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QUESTION 101
Which two synthetic operations need the configuration of the Service Assurance Agent (SAA) Responder on target devices? (Choose all that apply.) A: UDP on port 7 B: DLSw+ C: Enhanced UDP D: TCP Connect on ports greater than 1023 E: Enhanced UTP
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 102
The Certkiller CEO wants to know what the benefits of ACL Manageris. What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A: ACL Manager reduces the need for ACLs
B: ACL Manager eliminates the CLI for managing ACLs
C: ACL Manager optimizes ACLs to improve devices
D:
ACL Manager maintains an ACL only inventory of Cisco devices

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 103
What is the purpose of configuring classes using the Class Manager tool in ACL Manager? (Choose all that apply.) A: It is to group multiple services in a single entry B: It is to group multiple networks in a single entry C: It is to share a single ACL by multiple Use statements D: It is to assign a user-friendly name to Access Control Entries (ACE) E: All of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 104
Which of the following statements regarding “Cisco Works for Windows V6.0” is valid? (Choose all that apply.) A: Cisco Works for Windows V6.0 is very user friendly and requires minimal training.
B: Cisco Works for Windows V6.0 is gratis with a purchase of a router or switch from Cisco.
C: Cisco Works for Windows V6.0 is a web-based interface that permits flexibility and mobility.
D:
Cisco Works for Windows V6.0 is a single tool used to manage a heterogeneous network.

A.

B.

C.

D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 105
Which CiscoWorks for Windows, v6.0 product suite tool makes use of templates to configure RMON setting on Cisco devices? A: CiscoView B: WhatsUp GOld C: Show Commands D: Threshold Manager E: Cisco CallManager
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 106
Which of the following are modules in VPN/Security Management Solution (VMS)? (Choose all that apply.)
A: CD One B: VPN Monitor C: Cisco VPn 3000 Monitor D: Resource Manager Essentials (RME)
E: Cisco Secure Policy Manager (CSPM)
F: Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Director
G:
Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Host Sensor

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 107
Cisco Secure Policy Manager (CSPM) is used to manager which of the following Cisco products? (Choose all that apply.) A: VPN clients B: IOS routers C: PIX firewalls D: VPN 3000 Concentrators
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 108
Certkiller has a site-to-site VPN network. At the Certkiller headquarters there are two Cisco 7100 routers and 20 branch routes (Cisco 2600 and 3600 Series routers) each with dual-homed VPN tunnels to each of headquarters Cisco 7100 routers.
How many devices are there from VPN Monitor’s perspective? A: 2 B: 4 C: 20 D: 22
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 109
Code Red and Nimda viruses can be stopped by using which of the following modules of VPN/Security Management Solution (VMS)? A: CSPM 3.0f B: CSPM 2.3.31 C: VPN Monitor D: IDS Host Sensor
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 110
The newly appointed Certkiller trainee technician wants to know what IDS Host Sensor in VPN/Security Management Solution (VMS) comes with. What will your reply be? A: Management Console only B: Management Console and live agents only C: Management Console and evaluation agents only D: Management Console, one live agent for the console, and evaluation agents E: Live agents and evaluation agents.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 111
What are the primary functions of VolP Health Monitor (VHM)? (Choose all that apply.) A: VHM provides proactive monitoring of voice gateways B: VHM provides proactive monitoring of Cisco CallManagers C: VHM provides proactive monitoring of Cisco-support VoFR links D: VHM provides proactive monitoring of Cisco 4000 and 6000 In-line power switches
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 112
The successful implementation of VoIP Health Monitor (VHM) requires the following Cisco Application: A: Cisco Voice Manager (CVM) B: Cisco Call Manager C: Device Fault Manager (DFM) D: Resource Manager Essentials (RME) E: Internetwork Performance Monitor (IPM)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 113
Which of the following statements regarding VolP Health Monitor (VHM) is valid? (Choose all that apply.)
A: VHM monitors Quality of Service (QoS) on network links used to carry VolP.
B: VHM is capable of monitoring the health of individual IP telephony applications and their hardware platforms.
C: VHM makes use of synthetic traffic to monitor the operational readiness of key IP telephony components.
D:
VHM is responsible for the provision of proactive monitoring for major hardware components of an IP telephony implementation.

A.

B.

C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 114
Which products methods will you advise the Certkiller trainee technician to use to automatically import devices to Cisco Voice Manager (CVM)? A: Device Fault Manager (DFM) B: Resource Manager Essentials (RM) C: a user-prepared seed file D: International Performance Monitor (IPM)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 115
What are the primary functions of QoS Policy Manger (QPM)? (Choose all that apply.)
A:
the monitoring of end-to-end Quality of Service (QoS) policies B: QPM provides end-to-end Quality of Service (QoS) for data C: QPM provides end-to-end Quality of Service (QoS) for VolP D: QPM provides Quality of Service (QoS) on a device-by-device basis

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 116
Whichof the following are used by QoS Policy Manager (QPM) to set Quality of Service (QoS) policy? (Choose all that apply.) A: classification and marketing C: policy-based routing and path selection B: traffic conditioning and link efficiency D: congestion management and congestion avoidance E: all of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 117
Which of the following centralized, multi-device Quality of Service (QoS) functions are supplied by QoS Policy Manager (QPM? (Choose all that apply.) A: monitoring B: maintenance C: configuration D: modification E: policy guidance
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 118
QoS Policy Manager (QPM) IP telephony templates are pre-defined Quality of Service ( QoS) policies that .A: can be modified B: cannot be modified C: work with Cisco routers only D: work with Cisco switches only
A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 119
What is the primary function of User Registration Tool (URT) Administrative Client Interface? A: URT Administrative Client Interface enables client authentication from the desktop B: URT Administrative Client Interface serves as a central collection hub for all events C: URT Administrative Client Interface is used to map users to VLANs D: URT Administrative Client Interface sets a client’s switch port to the appropriate VLAN
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 120
What is the primary function of User Registration Tool (URT) Administrative Server? A: URT Administrative Server is used to map users to VLANs B: URT Administrative Server enables client authentication from the desktop C: URT Administrative Server serves as a central collection hub for all events D: URT Administrative Server sets a client’s switch port to the appropriate VLAN
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 121
Which of the following statements regarding the User Registration Tool (URT) is valid? (Choose all that apply.) A: URT is capable of supporting most UNIX clients.
B: URT is capable of supporting most Windows clients.
C: The Administrative server can manage more than one VPS appliance.
D: Unlimited subnets can be associated per VLAN.
E:
URT is capable of supporting redundant VLAN Policy Servers (VPSs).

