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Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0
Q&As: 383

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Question No : 9  Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
300-075 exam Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 10  When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.
Answer: C
Question No : 11  Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a VCS Control server with video endpoints registered on both systems. Users find that video endpoints registered on Call manager can call each other and likewise for the endpoints registered on the VCS server. The administrator for Company X realizes he needs a SIP trunk between the two systems for any video endpoint to call any other video endpoint. Which two steps must the administrator take to add the SIP trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a SIP trunk on Cisco UCM with the option Device-Trunk with destination address of the VCS server.
B. Set up a subzone on Cisco UCM with the peer address to the VCS cluster.
C. Set up a neighbor zone on the VCS server with the location of Cisco UCM using the menu option VCS Configuration > Zones > zone.
D. Set up a SIP trunk on the VCS server with the destination address of the Cisco UCM and Transport set to TCP.
E. Set up a traversal subzone on the VCS server to allow endpoints that are registered on Cisco UCM to communicate.
300-075 dump Answer: A,C
Question No : 12  Which three options are overlapping parameters for roaming when a device is configured for Device Mobility? (Choose three.)
A. device pool
B. location
C. network locale
D. codec
E. MRGL
F. extension
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
The overlapping parameters for roaming-sensitive settings are Media Resource Group List, Location, and Network Locale. The overlapping parameters for the Device Mobility-related settings are Calling Search Space (called Device Mobility Calling Search Space at the device pool), AAR Group, and AAR Calling Search Space. Overlapping parameters configured at the phone have higher priority than settings at the home device pool and lower priority than settings at the roaming device pool.
QUESTION 13
If a product’s weight was specified to be 300 grams but could only be built to a weight of 400 grams, which of the following would be created?
A. Exception Plan
B. Request for change
C. Off-specification
D. Exception Report
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to anything agreed in the Project Initiation Documentation
B. Ensure any potential changes to baselined products are controlled
C. Ensure that the correct versions are delivered to the customer
D. Assess changes to only the specialist products
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which product confirms the version numbers of all products being developed within a given stage?
A. Configuration Item Record
B. Stage Plan
C. Work Package
D. Product Status Account
300-075 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Identify the missing word from the following sentence… PRINCE2 uses the term [ ? ] to cover any relevant event that has happened, was not planned, and requires management action?
A. Risk
B. Change
C. Issue
D. Exception
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
According to PRINCE2, as well as holding informal problems/concerns, which product can also be used to record required actions or significant events not caught elsewhere?
A. Daily Log
B. Risk Register
C. Issue Register
D. Project notebook
300-075 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which option describes something that should be provided by the project, but currently is not (or is
forecast not to be) provided?
A. Problem/concern
B. Concession
C. Off-specification
D. Exception Report
300-075 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
According to the Change theme, which of the following contains the steps of the recommended issue and change control procedure?
A. Capture, Examine, Analyze Impact, Review Probability, Implement Action
B. Capture, Log, Review, Resolve
C. Assess, Decide, Escalate, Implement
D. Capture, Examine, Propose, Decide, Implement
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 484

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300-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
300-101 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router (gateway of last resort).
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit
300-101 dumps
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry. In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.
QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
300-101 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs. Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them. Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously.
QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some 
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/ UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput. TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions.
QUESTION 5 
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
300-101 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.
If Server A is an FTP server, which setting will enable active FTP optimization on Steelhead Mobile Client
R?
A. Steelhead A. in-path auto srcport 20
B. Steelhead A. in-path auto dstport 20
C. Client R: in-path auto dstport 20
D. Default auto-discovery rules will work
E. None of the above
200-155 exam 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit.
If Steelhead Mobile Client B offers up a share on the network, what is needed on Steelhead Mobile Client
R to open an optimized connection to this share if enhanced auto-discovery is enabled on all Steelhead
appliances?
A. Default auto-discovery will work fine without modification
B. The connection to Client B cannot be optimized because the Steelhead Mobile Controller cannot
optimize incoming connections
C. A fixed-target rule to Client B’s IP address is needed in order for optimization to occur on Mobile Client B
D. The addition of a peering rule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
Company X has many offshore oil rigs they want to bring optimization to. The only available connection is through a satellite that has frequent bursts of packet loss. There are very few users per rig and HTTPS based SharePoint performance is so poor they often time out pulling down even a small file. CIFS often does not work at all. They are considering the Steelhead Mobile solution to solve this problem. You suggest they deploy a Steelhead in-path at the data center and:
A. Steelhead Mobile with FEC turned on to help with lossy links
B. Steelhead Mobile with HS-TCP configuration
C. Steelhead Mobile running MX-TCP to deal with the loss
D. Deploy Steelhead appliances with MX-TCP to deal with the loss
E. Deploy Steelhead appliances with HS-TCP, Window Scaling, fixed-target rules, and TCP New Reno to
overcome the loss
200-155 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 86
Is any user data sent across the out-of-band (OOB) connection of a Steelhead appliance?
A. No data is sent across this connection
B. Yes, only after 60 seconds
C. Yes, when the peer Steelhead appliance requests information
D. Yes, when the connection is setup
E. Yes, every 30 seconds
F. Yes, every 30 minutes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
The Node B antenna gain is 17 dB and receiver sensitivity 112 dBm, radiated power
(EIRP) of user equipment (Ue) is 18 dBm and feeder cable loss is 3 dB. What is the
MAXIMUM path loss?
A. 114 dB
B. 116 dB
C. 144 dB
D. 147 dB
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Physical channel power optimisation has to be done at the level of:
A. routing area and CELLDCH state.
B. RNC and cell area.
C. location and routing area.
D. site and cell area.
Answer: B
QUESTION 89
In the case of compressed mode and lower spreading code usage:
A. there is no impact on interference level.
B. the average interference level increases approximately 20%.
C. the average interference level increases approximately 5%.
D. the interference level is reduced approximately 5%.
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Too wide soft handover areas can be indicated MOST easily by:
A. measuring CPICH coverage.
B. calculating inter cell interference.
C. comparing actual active set sizes.
D. monitoring traffic.

