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QUESTION 29
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30

A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting and beginning with the lowest layer, drag each procedure on the left to its proper category on the right.
Verify URL
Verify NIC operation
Verify IP configuration
Verify Ethernet cable connection

Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 31
Which two topologies are using the correct type of twisted-pair cables? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure that switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose two.)
A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports
B. A switch is a multiport bridge
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network
D. There are four collision domains in the network
E. There are five collision domains in the network
F. There are seven collision domains in the network

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 35
Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)
A. amount of RAM
B. bridge priority
C. IOS version
D. IP address
E. MAC address
F. speed of the links
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 36
What are two characteristics of Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices
C. It is more secure than SSH
D. It requires an enterprise license in order to be implemented
E. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 37

Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to configure the switches and router in the graphic so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2. Which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two.)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 38
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 39
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 40
What are two results of entering the Switch(config)# vtp mode client command on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will ignore VTP summary advertisements
B. The switch will forward VTP summary advertisements
C. The switch will process VTP summary advertisements
D. The switch will originate VTP summary advertisements
E. The switch will create, modify and delete VLANs for the entire VTP domain

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 41

Refer to the exhibit. This command is executed on 2960 Switch:
2960Switch(config)# mac-address-table static 0000.00aa.aaaa vlan10 interface fa0/1
Which two of these statements correctly identify results of executing the command? (Choose two.)

A. Port security is implemented on the fa0/1 interface
B. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa does not need to be learned by this switch
C. Only MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa can source frames on the fa0/1 segment
D. Frames with a Layer 2 source address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1
E. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa will be listed in the MAC address table for interface fa0/1 only

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 42

The network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? (Choose two.)
A. Switch1 (config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
B. Switch1(config)# mac-address-table secure
C. Switch1(config)# access-list 10 permit ip host
D. Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security violation shutdown
E. Switch1(config-if)# ip access-group 10
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 43

Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)
bits
packets
UDP
IP addresses
segments
MAC addresses
windowing
routing
switching

Network Layer
Transport Layer
A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets with the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave RouterB interface Fa0/1 towards RouterA. Drag the correct frame and packet addresses to their place in the table.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 45

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Correct Answer: CF QUESTION 46

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is to send data to Host B How will Router1 handle the data frame received from Host A? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address of Host B.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of HostB.
E. Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 47

Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
A. Interface Address: 192.168.4.7 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916 Type: dynamic
B. Interface Address: 192.168.4.7 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
C. Interface Address: 192.168.6.1 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
D. Interface Address: 192.168.6.1 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916 Type: dynamic
E. Interface Address: 192.168.6.2 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
F. Interface Address: 192.168.6.2 Physical Address: 000f.2485.8918 Type: dynamic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 49
Three different Certkiller routers are connected as shown below:

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 50
What should be done prior to backing up an IOS image to a TFTP server? (Choose three)
A. Make sure that the server can be reached across the network.
B. Check the authentication for TFTP access to the server is set.
C. Assure that the network server has adequate space for the IOS image.
D. Verify file naming and path requirements.
E. Make sure that the server can store binary files.
F. Adjust the TCP window size to speed up the transfer.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 51

Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)
A. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26
D. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 52
Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0/20? (Choose two.)
A. 172.31.17.4/30
B. 172.31.51.16/30
C. 172.31.64.0/18
D. 172.31.80.0/22
E. 172.31.92.0/22
F. 172.31.192.0/18
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 53

The Ethernet networks connect to router Certkiller 1 in the exhibit have been summarized for router Certkiller 2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will Certkiller 2 forward to Certkiller 1, according to this summary? Select two.
A. 192.1.159.2
B. 192.1.160.11
C. 192.1.138.41
D. 192.1.151.254
E. 192.1.143.145
F. 192.1.1.144

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 54

Drag the description on the left to the routing protocol on the right. (Not all options are used.)
Is vendor-specific
Uses cost as its metric
Uses hop count as its metric
Uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm
Elects a DR on each multi-access network
Has a default administrative distance of 90

EIGRP
OSPF

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 55

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56

Refer to the exhibit. The FMJ manufacturing company is concerned about unauthorized access to the Payroll Server. The Accounting1, CEO, Mgr1, and Mgr2 workstations should be the only computers with access to the Payroll Server. What two technologies should be implemented to help prevent unauthorized access to the server? (Choose two.)
A. access lists
B. encrypted router passwords
C. STP
D. VLANs
E. VTP
F. wireless LANs

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 57
An inbound access list has been configured on a serial interface to deny packet entry for TCP and UDP ports 21, 23 and 25. What types of packets will be permitted by this ACL? (Choose three.)
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. SMTP
D. DNS
E. HTTP
F. POP3