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 122
Which protocol will you advise the Certkiller trainee technician to use for administrative access control of Cisco device configuration changes? A: S/NUNE B: RADIUS C: TACACS+ D: DIAMETER
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 123
Which of the following forms part of user AAA? (Choose all that apply.) A: Accounting B: Addressing C: Authorization D: Authentication
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 124
The newly appointed Certkiller trainee technician wants to know what the new features of Cisco Secure ACS v3.02 are. What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.) A: support for Kerberos proxy
B: LDAP accounting
C: SNMP MIB for rate limiting
D: 802 1x support for Catalyst switches
E:
all of the above

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 125
On which of the following is Hosting Solution Engine’s (HSE) security model is based? A: user role B: network domain C: location user logged in from D: network domain and user role E: client and server role
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 126
Which of the following are all included in the Hosting Solution Engine (HSE) customer’s domain? (Choose all that apply.) A: ports B: Virtual private networks C: IP address D: Virtual LANs E: Layer 47 services
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 127
Which of the following statements regarding Hosting Solution Engine (HSE) is valid? (Choose all that apply.) A: HSE is capable of supporting CDP B: HSE is capable of testing back-end services C: HSE can be accessed through a firewall D: HSE is capable of supporting data export in CSV/XML formats.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 128
What is the primary function of Network Analysis Module (NAM) for Catalyst 6500? A: load balancing B: traffic monitoring C: outgoing traffic monitoring only D: intrusion detection D: accelerated switching
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 129
The newly appointed Certkiller trainee technician wants to know what RMON 2 monitoring with the Network Analysis Module (NAM) for Catalyst 6500 provides. What will your reply be? A: It provides visibility into network traffic up to the network layer B: It provides visibility into network traffic up to the data-link layer C: It provides less visibility than RMON 1 into applications D: It provides visibility into network traffic up to the application layer
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 130
What is the primary function of Differentiated Services Monitoring (DSMON)? A: to monitor traffic by application tpe B: to monitor traffic by Quality of Service (QoS) parameters C: to provision Quality of Service (QoS) policies D: to monitor traffic for latency in data and voice services
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 122
LAB
A. The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24 These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable. Correct

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch(config)#vlan 20 switch(config)#vlan 31 switch(config)#int vlan 20 switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#int vlan 31 switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#exit switch#ip routing switch#copy run start
vtp client configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode client switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch#copy run start
Answer: A
QUESTION 123
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Which two statements are true about BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU port-guard can be enabled globally, whereas BPDU filtering must be enabled on a per-interface basis.
B. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to PortFast enabled ports.
C. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to trunking-enabled ports.
D. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU port-guard enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
E. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
F. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the STP blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) protocol is true?
A. The processing of 802.11 data and management protocols and access point capabilities is distributed between a lightweight access point and a centralized WLAN controller.
B. LWAPP aggregates radio management forward information and sends it to a wireless LAN solution engine.
C. LWAPP authenticates all access points in the subnet and establishes a secure communication channel with each of them.
D. LWAPP advertises its WDS capability and participates in electing the best WDS device for the wireless LAN.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?
A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which set of statements describes the correct order and process of a wireless client associating with a wireless access point?
A. 1. Client sends probe request.
2.
Access point sends probe response.

3.
Client initiates association.

4.
Access point accepts association.

5.
Access point adds client MAC address to association table.
B. 1. Client sends probe request.
2.
Access point sends probe response.

3.
Client initiates association.

4.
Access point accepts association.

5.
Client adds access point MAC address to association table.
C. 1. Client sends probe request.
2.
Access point sends probe response.

3.
Access point initiates association.

4.
Client accepts association.

5.
Access point adds client MAC address to association table.
D. 1. Access point sends probe request .
2.
Client sends probe response.

3.
Client initiates association.

4.
Access point accepts association.

5.
Access point adds client MAC address to association table.
E. 1. Access point sends probe request .
2.
Client sends probe response.

3.
Client initiates association.

4.
Access point accepts association.

5.
Client adds access point MAC address to association table.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which two codecs are supported by Cisco VoIP equipment? (Choose two.)
A. G.701 and G.719
B. G.711 and G.729
C. G.721 and G.739
D. G.731 and G.749

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security feature enabled?
A. Port 0/1
B. Ports 0/1 and 0/2
C. Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3
D. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22
E. The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
F. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 29
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30

A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting and beginning with the lowest layer, drag each procedure on the left to its proper category on the right.
Verify URL
Verify NIC operation
Verify IP configuration
Verify Ethernet cable connection

Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 31
Which two topologies are using the correct type of twisted-pair cables? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure that switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose two.)
A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports
B. A switch is a multiport bridge
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network
D. There are four collision domains in the network
E. There are five collision domains in the network
F. There are seven collision domains in the network

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 35
Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)
A. amount of RAM
B. bridge priority
C. IOS version
D. IP address
E. MAC address
F. speed of the links
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 36
What are two characteristics of Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices
C. It is more secure than SSH
D. It requires an enterprise license in order to be implemented
E. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 37

Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to configure the switches and router in the graphic so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2. Which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two.)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 38
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 39
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 40
What are two results of entering the Switch(config)# vtp mode client command on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will ignore VTP summary advertisements
B. The switch will forward VTP summary advertisements
C. The switch will process VTP summary advertisements
D. The switch will originate VTP summary advertisements
E. The switch will create, modify and delete VLANs for the entire VTP domain

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 41

Refer to the exhibit. This command is executed on 2960 Switch:
2960Switch(config)# mac-address-table static 0000.00aa.aaaa vlan10 interface fa0/1
Which two of these statements correctly identify results of executing the command? (Choose two.)

A. Port security is implemented on the fa0/1 interface
B. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa does not need to be learned by this switch
C. Only MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa can source frames on the fa0/1 segment
D. Frames with a Layer 2 source address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1
E. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa will be listed in the MAC address table for interface fa0/1 only

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 42

The network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? (Choose two.)
A. Switch1 (config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
B. Switch1(config)# mac-address-table secure
C. Switch1(config)# access-list 10 permit ip host
D. Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security violation shutdown
E. Switch1(config-if)# ip access-group 10
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 43

Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)
bits
packets
UDP
IP addresses
segments
MAC addresses
windowing
routing
switching

Network Layer
Transport Layer
A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets with the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave RouterB interface Fa0/1 towards RouterA. Drag the correct frame and packet addresses to their place in the table.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 45

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Correct Answer: CF QUESTION 46

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is to send data to Host B How will Router1 handle the data frame received from Host A? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address of Host B.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of HostB.
E. Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 47

Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
A. Interface Address: 192.168.4.7 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916 Type: dynamic
B. Interface Address: 192.168.4.7 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
C. Interface Address: 192.168.6.1 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
D. Interface Address: 192.168.6.1 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916 Type: dynamic
E. Interface Address: 192.168.6.2 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
F. Interface Address: 192.168.6.2 Physical Address: 000f.2485.8918 Type: dynamic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 49
Three different Certkiller routers are connected as shown below:

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 50
What should be done prior to backing up an IOS image to a TFTP server? (Choose three)
A. Make sure that the server can be reached across the network.
B. Check the authentication for TFTP access to the server is set.
C. Assure that the network server has adequate space for the IOS image.
D. Verify file naming and path requirements.
E. Make sure that the server can store binary files.
F. Adjust the TCP window size to speed up the transfer.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 51

Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)
A. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26
D. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 52
Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0/20? (Choose two.)
A. 172.31.17.4/30
B. 172.31.51.16/30
C. 172.31.64.0/18
D. 172.31.80.0/22
E. 172.31.92.0/22
F. 172.31.192.0/18
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 53

The Ethernet networks connect to router Certkiller 1 in the exhibit have been summarized for router Certkiller 2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will Certkiller 2 forward to Certkiller 1, according to this summary? Select two.
A. 192.1.159.2
B. 192.1.160.11
C. 192.1.138.41
D. 192.1.151.254
E. 192.1.143.145
F. 192.1.1.144

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 54

Drag the description on the left to the routing protocol on the right. (Not all options are used.)
Is vendor-specific
Uses cost as its metric
Uses hop count as its metric
Uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm
Elects a DR on each multi-access network
Has a default administrative distance of 90

EIGRP
OSPF

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 55

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56

Refer to the exhibit. The FMJ manufacturing company is concerned about unauthorized access to the Payroll Server. The Accounting1, CEO, Mgr1, and Mgr2 workstations should be the only computers with access to the Payroll Server. What two technologies should be implemented to help prevent unauthorized access to the server? (Choose two.)
A. access lists
B. encrypted router passwords
C. STP
D. VLANs
E. VTP
F. wireless LANs