Answer: C
QUESTION 91
How can the cell/area data traffic profile best be monitored?
A. Measuring RT and NRT throughput.
B. Following up cell loading classes.
C. Counting RAB PS attempts.
D. Following up DCH channel allocations.
200-155 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 92
DCH traffic has the smallest impact on:
A. coverage area.
B. hard or soft blocking.
C. soft handover triggering.
D. lub utilisation.
Answer: C
QUESTION 93
Minimum coupling loss (MCL) is the minimum allowed:
A. overall loss between BTS and UE.
B. Loss from the UE to the MHA.
C. loss in antenna line.
D. loss from the UE Tx to BTS antenna.
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 94
If the NodeB antenna direction has been modified:
A. pilot coverage areas need no recalculation.
B. new EbNo values have to be selected.
C. softer handover areas are changed.
D. power control parameters need to be changed.
Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?

A. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
B. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the same scrambling code group.
C. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
D.There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 96
Which one of the following statements relating to WCDMA inter-working is TRUE?
A. Inter frequency measurements have IMSI verification.
B. Inter system measurements have BSIC verification.
C. Inter system measurements have IMSI verification.
D. Inter frequency measurements have BSIC verification.
Answer: B
QUESTION 97
The Common Control Channel (CCCH) is:
A. a uni-directional channel for transmitting control information from network to UEs.
B. a uni-directional channel for transmitting control information from UEs to network.
C. only used by mobiles having RRC connection with the network.
D. a bi-directional channel for transmitting control information between network and
UEs.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 98
Which one of the following statements concerning simulations on the planning tool is
NOT true?
A. Monte Carlo simulation is a form of static simulation.
B. Static simulations make use of an iterative process.
C. Static simulation is a time consuming process.
D. Simulations are not dynamic.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 828

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about asymmetric routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It can cause packet loss over stateful ICMP and UDP connections
B. It can cause packet loss when a stateful firewall is in use.
C. It can cause TCP connections to close.
D. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use.
E. It is uncommon in large networks.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which PIM mode can forward traffic by using only (*.G) routing table entries?
A. Space-dese mode
B. Bidirectional mode
C. Deuce mode
D. Sparse mode
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Refer To the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which IS-IS process is responsible for flooding local link information to adjacent routers ?
A. decision
B. receive
C. forward
D. update
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller note ?
(Choose two)
A. Neutron server plugin
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Neutron layer 2 agent
D. Identify Service
E. Neutron Layer 3 agent
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit
400-101 dumps
Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. It creates an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60
B. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops.
C. It prevent the device from falling back to dense mode.
D. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds.
E. It configure the router as the rendezvous point
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Exhibit:
400-101 dumps
Your network is suffering excessive output drops. Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem?
(Choose two.)
A. Install a switch with larger buffers.
B. Configure a different queue set.

C. Reconfigure the switch buffers.
D. Configure the server application to use TCP.
E. Update the server operating system.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 8
In a Cisco ACL environment .which option best describes “contracts”?
A. named group of related endpoints
B. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. a layer 3 forwarding domain
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which characteristic of an IS-IS single topology is true?
A. Its IPv4 and IPv6 interfaces must have a 1:1 correlation.
B. It supports asymmetric IPv4 and IPv6 interface.
C. It uses a separate SPF calculation than the IPv4 routing table
D. The metric-style wide command must be enabled.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of ipv6 multicast traffic on a switch?
A. MLD filtering
B. IGMP snooping
C. MLD snooping
D. IGMP filtering
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
If interface FastEthernetO/1 goes down,how does router R5 respond?
A. It sends query packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24.
B. It sends update packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24
C. It is stuck in active for destination 192.168.24.0/24
D. It uses interface F0/0 and neighbor 192.168.35.3 as the new path to destination 192.168.24.0/24
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What is the default time-out value of an ARP entry in Cisco IOS Software?
A. 720 minutes
B. 240 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 480 minutes
E. 120 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello
packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 14

400-101 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running EIGRP and the network has R3 to R4 are configured as EIGRP
stub, if when the R2 goes down,which statement is true?
A. R1 sends traffic destined to 192.168.0.100 via R2
B. R2 does not have a router to 192.168.0.0/24 in the routing table.
C. The prefix 192.168.0.0/24 becomes stuck-in-active on R4
D. R3 does not advertise 192.168.0.0/24 to R4 anymore 100% Valid Cisco Exams
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two options are benefits of EIGRP OTP? {Choose two)
A. It fully supports multicast traffic.
B. It allow the administrator to use different autonomous system number per EIGRP domain.
C. It allow EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider without the service provider involvement.
D. It allows the customer EIGRP domain to remain contiguous.
E. It requires only minimal support from the service provider.
F. It allows EIGRP neighbors to be discovered dynamically.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
which two statements about IP SLAs are true? {Choose two)
A. They are used primarily in the distribution layer.
B. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip
C. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB
D. Data can be collected with a physical probe.
E. They are layer 2 transport independent.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which two statements about logging are true?(Choose two)
A. Log messages are displayed in a Telnet session by default.
B. Interface status changes are logged at the Informational level.
C. Interface status changes are logged at the Notification level

