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QUESTION 44
During the IPv6 address resolution, a node sends a neighbor solicitation message in order to discover which of these?
A. The Layer 2 multicast address of the destination node
B. The solicited node multicast address of the destination node
C. The Layer 2 address of the destination node based on the destination IPv6 address
D. The IPv6 address of the destination node based on the destination Layer 2 address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which one of these statements is true of OSPF type 5 LSAs?
A. They are used to summarize area routes to other areas.
B. They are used in not-so-stubby areas to propagate external routes.
C. They are used to notify areas of the ASBR.
D. They are flooded to all areas except stub areas (external route).

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected. Given the configuration, how many EIGRP routes will router B see in its routing table?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running OSPF, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?

A. The routers are not on the same network.
B. The network statements do not match.
C. The process number does not match.
D. The MTU does not match.
E. The OSPF cost does not match.
F. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 199.155.24.0 network are unable to reach the 16.10.0 network. What is the most likely solution?

A. Router ISP1 should be configured to peer with router B.
B. Router ISP2 should be configured with no synchronization.
C. Router ISP1 should be configured with no synchronization.
D. Router ISP2 should be configured with no auto-summary.
E. Router ISP1 or IPS2 should be configured with network 176.16.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
Two BGP peers connected through a routed firewall are unable to establish a peering relationship. What could be the most likely cause?
A. BGP peers must be Layer 2-adjacent.
B. EBGP multihop is not configured.
C. The firewall is not configured to allow IP protocol 89.
D. The firewall is not configured to allow UDP 179.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which two of these steps are minimum requirements to configure OSPFv3 under IPv6?(Choose two.)
A. Configure a routing process using the command ipv6 router ospf [process-id].
B. Add the network statement for the interfaces on which OSPF will run.
C. Configure OSPF on the interface that it will run on.
D. Use the passive-interface command on the interfaces on which OSPF should not run.
E. Enable routing.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 51
You add the following commands into a routed topology: router eigrp 1 variance 3 traffic-share min across-interfaces. Users now complain about voice quality in your VoIP system. What should be done?
A. Add the command: router eigrp 1 traffic-share voice interface fast 0/0.
B. Reconfigure EIGRP to recognize voice packets.
C. Remove the variance from the configuration.
D. Reconfigure the VoIP system to use RTP sequence number headers.
E. Use an H.323 gatekeeper for your VoIP system to negotiate an H.245 uneven packet buffer.
F. Reconfigure EIGRP to version 2.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit. How would you get the 1.1.1.1 network into the OSPF database?
A. Configure RTA as an ASBR.
B. Redistribute connected routes on RTA into OSPF.
C. Set up a virtual link between area 1 and area 0.
D. Set up a virtual link between area 1 and area 2.
E. Add a static route into RTB and enter it into OSPF.
F. Place a network 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.0 command into RTB.
G. Set up a unique router ID on RTA using an RFC 1918 address.
H. Change area 0 on RTB to area 1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. Router E learned about the PIM RP (designated as 7.7.7.7) from four different sources. Routers A and D advertised the 7.0.0.0 network via EIGRP. Routers B and C advertised the
7.0.0.0 network via OSPF. Considering that all four Ethernet interfaces on router E could potentially lead back to the PIM-RP, when router E receives the first multicast packet down the shared tree, which incoming interface will be used to successfully pass the RPF check?

A. E0
B. E1
C. E2
D. E3
E. None of these interfaces will be used to successfully pass the RPF check.
F. All of these interfaces would successfully pass the RPF check.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
The core of a network has four routers connected in a square design with Gigabit Ethernet links using /30 subnets. The network is used to carry voice traffic and other applications.Convergence time is taking more than expected. Which three actions would you take to improve OSPF convergence time? (Choose three.)
A. Increase MTU of the interfaces to accommodate larger OSPF packets.
B. Change the network type to point-to-point on those links.
C. Reduce SPF initial timer.
D. Increase hello interval to avoid adjacency flapping.
E. Enable OSPF.

Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 55
Which four services use the inner labels of an MPLS label stack? (Choose four)
A. MPLS VPN
B. switching path in MPLS core
C. Cisco MPLS Traffic Engineering and Fast Reroute
D. MPLS over ATM
E. VPN over Traffic Engineering core
F. any transport over MPLS

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 56
Which 4 statements regarding MPLS Label Stack Encoding is true?
A. A value of 4 represents the “Implicit NULL Label.”
B. A value of 0 represents the “IPv4 Explicit NULL Label.”
C. A value of 1 represents the “Router Alert Label”.
D. A value of 2 represents the “IPv6 Explicit NULL Label”
E. A value of 1 represents the “IPv1 Explicit NULL Label”
F. A value of 3 represents the “Implicit NULL Label”

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 57
The mechanisms for distributing LDP are:
A. CEF and the FIB table
B. UDP and IP
C. A and B
D. RSVP and CEF
E. LDP and RSVP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 58
Based on the following output in R1, which statement is true:
R1#show mpls forwarding-table 50.0.0.3 detail
Local Outgoing Prefix Bytes Label Outgoing Next Hop
Label Label or Tunnel Id Switched interface
19 17 50.0.0.3/32 0 Et0/0 192.168.0.14
A. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 17, all the labels will be removed and a clear IP packet is sent to Next Hop 192.168.0.14 on Ethernet 0/0.
B. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 17, the label is replaced with label 19 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/0 interface.
C. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 19, the label is replaced with label 17 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/1 interface.
D. If a labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 19, the label is replaced with label 17 and the packet is sent out on the Ethernet 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
What is the encapsulation mode for MPLS running on Ethernet?
A. Transparent mode.
B. Frame mode
C. Channel mode
D. Packet mode.
E. Tunnel mode.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?
A. Show mpls ldp parameters
B. Show mpls ldp bindings
C. Show mpls forwading-table
D. Show mpls ldp discovery
E. Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) corresponds to which four of these? (Choose four).
A. Layer 2 circuits (ATM, FR, PPP, HDLC, Ethernet
B. Groups of addresses/sites-VPN
C. IPSEC Encryption Algorithm
D. A bridge/switch instance-VSI
E. Tunnel interface-traffic engineering
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 62
Which two statements about forwarding equivalence class (FEC) are true? (Choose two)
A. FEC might correspond to a destination IP subnet, but it might also correspond to any traffic class that the edge LSR considers significant.
B. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over a different path, but with the same forwarding treatment.
C. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over the same path, and with the same forwarding treatment.
D. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over a different path, but with the different forwarding treatment.
E. FEC is a group of IP packets that is forwarded over the same path, but with a different forwarding treatment.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 63
What is the role of Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) in MPLS?
A. FEC determines how to establish an LSP path.
B. FEC determines how IP packets are forwarded in MPLS LSP.
C. FEC determines how MPLS labels are stacked in LSP.
D. FEC determines how a group of IP packets are mapped to an LSP.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
In MPLS traffic engineering, which one of the following protocols is used for Path Setup?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. ISIS
D. RSVP
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
In the diagram, R1 is the head-end of a TE tunnel that terminates on R5. The red line indicates the protected link, and the gold line indicates the backup tunnel. Which router is the Point of Local Repair?

A. R2
B. R5
C. R3
D. R1
E. R4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which methods would enable traffic to be forwarded along an MPLS TE tunnel (Choose 4.)
A. MP-BGP routing
B. Static routing
C. Policy routing
D. Autoroute
E. Forwarding adjacency

Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 67
In the context of MPLS Traffic engineering, TE path calculation is conducted by:
A. TE middle point
B. TE tail end
C. Independent server
D. All TE nodes along the path
E. TE head end