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 57
An inbound access list has been configured on a serial interface to deny packet entry for TCP and UDP ports 21, 23 and 25. What types of packets will be permitted by this ACL? (Choose three.)
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. SMTP
D. DNS
E. HTTP
F. POP3

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 58
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 59
Which two devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate on similar frequencies? (Choose two.)
A. copier
B. microwave oven
C. toaster
D. cordless phone
E. IP phone
F. AM radio
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 60
What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)
A. ATM
B. IDS
C. IOS
D. IOX
E. IPS
F. SDM
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 61
With regard to bridges and switches, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Switches typically have a higher number of ports than bridges.
E. Bridges define broadcast domain while switches define collision domains.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 62
A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To ensure maximum throughput for the phone data, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is on a different network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which to directly connect the phones and computers, and what technology should be implemented on this device? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. STP
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 63

The network shown in the exhibit is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? Select two.
A. Configure the gateway on Certkiller A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Certkiller B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Certkiller A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Certkiller B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to Switch A. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about InterVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 66
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network
B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network
C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network
D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address
192.168.2.4
E. It uses the default administrative distance
F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 68

Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a 192.168. 176.0/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to R2? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.194.160
B. 192.168.183.41
C. 192.168.159.2
D. 192.168.183.255
E. 192.168.179.4
F. 192.168.184.45

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 69
What are two characteristics of the OSPF process identifier? (Select two answer choices)
A. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
B. It is an optional parameter only necessary if multiple OSPF processes are used.
C. It is locally significant.
D. It is globally insignificant
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID to exchange routing information.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 70

What are possible causes for the status of this interface? Select three.
A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 71
Which three Layer 2 encapsulation types would be used on a WAN rather than a LAN? (Choose three.)
A. HDLC
B. Ethernet
C. Token Ring
D. PPP
E. FDDI
F. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 72
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 73
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet.
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet.
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISP by an Internet registry organization

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 74
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS)
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS)
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
The Certkiller WAN is displayed in the diagram below:

Based on the information shown above, which routing protocols can be used within the Certkiller network show in the diagram? (Choose three).
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 76
The Certkiller network consists of a router, switch, and hub as shown below:

In accordance with the above diagram; which of the statements below correctly describe the switch port configuration and the router port configuration? (Select three answer choices)
A. The Certkiller 1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port.
B. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces.
C. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps.
D. The Switch1 port connected to Certkiller 1 is configured as a trunking port.
E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port.
F. The switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex.

Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 1
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, what triggers an incident?
A. whenever a severity 3 incident is closed
B. when the problem is identified as urgent
C. when a problem is discovered during a change window
D. when an outage is called into a service center

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, what is the primary reason for implementing SLAs?
A. Ensure accurate measurement of response times.
B. Establish an open line of communication between the customer and the service provider
C. Reduce network latency.
D. Provide a legal contract between the customer and the service provider.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Each syslog message has a numerical severity level assigned to generate error messages about software or hardware malfunctions. Which of these messages has the highest numeric severity level?
A. Error
B. Emergency
C. Debug
D. Critical
E. Alert

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which three of these methods can you use to back up a configuration running Cisco IOS Software Release
12.2 Mainline? (Choose three)
A. SNMP
B. SFTP
C. TFTP
D. KRON
E. SSH

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 5
A router is causing problems in the network and you want to capture as much information as you can before you manually reload or power-cycle the router. What command would you type at the CLI of the router to capture information that would be lost when the router is rebooted?
A. show crashinfo
B. show syslog
C. show tech-support
D. show stacks
E. show memory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which three steps are best practices in accurately documenting a network? (Choose three).
A. Document separate Layer 2 and Layer 3 topologies.
B. Document Layer 3 topology to include all switches and routers.
C. Clearly document the port identifiers on all of the links.
D. Clearly depict different routing domains with appropriate information such as the routing protocol and process number.
E. Avoid defining router-id commands and loopbacks in the router label.
F. Use connectivity details of all layers of the OSI model in diagrams.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 7
Which three steps would you use to troubleshoot a performance-related problem in the network core? (Choose three.)
A. define problem
B. analyze problem
C. determine affected users
D. create action plan
E. verify service-level requirements

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 8
Which two steps are best practices to be followed while documenting a network. (Choose two.)
A. Use proper icons for different devices in the network.
B. Use different colors and widths for denoting different links of different bandwidth.
C. Use same icons for all types of routers and switches in the network.
D. Avoid defining the router-id in the router label.
E. Use connectivity details of all layers of the OSI model in diagrams.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
What is the advantage of using a passive monitoring technique?
A. does not require continuous measurement of traffic types
B. measures application-specific parameters per traffic classes
C. identifies issues and bottlenecks before they occur
D. no interference with live traffic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The command below was executed on a Cisco 12000 Series Router running Cisco IOS XR. Which statement is true about the output of the command?
A. 71.44.1.66 is an IP address local to the router.
B. OSPF is not running on this router.
C. There are no static routes in the routing table.
D. The last route entry for Loopback causes routing loops

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, after an incident is resolved and the root cause identified, what should be the next step?
A. Enter the problem in the problem management system and close the ticket.
B. Use functional escalation to escalate root cause analysis.
C. Update the closure categorization for the incident.
D. Record the root cause analysis in the known error database to identify and resolve potential incidents.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
While looking at a Cisco CRS syslog, you see this message:
%ROUTING-FIB-1-FIBTBLINIT
Based on the message alone, should you consider it a high-priority message?

A. Yes, because router syslog messages require immediate action.
B. Yes, because the severity of the syslog message requires immediate action.
C. No, because router syslog messages are informational only.
D. No, because the severity of the syslog message is informational only.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, how does problem management contribute to network availability?
A. by maintaining optimal levels of service quality
B. by developing and documenting workarounds to known problems
C. by providing inputs for calculating SLA penalties
D. by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14

Refer to the Gigabit Ethernet link in the exhibit. Which of the following IP address schemes would allow for IP reachability across this link?
A. Router A with IP 10.1.1.0/31 to Router B with IP 10.1.1.1/31
B. Router A with IP 10.1.1.1/31 to Router B with IP 10.1.1.2/31
C. Router A with IP 10.1.1.7/30 to Router B with IP 10.1.1.8/30
D. Router A with IP 10.1.1.255/31 to Router B with IP 10.1.1.253/31

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which one of these items is used to define key elements for successfully building obtainable service levels?
A. critical success factors
B. key performance indicators
C. key quality indicators
D. metrics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
What action should you take if the NMS is receiving temperature alarms from a router?
A. Check the fan tray to ensure that all of the fans are functioning properly.
B. Check the line card to ensure that it is not generating excessive heat.
C. Check the interfaces to ensure that they are not generating excessive heat.
D. Check the grounding wire to ensure that it is attached properly.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, what five characteristics can you use to identify effective KPIs? (Choose five.)
A. specific
B. agreed
C. realistic
D. budget-based
E. heuristic
F. time-based
G. measurable
H. Boolean

Correct Answer: ABCFG
QUESTION 18
Which one of the following statements is true for syslog messages?
A. A syslog packet is limited to 1024 bytes.
B. Syslog messages use UDP port 520.
C. At the application layer, syslog sends acknowledgments.
D. Syslog is a peer-to-peer protocol.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
You are responsible for monitoring the IP network. You have noticed since the beginning of your shift that a particular interface on a network switch has been flapping, and it has finally gone down. You open an incident ticket. According to the ITIL. v3 framework, what should you do to determine if it is a recurring issue?
A. Use Telnet to connect to the device and troubleshoot.
B. Ping the device to verify connectivity.
C. Perform a search of the known-error database.
D. Clear the alarm from the event system to see if it recurs.
E. Clear the interface counters and see if additional errors are incurred
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20

Which of these items enables an agent to notify the management station of significant events by sending an unsolicited message?
A. syslog message
B. SNMP trap
C. managed object code
D. RMON notification

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
When connecting to the console port, you see this message:
%SYS-2-MALLOCFAIL: Memory allocation of 1028 bytes failed from 0x6015EC84, Pool Processor,
alignment 0
What two situations could cause this message? (Choose two.)