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 58
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 59
Which two devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate on similar frequencies? (Choose two.)
A. copier
B. microwave oven
C. toaster
D. cordless phone
E. IP phone
F. AM radio
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 60
What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)
A. ATM
B. IDS
C. IOS
D. IOX
E. IPS
F. SDM
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 61
With regard to bridges and switches, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Switches typically have a higher number of ports than bridges.
E. Bridges define broadcast domain while switches define collision domains.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 62
A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To ensure maximum throughput for the phone data, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is on a different network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which to directly connect the phones and computers, and what technology should be implemented on this device? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. STP
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 63

The network shown in the exhibit is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? Select two.
A. Configure the gateway on Certkiller A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Certkiller B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Certkiller A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Certkiller B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to Switch A. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about InterVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 66
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network
B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network
C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network
D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address
192.168.2.4
E. It uses the default administrative distance
F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 68

Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a 192.168. 176.0/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to R2? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.194.160
B. 192.168.183.41
C. 192.168.159.2
D. 192.168.183.255
E. 192.168.179.4
F. 192.168.184.45

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 69
What are two characteristics of the OSPF process identifier? (Select two answer choices)
A. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
B. It is an optional parameter only necessary if multiple OSPF processes are used.
C. It is locally significant.
D. It is globally insignificant
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID to exchange routing information.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 70

What are possible causes for the status of this interface? Select three.
A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 71
Which three Layer 2 encapsulation types would be used on a WAN rather than a LAN? (Choose three.)
A. HDLC
B. Ethernet
C. Token Ring
D. PPP
E. FDDI
F. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 72
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 73
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet.
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet.
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISP by an Internet registry organization

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 74
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS)
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS)
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
The Certkiller WAN is displayed in the diagram below:

Based on the information shown above, which routing protocols can be used within the Certkiller network show in the diagram? (Choose three).
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 76
The Certkiller network consists of a router, switch, and hub as shown below:

In accordance with the above diagram; which of the statements below correctly describe the switch port configuration and the router port configuration? (Select three answer choices)
A. The Certkiller 1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port.
B. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces.
C. The Certkiller 1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps.
D. The Switch1 port connected to Certkiller 1 is configured as a trunking port.
E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port.
F. The switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex.

Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming none of the switches autoconfigure, which of the topologies are properly cabled to allow the administrator to ping Host1 from the router?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ActualTests.com When connecting other devices to a switch, such as a router or workstations, a straight through cable is used. The only exception to this rule is when you are connecting another switch to a switch, in which case a cross over cable should be used. For a serial connection to another router or to a WAN, a serial cable should be used. Finally, when connecting directly to the console port of a Cisco device, a rollover cable should be used. This cable is also commonly referred to as a console cable.
QUESTION 56
You work as a network technician. Please study the exhibit carefully. What types of cables are recommended to make the connections that are shown?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam

A. A-straight-through B-crossover C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
B. A-rollover B-straight-through C-straight-through D-rollover E-crossover
C. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-crossover ActualTests.com B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Crossover is used to connect two hosts; straight-through is to connect network devices and hosts, or
network devices and network devices; rollover is mainly used to connect workstations and COM interface
of network devices.

Crossover Cables are Used to Connect :
Host to Host (Peer to Peer) Networking

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51
Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam

Switch to Switch
Hub to Hub
Computer to Router’s Ethernet Port
Straight through Cable:
Host to Switch
Host to Hub
Switch to Router
Serial Cable:
Router’s Serial Port to Serial Port

Rollover Cable :
To connect Router/Switch Console port.

QUESTION 57
Which set of terms correctly identifies the cable types shown in the exhibit? Assume that none of the switches autoconfigure.

A. A: crossover ActualTests.com
B. crossover
C. rollover
D. A: crossover
E. straight-through
F. rollover
G. A: straight-through
H. straight-through
I. rollover
J. A: crossover
K. straight-through
L. straight-through “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 52 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For Ethernet, use crossover cable for connection between DTE devices or connection from DCE to DCE
devices; use straight-through cable for connection from DTE to DCE. DCE device is a hub or switch.
Rollover cable is not used to connect Ethernet, which is used to connect host and port com of the router.
The cable to connect console port is known as console cable.

QUESTION 58
You work as a network technician. Please study the exhibit carefully. Host PC-A has been added to the network. Which type of cable should be used between Switc2h and host PC-A?