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
Which two routing protocols support MPLS traffic engineering link information distribution? (Choose two)
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. RIP version 2
D. IS-IS
E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 69
Which statements are correct for forwarding traffic into MPLS TE tunnels? (Choose 3)
A. Autoroute causes the tunnel to be treated as a directly connected link to the head-end.
B. Autoroute causes the TE head-end to establish IGP adjacency with the tail-end over the tunnel.
C. Forwarding adjacency makes the TE head-end node advertise the Tunnel LSP into the IGP.
D. Forwarding adjacency supports unequal cost load balancing over multiple TE tunnels.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 70
Which three statements about MPLS traffic engineering (MPLS TE) are true? (Choose three)
A. MPLS TE supports admission control
B. MPLS TE tunnel traffic is a link attribute to compute the TE tunnel path
C. MPLS TE uses BGP extension to advertise link attributes
D. MPLS TE provides protection capability
E. MPLS TE uses RSVP to establish LSP
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 71
Which of these is not a component of MPLS traffic engineering?
A. trunk admission control
B. forwarding traffic to tunnel
C. information distribution
D. path selection, calculation, and setup
E. traffic patterns prediction
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 72
Which two statements about MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering (P2MP TE) are true? (Choose two)
A. P2MP TE uses an OSPF extension that is different from the OSPF extension that is used in P2P TE.
B. Loose path is not supported in P2MP TE.
C. Multiple IP multicast groups can map to one P2MP tunnel.
D. Affinity is not supported in P2MP TE.
E. P2MP TE uses Constrained Shortest Path First (CSPF) to calculate paths.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 73
Where are MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering packets replicated?
A. head-end router
B. branch-point router
C. midpoint router
D. leaf-point router
E. tail-end router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which statement about MPLS Traffic Engineering class-based tunnel selection (CBTS) is not true?
A. Local mechanism is at the middle-point router.
B. EXP selection is between multiple tunnels to the same destination
C. Bundle members are configured with EXP values to carry.
D. The tunnel selection is configured on the tunnel master.
E. The tunnel master bundles the tunnel members

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which statement about MPLS Traffic Engineering policy-based tunnel selection (PBTS) is not true?
A. The tunnel that is not configured with the policy-class command acts as the default.
B. EXP selection is between multiple tunnels to the same destination
C. There is no requirement for IGP extensions
D. Tunnels are configured using the policy-class command and carry multiple EXP values.
E. It supports VRF traffic, IP-to-MPLS switching, and MPLS-to-MPLS switching
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which two models are the models of DiffServ-Aware Traffic Engineering? (Choose two)
A. Policy-based Model
B. Class based Model
C. Russian Doll Model
D. Global Tunnel Model
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 77
Which three statements about the Cisco MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) process are true? (Choose three.)
A. TE tunnels that are configured with the FRR option cannot be used as backup tunnels.
B. TE tunnels that are configured with the FRR option can be used as backup tunnels.
C. The backup tunnel that is used to protect a physical interface must have a valid IP address configured.
D. Interfaces must use MPLS global label allocation.
E. The source IP address of use backup tunnel and the merge point (MP) should not be reachable.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 78
Which statement about MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) link protection operation is not true?
A. It requires a next-hop backup tunnel.
B. The backup tunnel terminates on the same tail-end router as the primary tunnel.
C. The point of local repair (PLR) swaps the label and pushes the backup label.
D. The restoration time is expected to be under 50 ms.
E. The backup tunnel can have associated bandwidth capacity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which statement about MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) node protection operation is not correct?
A. It requires a next-next hop backup tunnel.
B. Point of local repair (PLR) swaps the next hop label and pushes the backup label.
C. The backup tunnel terminates on the merge point (MP) where traffic rejoins the primary tunnel.
D. The backup tunnel can have associated bandwidth capacity.
E. Restoration time is expected under 50 ms.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 80
With the BGP peerings shown, which 3 solutions are most correct? (Choose three.)

A. rtrA and rtrD are route-reflector-clients; rtrB and rtrC are route reflectors part of the same cluster.
B. rtrA and rtrD are route-reflector-clients; rtrB and rtrC are route reflectors part of the different cluster.
C. rtrA, rtrB and rtrC are part of a confederation sub-AS and rtrD is part of a different confederation sub-AS
D. rtrA, rtrB are part of one confederation sub-AS and rtrC, rtrD are part of a different confederation sub-AS
E. rtrA, rtrB and rtrC are part of a confederation sub-AS where rtrB is a route reflector and rtrA, rtrC are routereflector-clients.

Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 30
All of these are fundamental building blocks of a differentiated services Traffic Conditioner Block except which one?
A. dropper
B. classifier
C. marker
D. querier
E. meter
F. shaper

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. You would like to guarantee 7 Mb/s for FTP traffic in your LAN, as it seems that peer-to-peer traffic is taking up a large amount of bandwidth. When testing the configuration, you notice that FTP traffic doesn’t reach 7 Mb/s. What is the problem?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. The Ethernet interface should have keepalives enabled.
B. The duplex settings are wrong on the Ethernet interface.
C. The qos pre-classify command should be removed from the tunnel interfaces.
D. the priority queue for the voice class is probably taking all the bandwidth
E. there are probably not enough interface buffers; they should be tuned.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which types of prefixes will a router running BGP most likely advertise to an IBGP peer, assuming it is not configured as a route reflector?
A. prefixes received from any other BGP peer and prefixes locally originated via network statements or redistributed
B. all prefixes in its routing table
C. prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes locally originated via network statements or redistributed
D. prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes received from route reflectors
E. prefixes received from other IBGP peers, prefixes received from EBGP peers, and prefixes redistributed to BGP PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
F. prefixes received from other IBGP peers and prefixes received from route reflectors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
You have two EBGP peers connected via two parallel serial lines. What should you do to be able to load-balance between two EBGP speakers over the parallel serial lines in both directions?
A. nothing, BGP automatically load-balances the traffic between different autonomous systems on all available links
B. peer between the eBGP speaker’s loopbacks, configuring eBGP multihop as required, and use an IGP to load-share between the two equal-cost paths between the loopback addresses
C. configure a loopback as update source for both EBGP peers and have on each AS an IGP to introduce two equal-cost paths to reach the EBGP peer loopback address; it is also necessary to use the next-hop-self command
D. use the ebgp-load-balance command on the neighbor statement on both sides
E. configure a loopback as update source for both EBGP peers and have on each AS an IGP to introduce two equal-cost paths to reach the peer loopback address; it is also necessary to use the ebgp-multihop and next-hop-self commands

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which three of these statements about penultimate hop popping are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is used only for directly connected subnets or aggregate routes.
B. It can only be used with LDP.
C. It is only used when two or more labels are stacked.
D. It enables the Edge LSR to request a label pop operation from its upstream neighbors.
E. It is requested through TDP using a special label value that is also called the implicit-null value. F. It is requested through LDP using a special label value that is also called the implicit-null value.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 35
Which of these best identifies the types of prefixes a router running BGP will advertise to an EBGP peer?
A. prefixes received from any other BGP peer and prefixes locally originated via network statements or redistributed to BGP
B. all prefixes in its IP routing table
C. only prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes locally originated via network PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001 statements or redistributed
D. only prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes received from route reflectors E. all prefixes in its routing table except the prefixes received from other EBGP peers
E. all prefixes in its routing table except the prefixes received from other IBGP peers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Which standard supports multiple instances of spanning tree?
A. 802.1D
B. 802.1s
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1z
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Spanning Tree Protocol calculates path cost based on which of these?
A. interface bandwidth
B. interface delay
C. interface bandwidth and delay
D. hop count
E. bridge priority

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. What type of issue does this error log indicate if the IP address in the error log is located off of the Router A WAN? 900761443.gif
A. HSRP standby configuration error
B. HSRP burned-in address error
C. HSRP secondary address configuration error
D. this is not an HSRP problem, but rather an STP error or router or switch configuration issue

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
What two features in Cisco switches help prevent Layer 2 loops? (Choose two.)
A. UniDirectional Link Detection PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
B. Hot Standby Router Protocol
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
D. PortFast
E. root guard
F. loop guard
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Which switching feature is being tested?