A. The router does not have the minimum amount of I/O memory to support certain interface processors.
B. The memory has fragmented into such small pieces that the router cannot find a usable available block.
C. The router has temporarily or permanently used all available memory.
D. The router ran out of “fast” memory, and will use its main DRAM instead.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 22
An outage occurs in location “A” due to a router crash. This is not the first time that the router has had this problem. In fact, it crashed three times within the past 20 days. According to the ITIL. v3 framework, what type of record should be created to resolve this issue?
A. incident ticket
B. change ticket
C. service ticket
D. problem ticket

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
In troubleshooting a network incident, you found that the incident is the result of a known error. According to the ITIL. v3 framework, which of the following is an appropriate way to resolve the issue?
A. Understand the business case and get approval.
B. Fix the incident and open a request for change immediately.
C. Update the incident report with closure categorization.
D. Test it in the development environment.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, how would you prioritize an incident ticket?
A. based on the impact and urgency
B. based on the impact of the incident
C. based on customer urgency
D. based on the business unit Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of these Microsoft Windows commands will allow you to look up the hostname for a given IP address?
A. ping -a 10.1.1.1
B. netstat -ano
C. tracert
D. net start \\10.1.1.1
E. ipconfig -i 10.1.1.1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, what are two possible benefits of generating a detailed root cause analysis using chronological timelines? (Choose two.)
A. helps to identify the number of problems opened
B. identifies process deficiencies and breakdowns
C. identifies staffing, skills, and expertise
D. identifies SLA risk fulfillment

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 27
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, when an issue is reported to a service desk, which system is it recorded in?
A. incident management system
B. problem management system
C. availability management system
D. change management system
E. performance management system

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
A customer calls complaining about the level of service being received. The customer produces a log showing service-level measurements that were collected over the past week. Which three questions should be asked at a minimum in order to assess the validity of the claim? (Choose three.)
A. Who took the measurements?
B. How were the measurements taken?
C. Why were the measurements taken?
D. Are the measurements statistically relevant?
E. What were the measurements taken?
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 29
What does the log message “%IPNAT-6-DELETED:” indicate?
A. A Network Address Translation has been lost, requiring immediate action.
B. An unauthorized user possibly attempted to gain access.
C. The message is for information only and requires no further action.
D. A port on the device has been administratively shut down, requiring no further action
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30

Refer to the exhibit. The following is a shell script for a UNIX-based server. Which three of these files on the UNIX server will be updated or created when this script is executed? (Choose three.)
A. /etc/hostname.hme0
B. /etc/hosts
C. /etc/hostname.hme0:1
D. /etc/netmasks
E. /10.1.0.$LAST_IP_OCT
F. /etc/loghost

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 31
According to best practices, what are three reasons for escalating a ticket? (Choose three.)
A. immediate escalation based on severity
B. when automated escalation does not occur within prescribed time frame
C. management escalation due to business reasons
D. customer escalation because customer feels that they are very important
E. sales team escalation based on potential for future business

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 32
According to the ITIL. v3 framework, what is the nature of the method used to escalate an issue that is very serious in nature or an issue that could potentially require an excessive amount of time to resolve?
A. both hierarchical and functional
B. both conceptual and procedural
C. both hierarchical and procedural
D. both conceptual and functional
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
How often should device configurations be backed up? (Choose two.)
A. at predetermined intervals
B. at intervals specified in the SLA
C. at daily intervals
D. when disk space is full
E. when a configuration change is detected

Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 34
The command logging trap informational instructs a device to perform which of these actions?
A. Log only messages with a severity of 0-6.
B. Send syslog messages as traps.
C. Send informational-only SNMP traps.
D. Log all messages to the destination server.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
A “device unreachable” event has been detected by the NMS. The NMS has also performed automated routines and determined that no interfaces are reachable (routed or directly connected).
The last few log entries stored on the logging server for this device are as follows:

What is the most probable cause of the outage?
A. The device overheated, causing a system shutdown.
B. An unauthorized change was made, which caused the outage.
C. Routing flaps are causing the device to become unreachable.
D. An OSPF dead timer has caused the device to lose its adjacency.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What tool generates synthetic traffic to measure network performance?
A. RMON
B. IP SLA
C. SNMP
D. NetFlow

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
What is an incremental backup?
A. a backup of all files that have changed since the last full backup
B. a complete backup of all files on a particular partition
C. a backup of all files at set increments of time

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QUESTION 81
According to the [email protected] framework, what is the primary reason for implementing SLAs?
A. Ensure accurate measurement of response times.
B. Establish an open line of communication between the customer and the service provider
C. Reduce network latency.
D. Provide a legal contract between the customer and the service provider.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Each syslog message has a numerical severity level assigned to generate error messages about software or hardware malfunctions. Which of these messages has the highest numeric severity level?
A. Error
B. Emergency
C. Debug
D. Critical
E. Alert
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
Which three of these methods can you use to back up a configuration running Cisco IOS Software Release
12.2 Mainline? (Choose three)
A. SNMP
B. SFTP
C. TFTP
D. KRON
E. SSH

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 84
A router is causing problems in the network and you want to capture as much information as you can before you manually reload or power-cycle the router. What command would you type at the CLI of the router to capture information that would be lost when the router is rebooted?
A. show crashinfo
B. show syslog
C. show tech-support
D. show stacks
E. show memory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which three steps are best practices in accurately documenting a network? (Choose three).
A. Document separate Layer 2 and Layer 3 topologies.
B. Document Layer 3 topology to include all switches and routers.
C. Clearly document the port identifiers on all of the links.
D. Clearly depict different routing domains with appropriate information such as the routing protocol and process number.
E. Avoid defining router-id commands and loopbacks in the router label.
F. Use connectivity details of all layers of the OSI model in diagrams.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 86
Which three steps would you use to troubleshoot a performance-related problem in the network core? (Choose three.)
A. define problem
B. analyze problem
C. determine affected users
D. create action plan
E. verify service-level requirements
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 87
Which two steps are best practices to be followed while documenting a network. (Choose two.)
A. Use proper icons for different devices in the network.
B. Use different colors and widths for denoting different links of different bandwidth.
C. Use same icons for all types of routers and switches in the network.
D. Avoid defining the router-id in the router label.
E. Use connectivity details of all layers of the OSI model in diagrams.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 88
The command below was executed on a Cisco 12000 Series Router running Cisco IOS XR. Which statement is true about the output of the command?