D. Log messages are sent to the console port by default.
E. Reload requests are logged at the Notification level.
F. System restart messages are logged at the Critical level.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three)
A. ERMS
B. EPL
C. ERS
D. MPLS
E. EMS
F. EWS
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Refer to exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which AS paths are matched by this access list?
A. the directly attached AS 65596 and any
B. the origin AS 64496 only
C. the origin AS 64996 and any ASs after AS 64496
D. the directly attached AS 64496 and any ASs directly attached to AS 64496
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 20
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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What You Will Learn From Cisco 300-135 dumps

  • Cisco’s structured troubleshooting module
  • The troubleshooting toolkit, including change control procedures, managing configuration files, limiting show command output with modifiers, hardware diagnostic commands, and SPAN, NetFlow, and EEM configuration.
  • Troubleshooting Layer 2 issues such as VLANs, IEEE 802.1Q trunks, VTP, STP, and EtherChannel
  • Troubleshooting IP addressing including determining the IP addresses of clients and router interfaces, checking IP address reachability, DHCPv4 address assignment, and IPv6 dynamic address assignment
  • Troubleshooting basic routing issues such as IPv4 and IPv6 static routing, RIPv2 and RIPng, HSRP, VRRP, GLBP, and FHRP object tracking
  • Troubleshooting EIGRP issues including neighborship formation, routing issues, and named EIGRP

300-135 dumps

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
You have received notification from network monitoring system that link between R1 and R5 is down and you noticed that the active router for HSRP group 1 has not failed over to the standby router for group 1. You are required to troubleshoot and identify the issue.
A. There is an HSRP group track command misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP group priority misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
D. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
E. This is not an HSRP issue; this is routing issue.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When looking at the HSRP configuration of R1, we see that tracking has been enabled, but that it is not tracking the link to R5, only the link to R2:
R1 should be tracking the Eth 0/1 link, not 0/0 to achieve the desired affect/
QUESTION 12
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
The following debug messages are noticed for HSRP group 2. But still neither R1 nor R2 has identified one of them as standby router. Identify the reason causing the issue. Note: only show commands can be used to troubleshoot the ticket. R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:39.234: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:40.034: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:40.364: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:41.969: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:42.719: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:42.918: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:44.869: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:45.485: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:45.718: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:47.439: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:48.252: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:48.322: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.389: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.735: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:50.921: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254 R1# ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.089: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.338: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active pri130vlP 172.16.10.254 ‘Mar 26 11:17:53.633: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
A. HSRP group priority misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
D. This is not an HSRP issue: this is DHCP issue.
E. The ACL applied to interface is blocking HSRP hello packet exchange
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 300-135 dumps
Explanation:
On R1 we see that access list 102 has been applied to the Ethernet 1/0 interface:
This access list is blocking all traffic to the 224.0.0.102 IP address, which is the multicast address used by HSRP.
QUESTION 13
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
Examine the configuration on R4. The routing table shows no entries for 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.20.0/24. Identify which of the following is the issue preventing route entries being installed on R4 routing table?
A. HSRP issue between R4 and R2
B. This is an OSPF issue between R4 and R2
C. This is a DHCP issue between R4 and R2
D. The distribute-list configured on R4 is blocking route entries
E. The ACL configured on R4 is blocking inbound traffic on the interface connected to R2
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Consider the following code: What is the output when you run this script in the browser?
A. An alert box displaying the following: John, Paul, George, Ringo
B. An alert box displaying the following: Ringo, John, Paul, George
C. An alert box displaying the following: Ringo, Paul, George
D. An alert box displaying the following: John, Ringo, George
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which statement about the JavaScript form object is true?
A. The JavaScript form object has no relationship to the X/HTML <form> element.
B. You can use a single instance of the form object to represent multiple forms on a Web page.
C. The form object cannot be used to access the individual field elements that compose the form.
D. The JavaScript form object is available when the X/HTML <form></form> tags are present in the X/
HTML document.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Consider the following code:
What is the expected result of this script?
A. When you leave the page, the alert box will display.
B. The page will ignore the function, so a blank page will display on entry and exit.
C. When you enter the page, you will be warned that there is unfinished JavaScript to run.
D. When you leave the page, there will be a JavaScript error because you cannot unload an alert box.
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following comparison statements will return true?
A. x = 10;y = 5;x <= y;
B. x = 10;y = 5;x !== “X”
C. x = 10;y = 5;x === y;
D. x = 10;y = 5;x == y;
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about the getElementByID() method?
A. It returns only the first element with the specified ID.
B. It returns an array containing all elements with the specified ID.
C. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by name.
D. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by tag name.
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Consider the following code:
Will this function generate an error?
A. No, because the code is well-formed
B. Yes, because the alert syntax is incorrect
C. Yes, because there are no valid variables returned
D. Yes, because the passed arguments have not been defined before the function call
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which script block will display Hello World in the browser when the script is run?
A. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(message + message2);</script>
B. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(message & message2);</script>
C. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = Hello ;var message2 = World ;document.write(message +

message2);</script>
D. <script type=”text/javascript”>var message = “Hello “;var message2 = “World”;document.write
(“message + message2 “);</script>
300-135 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a browser security issue that JavaScript developers should remember when
developing a script?
A. JavaScript cannot be disabled in the client and will always run.
B. JavaScript functionality is immune to viruses, trojans and malware.
C. JavaScript is a cross-platform scripting language and will generate consistent results regardless of the
client or server being used.
D. Certain JavaScript functionality may be blocked by some browsers, which prevents the script from
running as expected for all users.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which statement will open this Web document in a new browser window?
A. document.open(http://www.CIWcertified.com);
B. window.open(http://www.CIWcertified.com);
C. window.open(“http://www.CIWcertified.com”);
D. document.open(“http://www.CIWcertified.com”);
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 437