A. loop guard
B. PortFast
C. root guard
D. BDPU guard

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. This exhibit shows the NAT configuration for Router A and the output for a ping issued from device 171.68.200.48 and destined to 172.16.47.142. Based on this information, what change must be made to Router A in order for the ping to work?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. reload the router
B. clear the route cache
C. add a static route
D. configure IP as classless
E. load a newer IOS image

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
In PIM-SM what control plane signaling must a multicast source perform before it begins to send multicast traffic to a group?
A. The source must send a PIM Register message to the rendezvous point (RP).
B. The source must first join the multicast group using IGMP before sending.
C. The source must perform a Request to Send (RTS) and Clear to Send (CTS) handshake with the PIM designated router (DR).
D. No control plane signaling needs to be performed; the source can simply begin sending on the local subnet.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which of these statements about PIM join messages in classic PIM-SM is correct?
A. PIM join messages are sent every 60 seconds to refresh the upstream router’s mroute state for the multicast tree. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
B. Routers send a PIM join acknowledgement in response to each PIM join message received from a downstream router.
C. PIM join messages are only sent when the multicast distribution tree is first being established.
D. PIM join messages are sent every three minutes to refresh the upstream router’s mroute state for the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
The ip pim autorp listener command is used to do which of these?
A. enable a Cisco router to “passively” listen to Auto-RP packets without the router actively sending or forwarding any of the packets
B. allow Auto-RP packets in groups 224.0.1.39 and 224.0.1.40 to be flooded in dense mode out interfaces configured with the ip pim sparse-mode command
C. enable the use of Auto-RP on a router
D. configure the router as an Auto-RP mapping agent

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
In order to configure two routers as anycast RPs, which of these requirements, at a minimum, must be satisfied?
A. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol mesh-groups must be configured between the two anycast RPs.
B. The RPs must be within the same IGP domain.
C. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol must be configured between the two anycast RPs.
D. The two anycast RPs must be IBGP peers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Which two of these statements correctly describe classic PIM-SM? (Choose two.)
A. The IOS default is for a last-hop router to trigger a switch to the shortest path tree as soon as a new
source is detected on the shared tree.
B. The IOS default is for every one of the routers on the shared tree to trigger a switch to the shortest path tree as soon as a new source is detected on the shared tree.
C. The default behavior of switching to the shortest path tree as soon as a new source is detected on the shared tree can be disabled by setting the value in the ip pim spt-threshold command to “infinity.”
D. The default behavior of switching to the shortest path tree as soon as a new source is detected on the shared tree can be disabled by setting the value in the ip pim spt-threshold PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001 command to “zero.”

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 47
In Layer 2 topologies, spanning-tree failures can cause loops in the network. These unblocked loops can cause network failures because of excessive traffic. Which two Catalyst 6500 features can be used to limit excessive traffic during spanning-tree loop conditions? (Choose two.)
A. loop guard
B. storm control
C. storm suppression
D. broadcast suppression
E. BPDU guard

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 48
Why does RSTP have a better convergence time than 802.1D?
A. it is newer
B. it has smaller timers
C. it has less overhead
D. it is not timer-based

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Under which two circumstances would an RSTP bridge flush its CAM table? (Choose two.)
A. upon a port state change
B. upon receiving a topology change notification
C. when transitioning from discarding to forwarding
D. when transitioning from forwarding to discarding
E. only when changing from listening to discarding
F. when CAM resources have been completely used up

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 50
Which of these correctly identifies a difference between the way BPDUs are handled by 802.1w and 802.1D?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
A. 802.1D bridges do not relay BPDUs.
B. 802.1w bridges do not relay BPDUs.
C. 802.1D bridges only relay BPDUs received from the root.
D. 802.1w bridges only relay BPDUs received from the root.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
NBAR supports all of these with the exception of which one?
A. HTTP
B. IP multicast
C. TCP flows with dynamically assigned port numbers
D. non-UDP protocols
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
Modified deficit round robin supports which of these functionalities?
A. priority queue
B. weighted fair queues
C. round-robin service of output queues
D. LLQ

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 53
A router is connected to an HDLC circuit via a T1 physical interface. The SLA for this link only allows for a sustained rate of 768 kb/s. Bursts are allowed for up to 30 seconds at up to line rate, with a window Tc of 125 ms. What should the Bc and Be setting be when using generic traffic shaping?
A. Be = 46320000 , Bc = 96000
B. Be = ,768000 Bc = 32000
C. Be = ,128000 Bc = 7680
D. Be = ,0 Bc = 96000