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 26 Cisco 640-760 Exam
A. 71.44.1.66 is an IP address local to the router.
B. OSPF is not running on this router.
C. There are no static routes in the routing table.
D. The last route entry for Loopback causes routing loops

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 89
What is the advantage of using a passive monitoring technique?
A. does not require continuous measurement of traffic types
B. measures application-specific parameters per traffic classes
C. identifies issues and bottlenecks before they occur
D. no interference with live traffic

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
According to the [email protected] framework, after an incident is resolved and the root cause identified, what should be the next step?
A. Enter the problem in the problem management system and close the ticket.
B. Use functional escalation to escalate root cause analysis.
C. Update the closure categorization for the incident.
D. Record the root cause analysis in the known error database to identify and resolve potential incidents.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
What are two differences between using FTP or TFTP to copy files? (Choose two.)
A. FTP uses a reliable transport protocol and TFTP uses an unreliable transport protocol.
B. TFTP uses a reliable transport protocol and FTP uses an unreliable transport protocol.
C. FTP requires a username and password.
D. TFTP requires a username and password.
E. FTP transfers are encrypted by default.
F. FTP uses a single port for control and data transfer while TFTP uses a different port for control and data transfer

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 92
You are a Tier I NOC staff working on a severity 1 issue. The escalation timeline is defined as 60 minutes. After 55 minutes, you think you are close to resolving the issue. What would you do in this situation?
A. Continue to work and resolve the issue, even after 60 minutes has passed.
B. Call your manager and report your progress.
C. Escalate to Tier II support staff. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 27 Cisco 640-760 Exam
D. Call the user and let them know that you will resolve the issue in 10 minutes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
Which one of the following features will allow the severity of a syslog message to be altered prior to leaving a Cisco IOS device?
A. EEM/ESM
B. NetFlow
C. IP SLA
D. SNMP
E. debug

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
According to the [email protected] framework, the problem management process can deal with which two types of issues? (Choose two.)
A. current outages
B. prevention of future outages
C. mitigating outage severity
D. reclamation of IP addresses
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 95
A robust trouble ticketing system includes which of these critical components?
A. requires separate passwords to maintain separation of duties
B. integrated with financial management systems; unique reference numbers; and urgency, priority, and callback methods
C. unique reference numbers, urgency, device serial numbers
D. integrated with both asset and event management systems, unique reference numbers, and priority and closure categories

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 96
What three things can a network change MOP be used for? (Choose three.)
A. configuration change
B. summarizing SNMP-based performance statistics
C. troubleshooting customer-reported issues
D. software image upgrade
E. installing new hardware
F. escalating connectivity issues “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 28 Cisco 640-760 Exam

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 97
The NMS has missed three of the last five polls to a device. If your choices are limited to the options below, how would you proceed with troubleshooting?
A. Verify that information from the NMS is accurate.
B. Reboot the device.
C. Verify that no changes have been made recently on the device.
D. Upgrade the device to the latest software release.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 98
What is the purpose of a rollback procedure in a method of procedure?
A. to provide verification steps when the procedure has completed
B. to provide an alternative procedure for completing a migration
C. to provide the NOC with a standard template for resolving customer issues
D. to revert back all changes made during the procedure
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 99
Which of these items would not be tracked in the Inventory Manager?
A. SLAs
B. line cards
C. serial numbers
D. IP address
E. owner
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
Which statement is true about the script below?

A. This is a C shell UNIX script.
B. When executing the echo command, the script will always look for the command in the directory “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 29 Cisco 640-760 Exam from which it is run.
C. When executing the echo command, the script will always look for the command in /usr/bin before looking in the directory from which the script was run.
D. The variable HOSTNAME will be set to hostname.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
According to the [email protected] framework, which of these factors should trigger the creation of a problem record?
A. recurring incidents
B. user acceptance testing
C. changes to the network
D. resolution of a ticket

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
Which section of the network change method of procedure will contain instructions to reverse the network change?
A. Implementation
B. Backout/Rollback
C. Verification
D. Testing

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
The following is the beginning of a shell script. Which statement is true if the user issues “./send_traps.sh 10.1.1.1” at the CLI without the quotes?

A. The script will fail because only one variable is specified by the user at the CLI.
B. The trapgenScripts variable will be set to /opt/MWFM_Automation/trapgen_scripts/10.1.1.1.
C. The trapgenScripts variable will not be set.
D. The simulation_IP variable will be set to 10.1.1.1.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
A parameter in an SLA must meet which three criteria? (Choose three.)
A. quality
B. significance
C. measurability
D. reliability
E. relevance

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 105
The Cisco IOS command, logging buffered 65536, performs which one of these tasks?
A. provides a memory buffer for spooling messages to remote syslog daemons
B. instructs the device to limit UDP messages to 64 KB
C. indicates the number of log messages kept for viewing during a show logging command on the console
D. provides flash-based buffering of messages when no receiver is available

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
According to the [email protected] framework, what is considered a problem management task?
A. proactive review of syslog summary report
B. performance of changes needed to remove a known error
C. restoration of service
D. closing of the incident tickets
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
In inventory management, what is the primary responsibility of a “master poller”?
A. to obtain device lists from child pollers
B. to provide a source for NTP queries
C. to provide authoritative information for all other managers
D. to provide device serial numbers to other managers
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
Why do SNMP counters often show different numbers than Cisco IOS CLI show commands?
A. The counter output from a CLI show command cannot be reset on interfaces.
B. SNMP counters use SNMPv3 values, whereas CLI show commands use SNMPv2 values
C. SNMP uses 64-bit counters, whereas CLI show commands use 32-bit counters. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 31 Cisco 640-760 Exam
D. The only way to reset the SNMP counters is to reload the box.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
Cisco routers provide numerous integrated commands to assist you in monitoring and troubleshooting your internetwork. Which of these actions describes the debug set of commands?
A. monitors normal network behavior and isolates problem areas
B. provides a method of determining the route by which packets reach their destination from one device to another
C. helps determine connectivity between devices on the network
D. assists in the isolation of protocol and configuration problems

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
A network alarm is reported. What is the first task that you should perform?
A. Verify that the event actually occurred to eliminate any false-positives.
B. Open a trouble ticket and begin troubleshooting the outage.
C. Verify that there were no changes made to the device recently.
D. Wait for another event to occur to verify the alarm.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 111
Which two of these actions can you take to determine performance degradation on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
A. Poll the IfInOctects and IfOutOctects objects.
B. Enable debug on the device.
C. Ping the affected device.
D. Check your Incident Manager for events from this device.
E. Perform a show interface command on the affected device.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 112
What is the default syslog facility used to display log messages for a Cisco switch running Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2.18(SXF)?
A. kernel
B. system daemons
C. network news subsystem
D. Local7
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco 7200 Series Router is directly connected to a Cisco Catalyst 3560 Series Switch over a Gigabit Ethernet link. It takes an average of 50 seconds after bringing up both ends of the link for data traffic to flow across the link. Which of the following would allow the link to forward data traffic within a few seconds after bringing up both ends of the link?

A. On the switch, enable PortFast.
B. On the router, disable ARP on the interface.
C. On both the router and the switch, set the interface duplex to half.
D. On both the router and the switch, manually configure the MAC addresses.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
While at the CLI on a Cisco ASR 9000 Series router, you notice the following message appear on your
screen:
2w6d: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by cisco on vty0 (10.10.20.100)
Which statement is true about this message?