A. straight-through cable ActualTests.com
B. console cable
C. rollover cable
D. crossover cable
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The same layer devices use crossover cable to connect, which is to connect two computers; different layer devices use straight-through cable to connect, which is to connect network devices and computers or network devices and network devices; rollover cable is used to connect host and the com interface of router.
Straight-through cables are used to connect hosts to a switch (or hub) and routers to a switch (or hub). See the table below:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam

QUESTION 59
Choose suitable connecting cables for the following two network equipment connection graphs (Choose two.)

A. QA — straight-through QB — straight-through
B. QA — Crossover QB — Crossover
C. QA — straight-through ActualTests.com QB — Crossover
D. QA — Crossover QB — straight-through
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Devices of the same layer are connected by crossover cable, while devices of different layers are connected by straight-through cable. Router —— Crossover ——- Router Router —— Crossover ——- PC Router —— straight-through ——- Switch Switch —— straight-through ——- PC Switch —— Crossover ——- Switch “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
In addition, types of cables for special interfaces are used depending on the actual situations.
QUESTION 60
DRAG DROP
Drag the options on the right to the proper locations.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: ActualTests.com

Section 2: Explain the technology and media access control method for Ethernet networks (4 questions)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
QUESTION 61
Which one of the following statements is the media access method that Gigabit Ethernet uses?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
C. point-to-point
D. token passing

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detect (CSMA/CD) is the protocol for carrier transmission access in 10/100/1000 Ethernet networks. On Ethernet, any device can try to send a frame at any time. Each device senses whether the line is idle and therefore available to be used. If it is, the device begins to transmit its first frame. If another device has tried to send at the same time, a collision is said to occur and the frames are discarded. Each device then waits a random amount of time and retries until successful in getting its transmission sent. CSMA/CD is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard. Reference: http://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/sDefinition/0,,sid7_gci213869,00.html
QUESTION 62
A network administrator wants to control which user hosts can access the network based on their MAC address. What will prevent workstations with unauthorized MAC addresses from connecting to the network through a switch?
A. port security
B. RSTP
C. STP ActualTests.com
D. BPDU

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Understanding How Port Security Works : You can use port security to block input to an Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, or Gigabit Ethernet port when the MAC address of the station attempting to access the port is different from any of the MAC addresses specified for that port. Alternatively, you can use port security to filter traffic destined to or received from a specific host based on the host MAC address. When a secure port receives a packet, the source MAC address of the packet is compared to the list of secure source addresses that were manually configured or autoconfigured (learned) on the port. If a MAC address of a device attached to the port differs from the list of secure addresses, the port either shuts down permanently (default mode), shuts down for the time you have
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 56 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
specified, or drops incoming packets from the insecure host. The port’s behavior depends on how you configure it to respond to a security violation. If a security violation occurs, the Link LED for that port turns orange, and a link-down trap is sent to the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) manager. An SNMP trap is not sent if you configure the port for restrictive violation mode. A trap is sent only if you configure the port to shut down during a security violation. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps700/products_configuration_guide_chapter0 9186a008007fa13.html#xtocid256011
QUESTION 63
When you consider half-duplex and full-duplex Ethernet, what are unique for half-duplex Ethernet? (Choose two.)
A. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in an exclusive broadcast domain.
B. Half-duplex Ethernet has efficient throughput.
C. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain
D. Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective throughput.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A single device could not be sending a frame and receiving a frame at the same time because it would mean that a collision was occurring. So, devices simply chose not to send a frame while receiving a frame. That logic is called half-duplex logic. Ethernet switches allow multiple frames to be sent over different ports at the same time. Additionally, if only one device is connected to a switch port, there is never a possibility that a collision could occur. So, LAN switches with only one device cabled to each port of the switch ActualTests.com allow the use of full-duplex operation. Full duplex means that an Ethernet card can send and receive concurrently. Incorrect Answers:
A: Full duplex effectively doubles the throughput of half-duplex operation, because data can be both sent and received at the full 10/100 speed.
B: In half duplex operation, the network is shared between all devices in the collision domain.Reference: CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-094-5) Page 62-63.
QUESTION 64
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
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A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Section 3: Explain network segmentation and basic traffic management concepts (6 questions)

QUESTION 65
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

ActualTests.com
A. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are five collision domains in the network.
C. There are four collision domains in the network.
D. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
E. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A hub is both a broadcast domain and a collision domain. A switch is a broadcast domain and each
interface of a switch is a collision domain.
Each interface of a router is a broadcast domain.

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E0 and E1 are interfaces of the router; therefore, E0 and E1 are broadcast domains. There are two
broadcast domains in the network.
The hub connected to the E0 interface of the router is a collision domain. The switch connected to the E1
interface of the router is a collision domain. The five PCs connected to the switch are five collision
domains. Therefore, there are seven collision domains in the network.