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
Which of these tables is used by an LSR to perform a forwarding lookup for a packet destined to an address within an RFC 4364 VPN?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
A. CEF
B. FIB
C. LFIB
D. IGP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
Which two of these parameters are used to determine a forwarding equivalence class? (Choose two.)
A. IP prefix
B. Layer 2 circuit
C. RSVP request from CE for bandwidth reservation
D. BGP MED value

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 56
A network is composed of several VRFs. It is required that VRF users VRF_A and VRF_B be able to route to and from VRF_C, which hosts shared services. However, traffic must not be allowed to flow between VRF_A and VRF_B. How can this be accomplished?
A. route redistribution
B. import and export using route descriptors
C. import and export using route targets
D. Cisco MPLS Traffic Engineering

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which of these statements best describes the major difference between an IPv4-compatible tunnel and a 6to4 tunnel?
A. An IPv4-compatible tunnel is a static tunnel, but an 6to4 tunnel is a semiautomatic tunnel.
B. The deployment of a IPv4-compatible tunnel requires a special code on the edge routers, but a 6to4 tunnel does not require any special code.
C. An IPv4-compatible tunnel is typically used only between two IPv6 domains, but a 6to4 tunnel is used to connect to connect two or more IPv6 domains.
D. For an IPv4-compatible tunnel, the ISP assigns only IPv4 addresses for each domain, but for a 6to4 tunnel, the ISP assigns only IPv6 addresses for each domain.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which information is carried in an OSPFv3 intra-area-prefix LSA?
A. IPv6 prefixes
B. link-local addresses
C. solicited node multicast addresses
D. IPv6 prefixes and topology information

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Which IPv6 address would you ping to determine if OSPFv3 is able to send and receive unicast packets across a link?
A. anycast address
B. site-local multicast
C. global address of the link
D. unique local address
E. link-local address

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
You are using IPv6, and would like to configure EIGRPv3. Which three of these correctly describe how you can perform this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. EIGRP for IPv6 is directly configured on the interfaces over which it runs.
B. EIGRP for IPv6 is not configured on the interfaces over which it runs, but if a user uses passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 needs to be configured on the interface that is made passive.
C. There is a network statement configuration in EIGRP for IPv6, the same as for IPv4.
D. There is no network statement configuration in EIGRP for IPv6.
E. When a user uses a passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 does not need to be configured on the interface that is made passive.
F. When a user uses a non-passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 does not need to be configured on the interface that is made passive

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 61
Which of these statements accurately identifies how Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding can be employed to prevent the use of malformed or forged IP sources addresses?
A. It is applied only on the input interface of a router. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
B. It is applied only on the output interface of a router.
C. It can be configured either on the input or output interface of a router.
D. It cannot be configured on a router interface.
E. It is configured under any routing protocol process.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding can perform all of these actions except which one?
A. examine all packets received to make sure that the source addresses and source interfaces appear in the routing table and match the interfaces where the packets were received
B. check to see if any packet received at a router interface arrives on the best return path
C. combine with a configured ACL
D. log its events, if you specify the logging options for the ACL entries used by the unicast rpf command
E. inspect IP packets encapsulated in tunnels, such as GRE

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 63
Which three of these statements about Dynamic Trunking Protocol are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It supports autonegotiation for both ISL and IEEE 802.1Q trunks.
B. It must be disabled on an interface if you do not want the interface to work as a trunk or start negotiation to become a trunk.
C. It is a point-to-multipoint protocol.
D. It is a point-to-point protocol.
E. It is not supported on private VLAN ports or tunneling ports.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 64
You are designing your network to be able to use trunks. As part of this process you are comparing the ISL and 802.1Q encapsulation options. All of these statements about the two encapsulation options are correct except which one?
A. Both support normal and extended VLAN ranges.
B. ISL is a Cisco proprietary encapsulation method and 802.1Q is an IEEE standard.
C. ISL encapsulates the original frame.
D. Both support native VLANs.
E. 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What s the default stratum clock on a Cisco router, when you see the key word “master” configured on the NTP line?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 66
Though many options are supported in EIGRPv6, select two options from the below list that are supported. Choose 2
A. VRF
B. auto-summary
C. per-interface configuration
D. prefix-list support via route-map
E. prefix-list support via distribute-list