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300-115 dumps

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1
port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To start a new flow-based SPAN (FSPAN) session or flow-based RSPAN (FRSPAN) source or destination session, or to limit (filter) SPAN source traffic to specific VLANs, use the monitor session filter global configuration command.
Usage Guidelines
You can set a combined maximum of two local SPAN sessions and RSPAN source sessions. You can have a total of 66 SPAN and RSPAN sessions on a switch or switch stack. You can monitor traffic on a single VLAN or on a series or range of ports or VLANs. You select a series or range of VLANs by using the [ , | -]
options. If you specify a series of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the comma. If you specify a range of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the hyphen ( -). VLAN filtering refers to analyzing network traffic on a selected set of VLANs on trunk source ports. By default, all VLANs 300-115 dumps are monitored on trunk source ports. You can use the monitor session session_number filter vlan vlan-id command to limit SPAN traffic on trunk source ports to only the specified VLANs. VLAN monitoring and VLAN filtering are mutually exclusive. If a VLAN is a source, VLAN filtering cannot be enabled. If VLAN filtering is configured, a VLAN cannot
become a source.
Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch 300-115 pdf? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on an switch that has been connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors) traffic received or sent (or both) on sou
ports or source VLANs to a destination port for analysis. RSPAN supports source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports on different switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple
switches across your network. The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated for that RSPAN session in participating switches 300-115 vce. The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the RSPAN VLAN and forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPA
VLAN to a destination session monitoring the RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources. The destinati always a physical port
Reference:
QUESTION 7
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-grou
mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we have a situation where one switch is using active mode, which is an LACP mode, and the other is using desirable, which is a PAGP mode. You can mix the LACP and PAGP protocols to form an etherchannel. Here is a summary of the various etherchannel modes:
  EtherChannel PAgP Modes
Mode Description auto Places a port into a passive negotiating state, in which the port responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets. This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel). desirable Places a port into an active negotiating state, in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending PAgP packets. This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel). EtherChannel LACP Modes
Mode Description active Places a port into an active negotiating state in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending LACP packets. passive Places a port into a passive negotiating state in which the port responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This
setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
QUESTION 8
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses, IP addresses, or Layer 4 port numbers, and either source mode, destination mode, or both. The mode you select applies to all EtherChannels that you configure on the switch. Use the option that provides the greatest variety in your 300-115 dumps configuration. For example, if the traffic on a channel only goes to a single MAC address (which is the case in this example, since all traffic is going to the same web server), use of the destination MAC address results in the choice of the same link in the channel each time. Use of source addresses or IP addresses can result in a better load balance.
QUESTION 9
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally:
monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “monitor session filter” command is used to specify which VLANS are to be port mirrored using SPAN. This example shows how to monitor VLANs 1 through
5 and VLAN 9 when the SPAN source is a trunk interface:
Switch(config)# monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 5 , 9
QUESTION 10. Which of the following are components of the Sniffer Enterprise Management Architecture?
A. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Sniffer Monitors
B. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Sniffer Distributed Consoles
C. Sniffer Distributed Consoles and Sniffer Monitors
D. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Switch Monitors
300-115 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 11. When deploying Sniffer Distributed in your network, where should Sniffer analyzers be placed?
A. On backbones and uplinks
B. On critical ports and segments
C. On WAN connections
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 12. is a protocol that enables software components to communicate directly over a network in a reliable, secure and efficient manner.
A. Distributed Console Out-of Band
B. Distributed Communication Module
C. Distributed Component Object Model
D. None of the above
300-115 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 13. With Sniffer Distributed RMON+ :
A. Capture and decode occurs and stays at the Sniffer Distributed Appliance, not the console
B. Capture and decode does not occur
C. Has the same functionality as Expert
D. Has no support for Expert Analysis Add-on
Answer:A
QUESTION 14. Controlling and viewing agents is the job of which of the following components?

A. Sniffer Distributed Console
B. Sniffer Distributed Agent C. Sniffer Monitor
D. Sniffer Portable Network Analyzer
300-115 exam Answer:A
QUESTION 15. What protocol does the Distributed Appliance used to communicate with the console? :
A. DCOM
B. SCOM
C. WCOM
D. JOCM
300-115 dumps Answer:A
QUESTION 16. Sniffer Distributed Agents need at least adapter(s).
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B
QUESTION 17. Which of the following is true about RMON+ ?
A. is basically the same as Expert
B. is capable of capturing traffic but not monitoring
C. RMON+ capture can be looked at by an agent with the Expert option
D. B and C
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 03, 2017
Q&As: 332