In this network we have a hub being used in the Sales department, and a switch being used in the Production department. Based on this, we have two broadcast domains: one for each network being separated by a router. For the collision domains, we have 5 computers and one port for E1 so we have 6 collision domains total because we use a switch in the Production Department so 5 are created there, plus one collision domain for the entire Sales department because a hub is being used.
QUESTION 66
Both Switches and Hubs are used in the network, please study the exhibit carefully, how many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

ActualTests.com
A. one
B. twelve
C. six
D. two

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) technology is to solve the problem that switches can’t limit broadcast within the LAN interconnection. This technology can divide a LAN into more logical LAN- VLAN, each VLAN is a broadcast domain, the communication between the hosts within a VLAN is like that of the hosts in a LAN, while the communication can’t be achieved between VLANs directly. Thus the broadcast datagram is limited within a LAN. Based on the network
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structure shown in the above figure, there is only one default VLAN for two switches, so they are in the same broadcast domain and can communicate with each other.
A broadcast domain is a logical division of a computer network, in which all nodes can reach each other by broadcast at the data link layer. In terms of current popular technologies: Any computer connected to the same Ethernet repeater or switch is a member of the same broadcast domain. Further, any computer connected to the same set of inter-connected switches/repeaters is a member of the same broadcast domain. Routers and other higher-layer devices form boundaries between broadcast domains. This is as compared to a collision domain, which would be all nodes on the same set of inter- connected repeaters, divided by switches and learning bridges. Collision domains are generally smaller than, and contained within, broadcast domains. In this case, since all devices belong to the default VLAN (VLAN 1) they all belong to the same broadcast domain.
QUESTION 67
What are some of the advantages of using a router to segment the network? (Choose two.)
A. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.
B. Broadcasts are eliminated.
C. Routers generally cost less than switches.
D. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
E. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By using a router to segment the network, we can

1.
Control the traffic across Layer 3 and filter data based on Layer 3 information. ActualTests.com

2.
Reduce broadcasts to save on network resources and improve efficiency.
When the router’s interface receives the broadcast, it discard the broadcast without forwarding it on to other networks. Even though routers are known for breaking up broadcast domains by default, it’s important to remember that they break up collision domains as well. There are two advantages of using routers in your network:
*
They don’t forward broadcasts by default.

*
They can filter the network based on layer 3 (Network layer) information (e.g., IP address) by using IOS based firewall ie. ACL Four router functions in your network can be listed as follows:

*
Packet switching

*
Packet filtering

*
Internetwork communication

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*
Path selection
QUESTION 68
How does replacing a hub with a switch affect CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network?
A. In increases the size of the collision domain by allowing more devices to be connected at once.
B. It effectively eliminates collisions.
C. It reduces the total amount of bandwidth available to each device.
D. It decreases the amount of time that a jam signal must be sent to reach all network devices.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If all network segments in the Ethernet connect with repeaters, because they can not avoid conflict, they
remain in the same conflict domain. Switches can be used effectively prevent conflict, but not HUB.
Because switch can choose route using physical address, each of its port is a conflict domain. But HUB
has no such ability, it will only send out the received data through broadcast, which will easily cause
broadcasting storm. All of its ports are in a single conflict domain.

Ethernet hubs use a process with the name carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD) to
communicate across the network. Under CSMA/CD, a node does not send out a packet unless the
network is clear of traffic. If two nodes send out packets at the same time, a collision occurs and the
packets are lost. Then, both nodes wait for a random amount of time and retransmit the packets. Any part

of the network where packets from two or more nodes can interfere with each other is a collision domain. A network with a large number of nodes on the same segment often has a lot of collisions and, therefore, a large collision domain. Switching on the other hand allows a network to maintain full-duplex Ethernet. Before switching ActualTests.com existed, Ethernet was half duplex. Half duplex means that only one device on the network can transmit at any given time. In a fully switched network, nodes only communicate with the switch and never directly with each other. In the road analogy, half duplex is similar to the problem of a single lane, when road construction closes one lane of a two-lane road. Traffic attempts to use the same lane in both directions. Traffic that comes one way must wait until traffic from the other direction stops in order to avoid collision. Fully switched networks employ either twisted pair or fiber-optic cable setups. Both twisted pair and fiber-optic cable systems use separate conductors to send and receive data. In this type of environment, Ethernet nodes can forgo the collision detection process and transmit at will; these nodes are the only devices with the potential to access the medium. In other words, the network dedicates a separate lane to traffic that flows in each direction. This dedication allows nodes to transmit to the switch at the same time that the switch transmits to the nodes. Thus, the environment is collision-free.
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Reference: How LAN Switches Work http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a00800a7af3.shtml
QUESTION 69
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in the exhibited topology?