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 67
During the IPv6 address resolution, a node sends a neighbor solicitation message in order to discover which of these?
A. The Layer 2 multicast address of the destination node
B. The solicited node multicast address of the destination node
C. The Layer 2 address of the destination node based on the destination IPv6 address
D. The IPv6 address of the destination node based on the destination Layer 2 address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which one of these statements is true of OSPF type 5 LSAs?
A. They are used to summarize area routes to other areas.
B. They are used in not-so-stubby areas to propagate external routes.
C. They are used to notify areas of the ASBR.
D. They are flooded to all areas except stub areas (external route). PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Which OSPF LSA type does an ASBR use to originate a default route into an area?
A. LSA 1
B. LSA 3
C. LSA 4
D. LSA 5
E. LSA 7
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected. Given the configuration, how many EIGRP routes will router B see in its routing table?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
E. 4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running EIGRP, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?

A. The network statements are misconfigured.
B. The IP address statements are misconfigured.
C. The autonomous system is misconfigured.
D. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running OSPF, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. The routers are not on the same network.
B. The network statements do not match.
C. The process number does not match.
D. The MTU does not match.
E. The OSPF cost does not match.
F. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 199.155.24.0 network are unable to reach the 172.16.10.0 network. What is the most likely solution?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. Router ISP1 should be configured to peer with router B.
B. Router ISP2 should be configured with no synchronization.
C. Router ISP1 should be configured with no synchronization.
D. Router ISP2 should be configured with no auto-summary.
E. Router ISP1 or IPS2 should be configured with network 176.16.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 74
Two BGP peers connected through a routed firewall are unable to establish a peering relationship. What could be the most likely cause?
A. BGP peers must be Layer 2-adjacent.
B. EBGP multihop is not configured.
C. The firewall is not configured to allow IP protocol 89.
D. The firewall is not configured to allow UDP 179.

Correct Answer: B

The Cisco 350-029 certification can make you a competent person.It may enable a technician to know about the Cisco 350-029 configurations,get information about the Cisco 350-029 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Cisco 350-029 united computing systems.

Most Accurate Cisco 350-029 Practice Test With All New Question and Answer Easily Free Download

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)
A. asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B. normal response mode (NRM)
C. normal peer mode (NPM)
D. asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E. asynchronous response mode (ARM)
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
IP over DWDM management models (Choose two.)
A. Segmented Management
B. Integrated Management
C. Virtual Transponder
D. Traffic Management
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)
A. general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B. section monitoring
C. reserved (RES)
D. general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
What is one of the primary overhead fields associated with the Optical Payload Unit (OPU)?
A. path monitoring
B. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
C. Payload Structure Identifier (PSI)
D. multiframe alignment signal (MFAS)
E. section monitoring
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
In optical channel transport unit overhead (OTU OH), what are general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) used for?
A. for trail trace identification
B. as the backward defect indicator
C. to transmit information between OTU termination points
D. to extend command and management functions over several frames
E. General communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) do not belong to OTU OH.
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 6

What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. one route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. one distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. one line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. one route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. one line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)
A. XML
B. RIB
C. FIB
D. QoS
E. PFI
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
Which statement about Software Maintenance Upgrade is true?
A. CRS-1 SMU can be applied to a different platform, and vice versa.
B. SMU is an executable code for running a process or libraries that are shared between the different processes.
C. SMUs for each release are individually downloadable from Cisco.com and come in the form of a tar ball.
D. SMUs provide software fixes for critical network down and qualification blocking issues. Therefore, every software defect has a corresponding SMU.
E. SMUs are release-specific. If an issue affects multiple platforms or releases, an SMU is built separately for each release and each platform.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Cisco IOS XR has implemented a nonstop routing feature so that when RP failover occurs, the routing information can be recovered locally. Which protocol does not support the NSR feature?
A. OSPF
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. IS-IS
E. RSVP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which three components are included in the Cisco IOS XR infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. modular line cards
B. shelf controllers
C. route processors
D. service processors
E. distributed service cards
Correct Answer: BCD