A. User cisco logged into the router via the console port and made a configuration change.
B. User cisco used Telnet to connect to IP 10.10.20.100 and made a configuration change.
C. This is a Warning-level syslog. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 33 Cisco 640-760 Exam
D. The router has been up for 20 days.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 115
You need to monitor a connection between two PE routers for packet jitter and delay. Which tool enables this type of monitoring on a Cisco 7600 Series Router?
A. IP SLA
B. multicast
C. syslog
D. SNMP
E. NetFlow
F. RMON

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 116
A performance manager is no longer able to poll a single device. Which two of the following might be causes? (Choose two.)
A. An access list is denying access.
B. The device has been removed from inventory.
C. The device is down.
D. The vty password has been changed.
E. The default gateway on the performance management server has been altered.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 117
Which verification step would help in troubleshooting a large number of CRC errors observed on an interface?
A. Verify that the physical link connected to the interface is not defective.
B. Verify that encapsulation type on the interface matches on both ends of the link.
C. Verify that the interface is in shutdown and cannot receive data.
D. Verify that the clock rate on the interface does not match the other end of the link.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
Why is it a best practice to have occasional operational readiness tests to access backed up files?
A. to ensure that a fire or other disaster does not affect data
B. to verify that your backup process is working correctly
C. to reduce the amount of space required for each backup
D. to prevent accidental file deletion and disk failures

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
What are two protocols that you can use to copy configurations from a Cisco ASR 9000 Series router? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP
B. FTP
C. TFTP
D. HSRP
E. NetFlow
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 120
Which two statements about the UNIX script are true? (Choose two.)
#!/bin/sh tc=1 while [ $tc -le 10 ] do #/opt/trapSender -e 1.3.6.1.6.3.1.1.5.1 -s 1 -g 1 -i 10.1.1.1 -D 10.1.1.5 -n 10 tc=`expr $tc + 1` echo “tc:$tc\n”; sleep 1 done
A. This is a Perl script.
B. The command /opt/trapSender will execute 10 times.
C. Within the while loop, the script will pause and wait for one second.
D. Within the while loop, the script will pause and wait for one minute.
E. The last number to be printed to the screen when running this script is 11.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 121
According to the [email protected] framework, which three statements are true with regard to effective problem management? (Choose three.)
A. The goal of problem management is similar to the goal of incident management.
B. Resources dedicated to problem management are more effective than resources dedicated solely to managing incidents.
C. A problem ticket can be opened as a result of a single incident ticket.
D. It is desirable to align incident and problem management categories.
E. Like incident management, problem management is reactive in nature.
F. All incidents ultimately require a problem ticket for final closure.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 122
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 35 Cisco 640-760 Exam
According to the [email protected] framework, what information is typically reported in an NOC incident report?
A. incident number, priority, incident start time, SLA, incident status
B. problem number, number of successful changes
C. major incident review
D. network performance and capacity metrics
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 123
In inventory management, what is the primary responsibility of a “master poller”?
A. to obtain device lists from child pollers
B. to provide a source for NTP queries
C. to provide authoritative information for all other managers
D. to provide device serial numbers to other managers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
Which one of these items is used to define key elements for successfully building obtainable service levels?
A. critical success factors
B. key performance indicators
C. key quality indicators
D. metrics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 125
According to the [email protected] framework, what are two possible benefits of generating a detailed root cause analysis using chronological timelines? (Choose two.)
A. helps to identify the number of problems opened
B. identifies process deficiencies and breakdowns
C. identifies staffing, skills, and expertise
D. identifies SLA risk fulfillment
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 79
Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two.)
A. a bridge
B. a router
C. a hub
D. a Layer 3 switch
E. an access point

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 80
What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?
A. drops the frame
B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. sends a message to the router requesting the address
D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)?
A. 4, 48
B. 48, 4
C. 48, 1
D. 1, 48
E. 4, 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.
After the power-on-self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch?

A. The POST was successful.
B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded.
D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.)

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 85
Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)
A. It uses broadcast for its routing updates.
B. It supports authentication.
C. It is a classless routing protocol.
D. It has a lower default administrative distance then RIP version 1.
E. It has the same maximum hop count as RIP version 1.
F. It does not send the subnet mask any updates.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 86
To what type of port would a cable with a DB-60 connector attach?
A. Serial port
B. Console port
C. Ethernet port
D. Fibre optic port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30
E. 192.169.42.34
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit.
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit.
Why did the device return this message?

A. The command requires additional options or parameters
B. There is no show command that starts with ru.
C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Chose three)
A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured
B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535
C. Area 0 is called the backbone area
D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas
E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 93
Part of the OSPF network is shown below:

Configuration exhibit:
R1 routing commands:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0 router ospf 1 network 172.16.100.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 172.16.100.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 172.16.100.128 0.0.0.31 area 0 default-information originate
You work as a network technician, study the exhibits carefully. Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The network directly connected to a router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0,
172.16.100.28 and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three)
A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 96

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three)
A. FastEthernet0/0
B. FastEthernet0/1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 97
When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 98
Refer to the exhibit.
The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, FastEthernet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, FastEthernet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, FastEthernet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, FastEthernet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, Serial1/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#router ospf 1
B. Router(config)#router ospf 0
C. Router(config)#router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
F. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 100
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU
B. Bandwidth
C. Bandwidth and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 101
Refer to the exhibit.
Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core-Router?
A. Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network.
B. The router at 208.149.23.130 is a secondary DR in case the primary fails.
C. Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election
D. The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 16
B. 2
C. Unlimited

D. 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a multiaccess network?
A. 10
B. 40
C. 30
D. 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit.
The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 105
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?
A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
B. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
C. ipv6 autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet

D. RMON
E. SSH
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 107
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 109
A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command is shown.
router#show interfaces Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down
At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 111
What is the purpose of the switchport command?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 0018.DE8B.4BF8
A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is being configured.
B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only be sent to the port that is being configured.
C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or destination MAC of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.
D. The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 114
Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.
B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface.
C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available.
D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 116
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a cisco router?
A. ipv6 host
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 local
D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2000::
D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
E. 2002:c0a8:101::42
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 119
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 120
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
A. The process id is configured improperly.
B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
D. The network number is configured improperly.
E. The AS is configured improperly.
F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 121
Which statement is true?
A. An IPv6 address is 64 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.
B. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.
C. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.
D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (choose two.)

A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 123
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations.
A ping from Host1 to Host 2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host 1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit.
Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?

A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit.
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?

A. 1 – Ethernet Crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – Fiber Optic cable 4 – Rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – Serial cable 4 – Rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – Serial cable 4 – Null-modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet Crossover cable 3 – Serial cable 4 – Rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet Crossover cable 3 – Serial cable 4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 126
Which of the following are types of flow control? (choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 127
If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2046
C. 4094
D. 4096
E. 8190
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit.
Why was this message received?
A. No VTY password has been set.
B. No enable password has been set.
C. No console password has been set.
D. No enable secret password has been set.
E. The login command has not been set on CON 0
F. The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit.
How many collision domains are shown?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. six
F. twelve

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
Refer to the exhibit.
After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?

A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 131
What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?
A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses
B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet
C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. A loopback is not set.
B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 133
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.
B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 134
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 135
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 136
From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network?
A. DoS
B. DDoS
C. spoofing
D. SYN floods
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 137
Refer to the exhibit.
A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the NAT configuration to the proper interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside
B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside
C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside
D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside
E. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside source pool 200.2.2.18 255.255.255.252
F. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside source 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 138
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands?
Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224 Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. 24
F. 32
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 139
Read the scenario and sort the the appropriate commands in order to configure the router.
On the real simulation during the exam you will be required to type the actual commands in order to
configure the router.
Build List and Reorder: Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 81
Host A needs to communicate with the email server shown in the graphic.
What address will be placed in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the MAC address of E0 of the router
D. the MAC address of E1 of the router
E. the MAC address of Switch 2
F. the MAC address of the email server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 82
Which encryption type does WPA2 use?
A. AES-CCMP
B. PPK via IV
C. PSK
D. TKIP/MIC

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?

A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2.
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0.
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240.
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 85
Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30
E. 192.169.42.34

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
A network administrator has subnetted the 172.16.0.0 network using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. A duplicate IP address of 172.16.2.120 has accidentally been configured on a workstation in the network. The technician must assign this workstation a new IP address within that same subnetwork. Which address should be assigned to the workstation?
A. 172.16.1.80
B. 172.16.2.80
C. 172.16.1.64
D. 172.16.2.64
E. 172.16.2.127
F. 172.16.2.128

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this situation?