A. three
B. four
C. two
D. six
E. five
F. one

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
Explanation:
From the features of the VLAN, we know that a VLAN is a broadcast domain. There are three VLANs in the
exhibit, so three broadcast domains exist in the exhibited topology.

QUESTION 70
A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. The associate knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the necessary resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. The associate needs to determine which interfaces are access ports. Which interfaces are access ports? (Choose three.)
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A. Switch1 – Fa 0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa 0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa 0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa 0/4
E. Switch2- Fa 0/8
F. Router – Fa 1/0

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Section 4: Explain basic switching concepts and the operation of Cisco switches (16 questions)

QUESTION 71
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

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A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit. After the power-on self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch?

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A. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.
B. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
C. The POST was successful.
D. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When switch is connected to power and conduct Self Test, LED lights turn to Amber, this tells us of POST failure. POST failure is a fatal error; it means the switch does not work. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 64 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
QUESTION 73
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A. when a dual ring topology is in use
B. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
C. after broken links are re-established
D. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
E. during high traffic periods

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A redundant topology eliminates single points of failure, but it also causes broadcast storms, multiple frame copies, and MAC address table instability problems. Multiple Frame Copies–when a new switch is added, the other switches may not have learned its correct MAC address. The host may send a unicast frame to the new switch. The frame is sent through several paths at the same time. The new switch will receive several copies of the frame. This causes MAC database instability. MAC database instability results when multiple copies of a frame arrive on different ports of a switch. Layer 2 has no mechanism to stop the loop. This is the main reason for the Spanning Tree Protocol(STP) IEEE 802.1d which was developed to prevent routing loops. If multiple connections between switches are created for redundancy purposes, network loops can occur in an improperly designed topology. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is used to stop network loops while still permitting redundancy.
QUESTION 74
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Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Switches build the MAC address table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC
address in the frame. Broadcast addresses are not source addresses in the broadcasts.

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There are three different address types:

*
Unicast : One source to One destination

*
Broadcast: One source to multiple destination

*
Multicast: One source to multiple destination joined to group
On unicast or broadcast or multicast communication, the source address is always the unicast address but the destination address can be unicast, broadcast or multicast.
QUESTION 75
Out of which ports on Sw-AC3 will a frame be forwarded that has Source MAC address 0010.5a0c.fd86 and destination MAC address 000a.8a47.e612?(Choose three) ActualTests.com Sw-AC3#show mac-address-table

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Sw-AC3#show vlan ActualTests.com Sw-AC3#show int trunk
A. Fa0/1
B. Fa0/3
C. Fa0/12
D. Fa0/8

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam

Explanation:
The source MAC address of the frame to be transmitted is 0010.5a0c.fd86 The destination MAC address is
000a.8a47.e612
Compared with the MAC address table of Sw-Ac3, we know that the destination address does not exist, so
Sw-Ac3 will transmit this frame using all other ports (except the frame receiving port- Fa0/6), that is to say,
flooding this frame from ports Fa0/1, Fa0/3, Fa0/9, Fa0/12.

QUESTION 76
DRAG DROP
Drag the items to the proper locations.

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A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 68

Explanation:

ActualTests.com
1.
The high level testing commands such as debug that allow access should be conducted under enable mode

2.
Access to configuration commands under configure terminal

3.
The command to set the system name is hostname

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4.
Configure vlan, interface vlan 1 may be used to configure details in vlan

5.
Input no shutdown under interface configure mode to activate interface

6.
Use command ip address to configure IP address, and sets the switch management

7.
Use command ip default-gateway to configure default gateway
QUESTION 77
The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
A. The system is powered up and operational.
B. The system is forwarding traffic.
C. The system is malfunctioning.
D. The system is not powered up.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: While the switch powers on, it begins POST, a series of tests. POST runs automatically to verify that the switch functions properly. When the switch begins POST, the system LED is off. If POST completes successfully, the LED turns green. If POST fails, the LED turns amber. Note : POST failures are usually fatal. Call Cisco Systems if your switch does not pass POST.
QUESTION 78
A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased?
A. Erase the running configuration.
B. Restart the switch.
ActualTests.com
C. Modify the configuration register.
D. Delete the VLAN database.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For switches such as the 2950, the process is much the same as a router, but you should delete the
VLAN.DAT file before reloading the router. This file contains VLAN information and is kept in flash, so it will
still be present after a reload.

switch1#delete vlan.dat
Delete filename [vlan.dat]?
Delete flash:vlan.dat? [confirm]
switch1#reload
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Make sure to hit for the two questions regarding the deletion – if you answer “y” instead, the switch thinks
you’re trying to erase a file named “y”!
After the reload is complete, you’ll be prompted to enter setup mode. As you did with the router, enter “N”
and begin to configure the router from user exec mode.