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100-105 dumps

QUESTION NO: 34
Productivity is increased if value is added to a product.
A. True
B. False
100-105 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
Quality assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards,
and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 36
A latent defect is the same as a fault.
A. True
B. False
100-105 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
Quality and quality assurance are synonymous.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
Vision is a clear definition of the result you are trying to achieve.
A. True
B. False
100-105 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
A standard is not an expected norm
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
Quality control relates to a specific product or service.
A. True
B. False
100-105 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which two elements are the major causes of documentation problems? (Choose any Two)
A. Forgetfulness
B. Not enough time
C. Personal attitudes
D. Low priority
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 42
Almost one-half of a programmer’s time is spent identifying and fixing errors in specifications.
A. True
B. False
100-105 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 43
What is the present value of money of a $10,000 expenditure that you will spend one year from
now if money is worth 14 percent?
A. $1600
B. $8770
C. $8600
D. $2630
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
National Quality Awards are intended to foster continuous improvement activities.
A. True
B. False
100-105 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 45
The objective of the present value of money calculation is to convert future dollars into current
dollars.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
In the IT workbench, quality, and performance of the work are the responsibility of the QA
department.
A. True
B. False
100-105 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
The process used for documenting user’s requirements is known as validation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 48
A large portion of the cost of quality is usually the cost of rework.
A. True
B. False
100-105 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
Function points quantify data processing work outputs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 50
Function points are hardware and software independent.
A. True
B. False
100-105 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
The inspection is an evaluation technique that relies on visual examination of an item.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 52
The three parts of the function point count must be determined individually.
A. True
B. False
100-105 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 53
The intent of the quality control checklist should be to improve the quality of the product being
controlled by investigative means.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 54
Measurement of function points cannot be used for comparing two different kinds of systems.
A. True
B. False
100-105 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 55
A process/activity during which a high number of defects occur is known as a defect-prone
process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 56
The number-one skill needed for the tester analyst is listening.
A. True
B. False
100-105 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 57
A program whose purpose is to reduce the number of defects produced is known as a quality
improvement program.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO:58 You want to implement site level disaster recovery. Which two are valid options to consider? (Choose two.)
A. Use SAN Copy to copy LUNs from the primary site to the recovery site.
B. Use SAN Copy to mirror a LUN from the primary site to the recovery site. C.
Use MirrorView to mirror LUNs from the primary site to another local array.
D. Use SnapView to create a clone, then use SAN Copy to copy the clone to the recovery site.
100-105 exam Answer: AD
QUESTION NO:59 You have installed SAN Copy. Which 100-105 dumps statement is true?
A. The storage array must be rebooted.
B. SAN Copy cannot be upgraded, except by a complete re-install.
C. Any LUN within the SAN is automatically made available to be copied.
D. The admhost utility must be installed on each storage array that Navisphere Manager resides on.
E. SAN Copy sessions can be managed through the Navisphere Manager Enterprise Storage window.
Answer: E
QUESTION NO:60 Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
B. Snapshots may be created using the admhost CLI utility.
C. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs. D.
SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN. E.
Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION NO:61 Which three statements are correct about clones? (Choose three.)
A. Clones can be copied using SAN Copy to a remote storage array.
B. Clones typically consume about 20% of the size of the source LUN.

C. Fractured clones can later be synchronized with the source LUN to update the contents.
D. Clones can be fractured from the source LUN, then mounted to a secondary host and accessed just
like another LUN.
100-105 pdf Answer: ACD
QUESTION NO:62 You want User1 to have Administrator access to storage system A that is located in a branch office.
However, you want User1 to have read-only access to the remaining storage systems within the domain.
Which scenario best accomplishes this task?
A. User accounts must be either global or local because the user inherits the most restrictive role
assigned to the user.
B. Create a local account with Administrator access on storage system A, then create a global account for
User1 with Monitor access.
C. Create a global account with Monitor access on storage system A, then modify the account policy to
allow User1 to administer only storage system A.
D. Create a global account with Monitor access on the master node, then have User1 log in to storage
system A using the local default manager account.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Updated: Aug 20, 2017
Q&As: 80