A. Verify that the DNS server address is correct in the DHCP pool.
B. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache.
C. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is located.
D. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts.
E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
By which prompt is the global configuration mode on a Cisco router identified?
A. Router>
B. Router#
C. Router(config)#
D. Router(config-if)#
E. Router(config-line)#
F. Router(config-router)#

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 93
What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?
A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses
B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet
C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. Host A has established a communication session with host B for the first time. What enabled R1 to forward this traffic in the appropriate direction to reach the nework to which host B is attached?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. TCP/IP
D. a Layer 4 protocol
E. a routing protocol
F. a default gateway

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 96
What are two effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before
forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two.)
A. increase in switch operating speed
B. increased latency
C. filtering of all frame errors
D. filtering of collision fragments only
E. propagation of corrupted or damaged frames
F. decreased latency

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 97
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 98
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 99
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 100
LAB A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 101
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. What value should be displayed in Box 1 of the ipconfig output of host A?

A. 172.18.14.5
B. 172.18.14.6
C. 192.168.1.10
D. 192.168.1.11
E. 192.168.1.250
F. 192.168.1.254

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 103
Which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the operational state of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface?

A. The interface is generating protocol errors.
B. The interface has failed because of a media error.
C. The interface is operational and currently handling traffic.
D. The interface requires a no shutdown command to be issued.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
What is the purpose of flow control?
A. to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B. to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C. to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D. to regulate the size of each segment

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. A loopback is not set.
B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 108
The router console screen is rapidly displaying line after line of output similar to what is shown in the exhibit. The help desk has called to say that users are reporting a slowdown in the network. What will solve this problem while not interrupting network operation?

A. Save the configuration and reboot the router.
B. Press the CTRL+C keys.
C. Enter the no debug all command.
D. Use the show processes command.
E. Enter the terminal monitor command.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?

A. RTA(config)#no cdp run
B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
What is the result of adding this command to a router that is already configured for dynamic routing? ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
A. It configures the router as a firewall, blocking all packets from IP address 192.168.1.2.
B. It configures the router to block routing updates from being sent to IP address 192.168.1.2.
C. It configures the router to drop all packets for which the destination network is unknown.
D. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2.
E. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2 if the packets match no other entry in the routing table.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 111
Refer to the graphic. A Cisco router and a Catalyst switch are connected as shown. The technician is working on a computer that is connected to the management console of the switch. In order to configure the default gateway for the switch, the technician needs to learn the IP address of the attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of Layer 3 connectivity?

A. ping router_ip_address
B. ping switch_ip_address
C. show ip rarp
D. show cdp neighbors detail
E. show ip neighbors
F. show dhcp-config

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
Which of the following commands will configure a default route to any destination network not found in the routing table?
A. Router(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
C. Router(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
D. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
E. Router(config)# ip route any any e0
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 11
Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.)
A. router#show version
B. router#show ip interface
C. router#show protocols
D. router#show controllers
E. router#show running-config
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 12
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. Router# show interfaces
B. Router# show ip protocols
C. Router# debug interface
D. Router# show ip interface brief
E. Router# show start
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19
B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0
D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0
F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?

A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: B

IP Services QUESTION 1
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?
A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 5
In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify?
A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation.
B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted.
C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.
D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router running PAT?
A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.
B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection.
C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table.
D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the connection.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what?
A. local
B. inside
C. global
D. outside

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue Correct Answer: C

Network Device Security
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then saved the configuration. From a console connection, what password or password sequence is required for the administrator to access privileged mode on Router1?

A. cisco
B. sanfran
C. sanjose
D. either cisco or sanfran
E. either cisco or sanjose
F. sanjose and sanfran
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
The following commands are entered on the router:
Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress Burbank(config)# line con 0 Burbank(config-line)# login Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n Burbank(config-line)# exit Burbank(config)# service password-encryption
What is the purpose of the last command entered?
A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process
B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files
C. to encrypt the enable secret password
D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this?
A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.
B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.
D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)
A. Enable port security.
B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D. Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 7
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.
C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.

Correct Answer: B Troubleshooting
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem?

A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.
B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?

A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space.
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 192.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?

A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem?

A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent?

A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.
B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.
C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.
D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.
E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8

Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is used? (Choose two.)
A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. the virtual terminal lines have a weak password configured
D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used
E. configuration supports un-secure web server access
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA. (Choose three.)
A. privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement
D. both the username and password are weak
E. telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch
F. cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10

Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)
A. at least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed
D. console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity
E. since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11

Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1?
A. 192.168.8.15
B. 192.168.8.31
C. 192.168.8.63
D. 192.168.8.127
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1?
A. 16 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 64 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
E. 512 Kbit/sec
F. 1544 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Including the address on the Routed Ethernet interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN to which Routed is connected?
A. 6
B. 30
C. 62

D. 126
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
The hosts in the LAN are not able to connect to the Internet. Which commands will correct this issue?
A. Router1(conf)#interface fa0/0 Router1(conf-if)#no shutdown
B. Router1(conf)#interface fa0/1 Router1(conf-if)#no shutdown
C. Router1(conf)#interface s0/0 Router1(conf-if)#no shutdown
D. Router1(conf)#interface s0/1 Router1(conf-if)#no shutdown
E. Router1(conf)#interface s0/0 Router1(conf-if)#ip address 10.11.12.13 255.255.255.252
F. Router1(conf)#interface s0/1 Router1(conf-if)#ip address 10.100.1.1 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 51
The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme best defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?
A. 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
B. 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
C. 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
D. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
E. 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group address that is used by RIPng as the destination address for RIP updates?FF02::6
A. FF02::6
B. FF02::9
C. FF05::101
D. FF02::A

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
A. show cdp neigbors
B. show session
C. show users
D. show vty logins
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?
A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
In which integration method is an IPv6 packet encapsulated within an IPv4 protocol?
A. dual-stack
B. proxy
C. dot1q
D. tunneling

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Select the action that results from executing these commands.
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Two switches are connected through a trunk link. Which two commands show that there is a native VLAN mismatch on that link? (Choose two.)
A. show vlan brief
B. show interface trunk
C. show interface vlan
D. show interface switchport
E. show interface interface
F. show switchport trunk

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 60
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted.
Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption access-listl permit 192.168.1.0.0.0.0.255 line vty0 4 login password cisco access-class 1
B. enable password secret line vty0 login password cisco
C. service password-encryption line vty0 login password cisco
D. service password-encryption line vty0 4 login password cisco

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Unauthorized users have used Telnet to gain access to a company router. The network administrator wants to configure and apply an access list to allow Telnet access to the router, but only from the network administrator’s computer. Which group of commands would be the best choice to allow only the IP address
172.16.3.3 to have Telnet access to the router?
A. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
B. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 access-class 3 in
C. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
D. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 ip access-group 3 in