***

QUESTION 79
Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)
A. bridge priority
B. IP address
C. MAC address
D. IOS version
E. amount of RAM
F. speed of the links

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Two values are compared to elect a root bridge in STP: bridge priority and MAC address.

Switch having lowest bridge ID will become the root bridge. The bridge ID is how STP keeps track of all the
switches in the network. It is determined by a combination of the bridge priority (32,768 by default on all
Cisco switches) and the base MAC address. The bridge with the lowest bridge ID becomes the root bridge
in the network.

ActualTests.com

QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 has just been restarted and has passed the POST routine. Host A sends its initial frame to Host C. What is the first thing the switch will do as regards populating the switching table?
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A. Switch1 will add 192.168.23.12 to the switching table.
B. Switch1 will add 000B.DB95.2EE9 to the switching table.
C. Switch1 will add 192.168.23.4 to the switching table.
D. Switch1 will add 000A.8A47.E612 to the switching table.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: That Switch1 has just been restarted and has passed the POST routine indicates that the MAC address table of Switch1 is empty. When Host A sends its initial frame to Host C, Switch1 records the MAC address of Host A and the mapping port number in its MAC address table. Note that a switch records the source MAC address rather than the destination MAC address.
QUESTION 81
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

ActualTests.com
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A. Switch1
B. Switch4
C. Switch3
D. Switch2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Printers are connected by hubs. Decide the switch that provides the spanning-tree designated port role
between Switch3 and Switch4. They have the same priority 32768. Compare their MAC addresses.
Switch3 with a smaller MAC address will provide a designated port for printers.

Designated port A designated port is one that has been determined as having the best (lowest) cost. A
designated port will be marked as a forwarding port.

QUESTION 82
What will an Ethernet switch do if it receives a unicast frame with a destination MAC that is listed in the switch table?
A. The switch will forward the frame to a specific port.
B. The switch will forward the frame to all ports except the port on which it was received.
C. The switch will return a copy of the frame out the source port.
D. The switch will remove the destination MAC from the switch table.
E. The switch will not forward unicast frames.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When an Ethernet switch receives a unicast frame with a destination MAC that is listed in the
ActualTests.com
switch table, the switch will search its own MAC address table for the specific port mapping the MAC
address. The switch won’t forward the frame to all the ports. Thus, resources are saved and efficiency is
improved.

How Does the Switch Find Host MACs?
Let’s use the diagram below to help us understand how address learning process takes place.

QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the switch have two MAC addresses assigned to the FastEthernet 0/1 port in the switch address table?
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A. Either Host3 or Host4 has just had the NIC replaced.
B. Data from Host3 and Host4 has been received by switch port FastEthernet 0/1.
C. Host3 and Host4 are on two different VLANs.
D. Data from two of the devices connected to the switch has been sent to Host3.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The reason that switches are able to send data packets directly to destination node, rather than send data packets to all nodes like hub using broadcasting, is that Switch is able to identify network card MAC address that connected to network nodes, andplace them to MAC address table. The MAC address table is stored in switch cache, when sending data to destination address, switch will search for the node location of this MAC address in the MAC address table, ActualTests.com and then send directly to the node in this location.
Switches learn the MAC addresses of PCs or workstations that are connected to their switch ports by examining the source address of frames that are received on that port. When more than one device is attached to a switch port, such as via the use of a hub as shown in this example, the switch will retain the MAC address of each of the known devices on that port.
QUESTION 84
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source switch port “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 74 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
B. destination IP address
C. destination port address
D. destination MAC address

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Switches use port address table to find locations of the receiving station. When a port receives a frame,
switch will first study and then forward. Switches will check destination MAC addresses on the frame head,

and search for the corresponding entries in port address table. If matching entry is found, switch will forward the frame from the designated port. If the port is the same port that receives this frame (sending and receiving stations are connected to the same port), switch will discard the frame. If no entry is found, or destination MAC address is broadcast address or multi- cast address, switch will flood out the frame from all the rest ports.
QUESTION 85
A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased? (Choose three.)
A. Erase flash.
B. Restart the switch.
C. Delete the VLAN database.
D. Erase the running configuration.
E. Erase the startup configuration.
F. Modify the configuration register.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ActualTests.com
For switches such as the 2950, the process is much the same as a router, but you should delete the
VLAN.DAT file before reloading the router. This file contains VLAN information and is kept in flash, so it will
still be present after a reload.

switch1#delete vlan.dat
Delete filename [vlan.dat]?
Delete flash:vlan.dat? [confirm]
switch1#reload
Make sure to hit for the two questions regarding the deletion – if you answer “y” instead, the switch thinks
you’re trying to erase a file named “y”!
After the reload is complete, you’ll be prompted to enter setup mode. As you did with the router, enter “N”
and begin to configure the router from user exec mode.