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 20
What is the call sequence as established by the Q.931 standard?
A. ALERTING, CALL PROCEEDING, CONNECT, ACKNOWLEDGE, FIN
B. ALERTING, CALL PROCEEDING, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, RELEASE
C. SETUP, CALL PROCEEDING, ALERTING, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, DISCONNECT,
RELEASE, RELEASE COMPLETE
D. ESTABLISH, SYN, SYN ACK, CONNECT, CONNECT ACK, CALL PROCEEDING,
DISCONNECT, RELEASE, RELEASE ACKNOWLEDGE, FIN
210-255 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
A traditional PBX generally offers all of the following features EXCEPT:
A. Voice mail
B. Call forwarding
C. Call interruption
D. Find me/follow me
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Which type of delay is most likely to cause jitter?
A. Queuing delay
B. Handling delay
C. Transfer delay
D. Propagation delay
210-255 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
How would you represent the IP address and subnet mask for 152.2.100.1/25?
A. 152.2.100.1
255.255.255.120
B. 152.2.100.1
255.255.255.128
C. 152.2.100.1
255.255.255.224
D. 152.2.100.1
255.255.255.240
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following encodes messages in ASCII, uses proxies instead of gatekeepers, and is a
peer-to-peer protocol?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. The local loop
210-255 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
Consider the following entry:
$ORIGIN 7.7.0.0.5.7.2.2.0.6.1.e164.arpa.
IN NAPTR 102 10 “u” “sip+E2U” “!^.*$!sip:[email protected]!i” .
From the information given, what is the purpose of this entry?
A. Calls will be received on a system that uses IPv6.
B. The PBX will act as a backup to the SIP proxy for a call.
C. It routes a PSTN phone number to an SIP-enabled device.
D. It translates calls into e-mail and routes the e-mail to the marketing department.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Which ITU standard allows you to share applications in real time?
A. UDP
B. T.120
C. T.37
D. SNMP
210-255 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27
Your company’s users on the primary LAN have been given soft phones on their personal
computers to make voice calls. You have implemented a VLAN. What priority should you mark the
voice and computer data?
A. Computer data: 0
Voice data: 6
B. Computer data: 0
Voice data: 9
C. Computer data: 1
Voice data: 0
D. Computer data: 5
Voice data: 6
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following best describes the IPv4 and IPv6 address formats?
A. In IPv4 addresses, each of the four 8-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6
addresses, each of the eight 16-bit fields is separated by a colon.
B. In IPv4 addresses, each of the four 16-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6
addresses, each of the seven 32-bit fields is separated by a colon.
C. In IPv4 addresses, the subnet mask fields are separated by a dash, whereas in IPv6
addresses, each of the 10 8-bit fields is separated by a colon.
D. In IPv4 addresses, each of the 32-bit fields is separated by a period, whereas in IPv6
addresses, each of the 16-bit fields is separated by a colon.
210-255 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following best describes how an H.323 node operates during the call setup phase?
A. Each node sends both the registration information and the media stream through the
gatekeeper.
B. Each node sends registration information to the gatekeeper along with a sample of the data that
will be transmitted.
C. Each node sends call setup information directly to each other, whereas the media stream is
sent directly to the gatekeeper.
D. Each node sends call setup information to a gatekeeper, whereas the media stream is sent
directly from one host to another.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
When a technician connects a North American T1 trunk to a European E1 trunk using a
conversion device, which of the following will result?
A. No less than 80% of the T1 can be used.
B. No more than 80% of the E1 trunk can be used.
C. No connection can be made between E1 and T1.
D. The connection will fail because E1 uses out-of-band transmission and T1 lines use in-band
transmission.
210-255 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
You need to choose a codec according to the following parameters:
– The codec should be standard for convergent voice and video calls.
– Due to the limited capability of the IP phones, the codec should require as little computation
power as possible.
– The codec should create voice at a bit rate of 8 Kbps.
Which codec should you choose?
A. G.711
B. G.723.1
C. G.726
D. G.729a
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following is essential for implementing Telephone Number Mapping (ENUM)?
A. Regional Internet Registry (RIR)
B. The Network Time Protocol (NTP)
C. The Domain Name System (DNS)
D. A DNS Mail Exchanger (MX) record
210-255 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which problem typically occurs if a jitter buffer is too small?
A. Too many delays will occur.
B. Too few packets will be re-sent.
C. Too few interfaces will be addressed.
D. Too many packets will be discarded.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
A proxy device resides at sipproxy.ctpcertified.com. You need to create a URI so that the phone
number 01908 220220 is a valid entry. Which entry accomplishes this goal?
A. [email protected]: 01908 220220
B. sip://[email protected] 220220
C. sip: 01908 [email protected]
D. INVITE: 01908 [email protected]
210-255 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
Which device inspects incoming packets, makes dynamic routing decisions based on the source
and destination IP addresses, and is considered the most appropriate device to use when
forwarding packets between networks?
A. Repeater
B. Gateway
C. Layer 2 switch
D. Layer 3 switch

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
What algorithm is usually selected when voice is companded at 64 Kbps in all parts of the world
except North America and Japan?
A. A-Law
B. Mu-Law
C. G.711
D. G.729a
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
Which term describes a method of attacking resources on a VLAN?
A. Dictionary attack
B. VLAN hopping
C. VLAN spamming
D. Social engineering
210-255 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
Consider the following IP address in CIDR notation:
142.98.8.0/26
How many addresses can theoretically be in each subnet?
A. 62
B. 254
C. 4,094
D. 1,048,574
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39

What impact does the 3-bit User Priority field in an 802.1q frame have to help voice quality in LAN
based communications?
A. It stipulates the format of the MAC address for each network host.
B. It names a collision domain.
C. It replaces a system’s MAC address.
D. It identifies the prioritization settings.
210-255 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
You require an architecture that provides the following:
– Support for both packet-switched and circuit-switched calls
– Support for fixed and mobile voice calls and data transmission
– A non-proprietary architecture
– Ability to enable access to the Internet
– Ability to interoperate with SIP.
Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Calling Line Identification Presentation (CLIP)
B. IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
C. Session Announcement Protocol (SAP)
D. Realtime Transport Protocol (RTP)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following describes how Realtime Control Protocol (RTCP) allocates a port when it is
paired with the Realtime Transport Protocol (RTP)?
A. RTCP uses TCP port 8080.
B. RTCP uses UDP port 1719.
C. RTCP allocates a port one greater than that used by RTP.
D. RTCP relies on the SIP proxy or H.323 gateway to determine the port used.
210-255 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Code: 200-355
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 01, 2017
Q&As: 378

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QUESTION 47

200-355 dumps

200-355 exam Correct Answer:

200-355 dumps

QUESTION NO: 48
The three principal mechanisms for increasing venous return during dynamic exercise are
A. A decrease in SV, HR, and compliance of the vascular system.
B. Venoconstriction, pumping action of muscle, and the pumping action of the respiratory system.
C. An increase in vascular resistance, increase in HR, and decrease in blood pressure.
D. None of the above.
200-355  dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
Any physical activity with a performance time of approximately 30 seconds or less relies on which
of the following energy systems?
A. ATP.
B. PCr.
C. ATP-PCr.
D. Aerobicglycolysis.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following is NOT a muscle type?
A. Skeletal.
B. Smooth.
C. Cardiac.
D. Generic.

