrative distance

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 53
You have an E-series shared packet ring of size STS-3c consisting of ONS 15454 nodes. What is the maximum size point-to-point circuit that can be configured with the remaining bandwidth to the multi-card Ethernet group on the E-series cards?
A. STS-1
B. STS-3c
C. STS-6c
D. STS-12c
E. STS-24c
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the four networks listed, what valid summary address (below) contains the longest prefix?

A. 10.1.0.0/20
B. 10.1.0.0/16
C. 10.1.1.0/23
D. 10.1.16.0/19
E. These networks cannot be summarized.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
What CiscoWorks 2000 application provides support for optical NEs?
A. Internet Performance Monitor B. Resource Manager Essentials
C. Service Level Manager
D. Voice Health Monitor

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
How can traffic be restored if a failure results in loss of working traffic only in a 4F BLSR?
A. Path switching
B. Span switching
C. Ring switching
D. Label switching
E. Node switching

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 57
What is the effective bandwidth of a 6 node, four-fiber OC-48 BLSR ring if all the traffic on the ring is homed back to one node (hub-and-spoke) without Protection Channel Access (PCA)?
A. STS-24
B. STS-48
C. STS-96
D. STS-192
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 58
Click the Exhibit button.
In the figure, what IP address would you assign to a desktop connected to the TCC port on node E . Would a static route be needed to allow access to other nodes, and in which node would you install it?

A. Any Pingable IP address from Telnet session in Site Bravo SWT 1, No static route needed to allow
access to other nodes.
B. 192.168.1.101/24, Yes in Node E, local subnet pointed to 192.168.1.254.
C. 192.168.1.152/24, No Static route needed to allow access to other nodes.
D. 192.168.1.14/24, No Static route needed to allow access to other nodes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
To set the SONET overhead bytes in the frame header to meet a specific standards requirement or to ensure interoperability with another vendor’s equipment, use what configuration command line?
A. pos flag in the global
B. pos flag in the interface
C. pos flag-type in the global
D. pos flag-type in the interface

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Which describe the benefits that FICON has over ESCON?
A. Increased channel capacity due to new architecture
B. Increased channel capacity due to faster physical link rates
C. Increased channel capacity due to Upper Level Protocol Mapping
D. Increased channel capacity due to improved SCSI header re-write algorithms
E. FICON offers no significant advantage over ESCON

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 61
What is the power at the output ports of a 90%-10% Tee coupler that has an 80 m W light source and 1 dB of excess loss?
A. 57.2 m W and 6.3 m W
B. 72 m W and 8 m W
C. 90.6 m W 10.2 m W
D. 60.3 m W 3.2 m W

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
In order to avoid loops when sending routing updates, what is the correct technique to prevent a network from being forwarded on the same interface it is learned?
A. Poison Reverse
B. The use of access-lists used with distribute-list
C. Split Horizon
D. This is not a problem, since this cannot happen.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
ML-series QoS handling of multicast and broadcast traffic involves:
A. Putting all multicast and broadcast traffic in its own queue and giving it priority over other traffic.
B. Putting multicast and broadcast traffic in its own queue and allocating a 10% port bandwidth guarantee.
C. Configuration using the “bandwidth” command allowing QoS guarantees for multicast and broadcast traffic.
D. All multicast and broadcast being treated as best effort (BE) traffic.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
What is an active filter?
A. Prisms
B. Dielectric thin film interface filter
C. Diffraction grating
D. Semi-conductor filter
E. Bragg Grating

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
For SONET Ring switching, the 50ms switch time applies to:
A. 50 ms, not including detection time
B. For rings smaller than 100km
C. For rings smaller than 2000km
D. Up to 64 nodes
E. Up to 254 nodes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
What feature of the spatial reuse protocol used in DPT allows for bandwidth reuse on the ring?
A. Fairness algorithm
B. Token controlled access
C. Packet destination stripping
D. Automatic topology discovery
E. Multicast origination stripping

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
What part of the SONET frame is used to overcome the need to buffer information in order to have fixed information payloads?
A. Section Overhead
B. Line Overhead
C. Pointers
D. Path Overhead
E. H2 and STS-1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
The total capacity of a 2F MS-SPRing network of N nodes operating as MS-SPRing nodes operating at a ring speed of STM-4 in VC4 units is: (NOTE: PT=Pass Through traffic)
A. 2 x N – PT
B. 4 x N – PT
C. 8 x N – PT
D. Depends on the traffic pattern

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
In Fiber optic communication systems, a pulse is said to be chirped if its carrier frequency changes with:
A. Distance
B. Time
C. Group Delay
D. Velocity
E. Wavelength

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
With CGMP enabled, which are unique about the following MAC address range: 01-00-5E-00-00-00 to 01-00-5E-00-00-FF? (multiple answer)
A. CGMP does not prune those MAC addresses.
B. They contain the CGMP Multicast addresses for the IGMP Leaves and IGMP Queries.
C. CGMP filters those MAC addresses when they arrive at the processor
D. They are the reserved IP addresses of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 for forwarding local IP multicast traffic in a single Layer 3 hop.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 71
What is NOT a characteristic of Direct attached Storage (DAS)?
A. High speed
B. Low latency
C. Limited distance
D. Re-routable protection

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
On each LAN segment with multiple bridges running spanning tree, the bridge closest to the:
A. Designated bridge is selected as root bridge
B. Root bridge is selected as designated bridge
C. Root bridge is not selected as designated bridge
D. Designated bridge is not selected as root bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
What part of the SONET overhead would an Add/ Drop Multiplexer read/write?
A. Section Overhead
B. Information Payload
C. Path Overhead
D. Line Overhead
E. Does not read the SONET frame
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 74
What condition is NOT a valid criterion for initiating a BLSR protection switch?
A. Reception of an AIS (all 1’s) signal
B. High path bit-error-rate (BER) indicated in the B3 byte
C. Loss-of-frame (LOF) alarm
D. Request for a line switch in the K1 byte

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
The TCP PUSH flag indicates:
A. The data in the TCP receive buffer should be sent to the application listening to this TCP connection without waiting for further data.
B. Any data being buffered by routers between the source and destination for this connection should be sent immediately.
C. The sender should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
D. This session is about to end.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
The ML-series Ethernet card provides up to how many active 802.1Q in Q instances per card?
A. 512
B. 4095
C. 255
D. 1024

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What is an Inter Switch Link (ISL)?
A. A protocol to interconnect switches across ATM only
B. A protocol to interconnect switches across FDDI only
C. An IEEE protocol to interconnect multiple switches
D. A Cisco proprietary protocol for interconnecting multiple switches
E. An IEEE protocol to interconnect multiple switches across Fast Ethernet

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Of the four types of SONET transmission equipment, what performs the 3R (Refresh/ Re-amplify, Reshape, Retime) function?
A. Path Terminating Equipment
B. SONET Terminating Equipment
C. Regenerator
D. Add/Drop Multiplexer
E. Digital Cross-Connect System
F. Line Multiplexing Equipment
G. Post/PreAmplifier
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 79
In Frame Relay, the FECN bit is set by:
A. The Frame Relay network, to inform the DTE receiving the frame that congestion was experienced in the path from source to destination
B. The Frame Relay network, in frames traveling in the opposite direction from those frames that encountered congestion
C. The receiving DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle back
D. The sending DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle back
E. Any device that uses an extended DLCI address

Correct Answer: A

Well-regarded for its level of detail, assessment features, and challenging review questions and hands-on exercises,Cisco 350-020 helps you master the concepts and techniques that will enable you to succeed on the Cisco 350-020 exam the first time.