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Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam

QUESTION 86
The network administrator has discovered that the power supply has failed on a switch in the company LAN and that the switch has stopped functioning. It has been replaced with a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What must be done to ensure that this new switch becomes the root bridge on the network?
A. Lower the bridge priority number.
B. Change the MAC address of the switch.
C. Increase the VTP revision number for the domain.
D. Lower the root path cost on the switch ports.
E. Assign the switch an IP address with the lowest value.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Section 5: Perform and verify initial switch configuration tasks including remote access management (10
questions)

QUESTION 87
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. To ensure that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other.
B. To provide local hosts with a default gateway address
C. To allow the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. To allow remote management of the switch. ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Switch is a layer 2 device and doesn’t use network layer for packet forwarding. The IP address may be
used only for administrative purposes such as Telnet access or for network management purposes.

QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is unable to connect remotely to a device and initiates a console session. The administrator executes the show ip interface brief command. Why did the remote connection fail?
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A. The Gigabit Ethernet interfaces are not up
B. The switch does not have a management IP address assigned.
C. The switch needs to have a clock rate entered on one of its interfaces.
D. VLAN1 is shut down.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The virtual LAN Interface can be enabled or disabled with shutdown/no shutdown command. If you interface is down, it will display administratively down status. You can bring up an interface having administratively down interface using no shutdown command. Since the only IP configured on the switch belongs to VLAN 1, it needs to be enabled for you to remotely access the device.
QUESTION 89
As a trainee you are required to set the default gateway on a Cisco switch to the IP address of
192.168.1.115. Which IOS command should you use?
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A. switch(config)# ip default-network 192.168.1.115
B. switch(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.115
C. switch(config)# ip route-default 192.168.1.115
D. switch(config)# ip route 192.168.1.115 0.0.0.0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Use the “ip default-gateway” command to enter the IP address of the next-hop router interface that is directly connected to the switch where a default gateway is being configured. The default gateway receives IP packets with unresolved destination IP addresses from the switch. Once the default gateway is configured, the switch has connectivity to the remote networks with which a host needs to communicate.
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QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: MTU is short for Maximum Transmission Unit , which refers to the largest data packet transmitted on the network. The unit of MTU is byte. The MTU of most network devices is 1500 byte. If the MTU of the router is larger than that of the gateway, large packets will be split in order to transmit, this causes the production of many data packet fragments, increasing the packet loss rate and lowering the network speed. If the MTU of one device matches that of another, the packet loss rate will be reduced.
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 91
The network administrator cannot connect to SWITCH1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to SWITCH1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and SWITCH2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on SWITCH1 to correct this problem?
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ActualTests.com
A. SWITCH1(config)# interface fa0/1 SWITCH1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
B. SWITCH1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
C. SWITCH1(config)# interface fa0/1 SWITCH1(config-if)# duplex full SWITCH1(config-if)# speed 100
D. SWITCH1(config)# line con0 SWITCH1(config-line)# password cisco SWITCH1(config-line)#login ——————————————————————————– “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 79 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To route traffic to other vlans, we need to enter the IP address of the next-hop router interface that is directly connected to the switch where a default gateway is being configured. The default gateway receives IP packets with unresolved destination IP addresses from the switch. Once the default gateway is configured, the switch will have connectivity to the remote networks with which a host needs to communicate.
QUESTION 92
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three)
A. Auto
B. Desirable
C. On
D. Transparent

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Here, the trunk link is identified by its physical location as the switch module number and port number. The trunking mode can be set to any of the following: on -This setting places the port in permanent trunking mode. The corresponding switch port at the other end of the trunk should be similarly configured because negotiation is not allowed. The encapsulation or identification mode should also be manually configured. off -Th is setting places the port in permanent non-trunking mode. The port will attempt to convert the link to non-trunking mode. ActualTests.com desirable -Selecting this port will actively attempt to convert the link into trunking mode. If the far end switch port is configured to on , desirable , or auto mode, trunking will be successfully negotiated. auto -The port will be willing to convert the link into trunking mode. If the far end switch port is configured to on or desirable , trunking will be negotiated. By default, all Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet links that are capable of negotiating using DTP are configured to this mode. Because of the passive negotiation behavior, the link will never become a trunk, if both ends of the link are left to the auto default. nonegotiate -The port is placed in permanent trunking mode, but no DTP frames are generated for negotiation. The far end switch port must be manually configured for trunking mode.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 80 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
QUESTION 93
Refer to the exhibit. The host PC must be able to telnet to switch3 through router1 for management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?