200-355 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 51
When a motor unit is stimulated by a single nerve impulse, it responds by contracting one time and
then relaxing. This is called a
A. Twitch.
B. Summation.
C. Tetanus.
D. Summary.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 52
Which muscle protein contains many cross-bridges?
A. Myofibril.
B. Sarcomere.
C. Troponin.
D. Myosin.
200-355 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 53
Cardiac muscle action potentials are longer in duration than those of skeletal muscle. The longer
action potential does not allow the muscle to
A. Twitch.
B. Undergo summation.
C. Have tetanus.
D. Summarize.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following cardiovascular variables does NOT increase as a result of chronic exercise
while performing a single bout of maximal exercise?

A. Maximal HR.
B. Maximal cardiac output.
C. Maximal SV.
D. Maximal oxygen consumption.
200-355 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
Myocardial oxygen consumption is best estimated from
A. Maximal oxygen consumption.
B. RPP.
C. Cardiac output.
D. HR.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 56
During mild to moderate exercise, pulmonary ventilation increases primarily as a result of
increased
A. Tidal volume.
B. Breathing frequency.
C. Vital capacity.
D. Total lung volume.
200-355 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 57
The anaerobic threshold occurs at the onset of
A. Oxidativephosphorylation.
B. Maximal oxygen consumption.
C. Metabolic acidosis.
D. Aerobic metabolism.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following statements about static exercise is accurate?
A. It results in reduced pressure on the heart.
B. It is inappropriate for any client with heart disease.
C. It involves rhythmic, continuous activity.
D. It results in increased HR and SBP.
200-355 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 59
Which of the following statements regarding arm versus leg exercise is correct?
A. Target HR should not be used as a guide for arm exercise.
B. Target HR for leg exercise should be decreased by 10bpm for arm exercise.
C. Target HR for leg exercise should be increased by 10bpm for arm exercise.
D. Higher maximal oxygen consumption should be expected in arm exercise.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
End-diastolic volume is highest when measured with the client in which position?
A. Recumbent.
B. Sitting.
C. Standing.
D. Supine.
200-355 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 61
Which of the following are byproducts of aerobic metabolism?
A. Carbon dioxide and water.
B. Oxygen and water.
C. ATP and oxygen.
D. Hydrogen and oxygen.

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 62
Cardiac output is a function of
A. HR, preload, after load, and contractility.
B. HR and SBP.
C. SV and EDV.
D. Maximal oxygen consumption andarteriovenous oxygenation difference.
200-355 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 63
Which of the following describes a normal postexercise blood pressure (BP) response?
A. Elevated systolic and diastolic values compared topreparticipation values.
B. Progressive decline in SBP.
C. Progressive increase in SBP.
D. Exaggerated decrease in DBP.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 64
Stroke volume is defined as
A. The product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance.
B. The difference between EDV and ESV.
C. The product of preload and HR.
D. The product of cardiac output andarteriovenous oxygen difference.
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
As a result of exercise training, cardiac output becomes
A. Higher at any given workload.

B. Lower at any given workload.
C. Essentially unchanged at any given workload.
D. Diminished because of reduced SV.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 66
During exercise, SV increases as a result of
A. The Frank-Starling law.
B. Increased HR.
C. Increased ejection fraction.
D. Increased pulmonary artery pressure
200-355 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 67
In terms of chronological age, early childhood is usually described as
A. Birth to 3 weeks.
B. 3 weeks to 1 year.
C. 1 to 6 years.
D. 7 to 10 years.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 68
Which age group is the fastest-growing segment of the
A. Preadolescents.
B. Adolescents.
C. Adults aged 65 to 85 years.
D. Adults older than 85 years.
200-355 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 69

Increased after load associated with increased peripheral resistance as a result of aging causes
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy.
B. Kidney failure.
C. Liver damage.
D. Liver failure.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70
An increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure at rest and during exercise often
accompanies aging. Blood pressure usually increases because of
A. Increased arterial compliance and decreased arterial stiffness.
B. Decreased arterial compliance and increased arterial stiffness.
C. Decrease in both arterial compliance and arterial stiffness.
D. Increase in both arterial compliance and arterial stiffness.
200-355 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 71
The remains relatively unchanged throughout childhood. However, after age 25, it typically
decreases by
A. 0% to 5% each decade.
B. 5% to 15% each decade.
C. 15% to 20% each decade.
D. 15% to 20% each year.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 72
Cardiac output is a function of heart rate and stroke volume. In children, why is heart rate higher at
rest and during exercise?
A. Because in children, stroke volume is directly related to how much left ventricular stiffness
reduces diastolic filling.
B. Because in children, cardiac output is regulated more by peripheral resistance than Vo2max by
any other variable.