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, are the best for accomplishing this task? (Choose two.)
A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: AC Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose three.)
A. VTP works at Layer 3 of the OSI model and requires that a management VLAN IP address be configured.
B. When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies.
C. When properly configured, VTP maintains VLAN configuration consistency and accelerates trunk link negotiation.
D. Each broadcast domain on a switch can have its own unique VTP domain.
E. VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links.
F. To configure a switch to be part of two VTP domains, each domain must have its own passwords.
G. Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP modes.
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.
B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface.
C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available.
D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?
A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which command can be used from a router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
An access list has been designed to prevent Telnet traffic from the Graphics Department from reaching the HR server attached to the Eastfield router but allow Telnet traffic to other destinations. Given the following access list:
access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq 23 permit ip any any
On which router, interface, and in what direction should the access list be placed to most efficiently implement this list? (Choose three.)
A. Westfield
B. Eastfield
C. e0
D. s0
E. in
F. out
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)
A. They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
B. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
C. They are always present in the NAT table.
D. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13
A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Employ a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incompatible with other host connectors.
C. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port Fa0/1.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
E. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than that of the server.
F. Configure an access list on the switch to deny server traffic from entering any port other than Fa0/1.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 14
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 15
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The ROUTE company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. What is the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?
A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2000::
D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
E. 2002:c0a8:101::42
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 20
A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for this issue?
A. VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router.
B. This address is a network address.
C. This address is a broadcast address
D. The Ethernet interface is faulty.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/26
B. 10.188.31.0/25
C. 10.188.31.0/28
D. 10.188.31.0/27
E. 10.188.31.0/29
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which IPv6 address is valid?
A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 25
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Each router has its own view of the topology.
B. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table.
C. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes.
D. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols.
E. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols.
F. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 27
Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location? (Choose two.)
A. terminal monitor
B. logging host ip-address
C. no logging console
D. snmp-server enable traps syslog
E. show logging | redirect flash:output.txt
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a Cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport output all
B. transport preferred all
C. transport type all
D. transport input all

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
In which solution is a router ACL used?
A. filtering packets that are passing through a router
B. to change the default administrative distance of a route in the route table
C. protecting a server from unauthorized access
D. controlling path selection, based on the route metric

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 34
DRAG DROP Refer to exhibits:
Exhibit:

Select and Place: Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 104
Inside the ABC University network, all WAN links use PPP with CHAP for authentication security. When it occurs between two routers in the network, which command will display the CHAP authentication process?
A. show interface serial0
B. debug PPP authentication
C. show CHAP authentication
D. show ppp authentication chap

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
There is a term dynamic displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command, what is the meaning of this dynamic? P4S-R# show frame-relay map Serial0/0 (up): ip 172.16.3.1 dlci 100(0x64,0x1840), dynamic broadcast, status defined, active
A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
C. As required, the DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
D. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
What type of physical network is a default Frame Relay WAN classified?
A. point-to-point
B. broadcast multi-access
C. nonbroadcast multipoint
D. nonbroadcast multi-access

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
For the following Frame Relay features, which one allows the point-to-point Frame Relay PVC between Router P4S-R-1 and Router P4S-R-2 to be identified at Router P4S-R-1 as 100 and at Router P4S-R-2 as 200?

A. locally significant DLCI
B. globally significant LMI
C. globally significant DLCI
D. locally significant LMI

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
You are a network administrator for P4S. You have entered the command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast on the router. Concerning this command, which of the following statements is true?
A. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
B. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
C. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
D. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
How should router P4S1, which will be used in the P4S
Frame Relay network, be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing routing updates?

A. Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface.
B. None of the bove
C. Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet.
D. Configure a single sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
A Cisco router providing Frame Relay connectivity at a remote site was replaced with a different vendor’s frame relay router. Now, connectivity between the central and remote site is down. What most likely causes this problem?
A. incorrect IP address mapping
B. mismatched LMI types
C. mismatched encapsulation types
D. incorrect DLCI

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
How to determine the interface clock rate while a router is connected to a Frame Relay WAN link by use of a serial DTE interface?
A. It is supplied by the CSU/DSU.
B. It is supplied by the Layer 1 bit stream timing.
C. It is supplied by the far end router.
D. It is determined by the clock rate command.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Topic – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications.
Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 113
You are an administrator for P4S. You cannot add VLAN 50 to a switch. When troubleshooting the problem, you view the output of the show vtp status command, which is displayed in the graphic. To add VLAN 50 to the database, what commands should be used on this switch? (Choose two.)

A. P4S-Switch(vlan)# vlan 50
B. P4S-Switch(vlan)# vtp server
C. P4S-Switch(config)# vlan 50 name Tech
D. P4S-Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 50

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 114
Which three options can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN support
B. compression
C. authentication
D. multilink support

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 115
As it is shown in the exhibit. A new VLAN on Switch P4S1 has been created and host P4SC and host P4SD have been added. And switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 has been properly configured through FastEthernet0/24 to be members of the new VLAN. After the configuration completed, however, host P4SA could communicate with host P4SB, but it could not communicate with host P4SC or host P4SD. To resolve this problem, which commands should be used?

A. P4S1# vlan database P4S1(vlan)# vtp v2-mode P4S1(vlan)# vtp domain cisco P4S1(vlan)# vtp server
B. P4S2(config)# router rip P4S2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 P4S2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 P4S2(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
C. P4S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 P4S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk P4S1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. P4S2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1.3 P4S2(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 3 P4S2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 116
You work as a network technician for P4S Ltd. Study the topology displayed in the exhibit carefully. If all the links are operating at the same bandwidth,which ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-Switch-C – Fa0/1
B. P4S-Switch-A – Fa0/1
C. P4S-Switch-B – Fa0/0
D. P4S-Switch-B – Fa0/1

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 117
You are a network administrator for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on P4S-ALSwitch1 will be used for creating an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. On the basis of the output presented, why the trunk does not form, even if the proper cabling has been attached?
A. The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.
B. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. An IP address must be configured for the port.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 118
What does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe in a switched environment?
A. VLAN pruning
B. the operation of VTP
C. a method of VLAN trunking
D. an approach to wireless LAN communication

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 119
Which switch is the root bridge for VLAN 1?
A. Sw-DS1
B. Sw-AC1
C. Sw-AC2
D. Sw-AC3

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit.SwX was taken out of the production network for maintenance. It will be reconnected to the Fa0/16 port of Sw-AC3. What happens to the network when it is reconnected and a trunk exists between the two switches? SwX#show vlan | SwX#show vtp stat Sw-AC3#show vtp stat Sw-AC3#show vlan A. All VLANs except the default VLAN will be removed from all switches.
B. All existing switches will have the students,admin,faculty,Servers,Management,Production,and no-where VLANs.
C. The VLANs Servers,Management,Production,and no-where will replace the VLANs on SwX.
D. The VLANs Servers,Managements,Production,and no-where will be removed from existing switches.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Out of which ports on Sw-AC3 will a frame be forwarded that has Source MAC address 0010.5a0c.fd86 and destination MAC address 000a.8a47.e612?(Choose three) Sw-AC3#show mac-address-table Sw-AC3#show vlan Sw-AC3#show int trunk
A. Fa0/8
B. Fa0/3
C. Fa0/1
D. Fa0/12
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 122
What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating as trunks?(Choose three) Sw-AC3#show int trunk

A. Fa0/3
B. Fa0/9
C. Fa0/1
D. Fa0/12

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 123
What address should be configured as the default-gateway for the host connected to interface Fa0/4 of Sw-AC3? Sw-AC3#show vlan

A. 192.168.1.254
B. 192.168.22.254
C. 192.168.44.254
D. 192.168.33.254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
The exhibit below displays the network which has just been installed. Host P4S-B is able to access the
Internet, but it can’t ping host P4S-C. What is the problem with this configuration?

A. The exhibit below displays the network which has just been installed. Host P4S-B is able to access the Internet, but it can’t ping host P4S-C. What is the problem with this configuration?
B. The address of host P4S-C is incorrect.
C. The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down.
D. Host P4S-B should be in VLAN 13.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 125
The root bridge of the spanning tree is the bridge with the smallest bridge ID. On the basis of the exhibit presented. If all the four switches are running STP, which one will become the root bridge?

A. P4S-switch-A
B. P4S-switch-B
C. P4S-switch-C
D. P4S-switch-D

Correct Answer: D
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