C. Because children typically have a lower stroke volume compared to adults.
D. Because children typically have a more elevated peripheral resistance compared to adults.
200-355 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 73
The increases as a result of physical training in elderly persons. This occurs for all of the following
reasons EXCEPT
A. In men, the increase is a function of improved central and peripheral adaptations.
B. In women, the increase is a function of improved peripheral adaptations.
C. In both men and women, regular aerobic exercise slows the decline with aging.
D. In both men and women, regular aerobic exercise speeds the decline with aging.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 74
The total number of muscle fibers is fixed at an early age, but
A. At adolescence, males exhibit rapid hypertrophy of muscle.
B. In comparison to males, females exhibit a more rapid hypertrophy of muscle.
C. Males lose muscle mass faster at an early age when they remain sedentary.
D. Males tend to exhibit muscle hypertrophy at a later age than females.
200-355 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 75
Strenuous exercise can predispose children to which of the following?
A. Osteoporosis.
B. Osteoarthritis.
C. Malignant tumors.
D. Epiphysitis.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-150
Exam Name: DCICN Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Jul 26, 2017
Q&As: 91

1.0 Data Center Physical Infrastructure – 15%
1.1 Describe different types of cabling, uses, and limitations
1.2 Describe different types of transceivers, uses, and limitations
1.3 Identify physical components of a server and perform basic troubleshooting
1.4 Identify physical port roles
1.5 Describe power redundancy modes

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-150 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following techniques can be used to obtain a precise count of clock cycles when
profiling software over an arbitrarily long period of time using the Performance Monitoring Unit?
A. A dedicated real-time clock to provide the total cycle count
B. Use of the divide-by 64 counting option to avoid an overflow of the cycle counter
C. Use of the overflow interrupts, to extend the range of the built-in 32-bit counter
D. Modification of the application software being profiled, to insert timestamps at regular intervals
200-150 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following is preserved in dormant mode?
A. Core register contents
B. CP15 (system) register settings
C. Debug state
D. Cache contents
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
In general, when programming in C, stack accesses will be reduced by:
A. Disabling inlining.
B. Never passing more than four parameters in function calls.
C. Declaring automatic variables as “packed”.
D. Configuring the compiler to optimize for space.
200-150 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
Consider the following instruction sequence:
STR r0, [r2] ; instruction A
DSB
ADD r0, r1, r2 ; instruction B
LDR r3, [r4] ; instruction C
SUB r5, r6, #3 ; instruction D
At what point will execution pause until the STR access is complete?
A. After instruction A and before the DSB
B. After the DSB and before instruction B
C. After instruction B and before instruction C
D. After instruction C and before instruction D
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
What is an “Entry point” in an application?
A. A place where execution can start
B. The location of the main () function
C. The lowest address contained in a program image
D. A location where the linker can store additional information
200-150 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
In an ARMv7-A processor, with which level of the memory system is the Memory Management
Unit (MMU) associated?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 38
An application contains three calls to an external function, foobar(), which is defined in a shared
(or dynamic) library. How many copies of foobar() will the linker place in the application image?
(Ignore linker inlining)
A. None
B. Always one
C. Always three
D. One or more depending on optimization level
200-150 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
In an MPCore system, when one core is waiting for resources to be released, what instruction
could be used to reduce that core’s power consumption?
A. WFE
B. PLD
C. NOP
D. DSB
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 40
According to the AAPCS (with soft floating point linkage), when the caller “func” calls sprintf,
where is the value of the parameter “x” placed?
#include <stdio.h>
void func(double x, int i , char *buffer)
{
sprintf(buffer, “pass %d: value = %f\n”, i, x); }
A. Split between register R3 and 4 bytes on the stack
B. Split between registers R3 and R4
C. 8 bytes on the stack
D. VFP Register D0
200-150 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
In a Cortex-A processor, assume an initial value of R1 =0x80004000.
If the following instruction causes a data abort, what value will R1 contain on entry to the abort
handler?
LDR R0, [R1, #8]!
A. 0x80003FF8
B. 0x80004000
C. 0x80004008
D. R1 contents are unpredictable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following operations would count as intrusive to normal processor operation?
A. Tracing using Embedded Trace Macrocell (ETM)
B. Halt mode debugging
C. Monitor mode debugging
D. Using the Performance Monitor Unit
200-150 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 43
In an ARMv7-A processor that includes the Advanced SIMD extension (NEON), where are the
data values operated on by NEON instructions stored?
A. In system memory
B. In registers shared with the VFP register set
C. In registers shared with the integer register set
D. In dedicated registers not shared with other registers
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following sequences of stages comprise the ARM7TDMI three-stage pipeline?
A. Fetch, Decode, Execute
B. Decode, Fetch, Execute
C. Execute, Fetch, Decode
D. Fetch, Execute, Execute
200-150 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 45
According to the AAPCS, which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to preservation of
register values by a function?
A. A function must preserve R0-R3 and R12
B. A function must preserve R4-R11 andR13
C. No registers may be corrupted by any function
D. All registers may be corrupted by any function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
An advantage of native compiling over cross compiling is that:
A. It can enable the final code to be smaller, and execute more quickly.
B. It allows greater parallelism when building code by utilizing many processors.
C. The compiler is able to produce error and warning messages in a range of languages.
D. Build scripts can detect details of the target, and automatically configure the build to match.
200-150 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
An interrupt handler contains the following instruction sequence at the end. The purpose of these
instructions is to clear the interrupt request in the interrupt controller and then safely re-enable
interrupts.
STR r0, [r1] ; write to interrupt controller register to clear interrupt request
<x>
CPSIE i ; re-enable IRQ interrupts

Which of the following instructions should be placed at position <x> in order to ensure that the
interrupt controller sees the write before interrupts are re-enabled?
A. DMB
B. DSB
C. ISB
D. NOP
Answer: B

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