A. cross-over cable connecting switch3 and Router1
B. VLAN 1 on router1 C. default gateway on switch3
D. IP routing on switch3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Default gateway refers to router default gateway, which is used to realize access between vlans. When a
router receives a destination unknown address packet, it will be sent to the default gateway (such as a
router’s interface) if default gateway exists, otherwise the packet will be discarded.

In order for a switch to send traffic to a destination that is not located directly, as is the case in our
example, a default gateway must be configured on the switch. This will enable it to send the traffic to router
Router1 where it can be routed to the host.
Incorrect Answers:
ActualTests.com

A: A cross over cable is used to connect two switches or two routers together back to back, but a straight through cable should be used when connecting a switch to a routers.
B: This is the default VLAN used and does not need to be configured.
D: IP routing does not need to be enabled, just the default gateway.
QUESTION 94
Refer to the graphic. Computer 1 is consoled into SWITCH1. Telnet connections and pings run from the command prompt on SWITCH1 fail. Which of the following could cause this problem?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 81 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam

A. SWITCH1 is not directly connected to Router1.
B. Port 1 on SWITCH1 should be an access port rather than a trunk port.
C. SWITCH1 does not have a default gateway assigned.
D. SWITCH1 does not have an IP address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For ping and Telnet the switch should be configured with the IP address and the default gateway. IP is
used for administrative purposes, and is needed so the end device will know which IP ActualTests.com
address to direct the ICMP and telnet reply traffic to.
Incorrect Answers:

A: This is not required, since switch LANs can span multiple VLANs and switches and hubs can be connected directly together.
B: The port type in this case will not cause any kind of connectivity problems, since Trunk ports pass information from all VLANs by default.
C: CDP is not required in order for ping and telnet traffic to work.
QUESTION 95
The switches shown in the diagram, Core and Core2, are both Catalyst 2950s. The addressing scheme for each company site is as follows:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 82 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
Router Ethernet port 1st usable address Core 2nd usable address Core2 3rd usable address For this network, which of the following commands must be configured on Core2 to allow it to be managed remotely from any subnet on the network? (Choose three.)

A. Core2(config)# interface f0/0 Core2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.10 255.255.255.248
B. Core2(config)# interface vlan 1 Core2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.248
C. Core2(config)# line con 0 Core2(config-line)# password cisco
D. Core2(config)# line vty 0 4 Core2(config-line)# password cisco
E. Core2(config)# ip default gateway 192.168.1.9
F. Core2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.8

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
An administrator would like to configure a switch over a virtual terminal connection from locations outside of the local LAN. Which of the following are required in order for the switch to be configured from a remote location? (Choose two.)
A. The switch must be configured with an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.
B. The switch must be connected to a router over a VLAN trunk. ActualTests.com
C. The switch must be reachable through a port connected to its management VLAN.
D. The switch console port must be connected to the Ethernet LAN.
E. The switch management VLAN must be created and have a membership of at least one switch port.
F. The switch must be fully configured as an SNMP agent.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Section 6: Verify network status and switch operation using basic utilities (including: ping, traceroute,
telnet, SSH, arp, ipconfig), SHOW & DEBUG commands (12 questions)

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 83
Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam

QUESTION 97
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is a possible problem?

A. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
B. Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
D. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
E. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Host1 tries to communicate with Host2. The message destination host unreachable from Router1 indicates
that the problem occurs when the data is forwarded from Host1 to Host2. According to the topology, we
can infer that The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.

ActualTests.com

QUESTION 98
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has verified that a functioning cable connects Switch1 and Switch2. From the output that is shown, what two pieces of information can the administrator validly conclude? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 84 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam

A. Interface fa0/1 on Switch1 is in a shutdown state.
B. Using a source MAC address of 0009.11f3.8848, Switch2 is sending frames to Switch1.
C. There is likely to be an IP address issue on Switch1 fa0/1.
D. The interface is functional at OSI Layer 1.
E. The status of fa0/2 should be checked on Switch2.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: FastEthernet0/1 is up, line protocol down (not connect) indicate that the physical layer has been activated, but layer 2 data link protocol has not been activated. This involves data link layer, it view from the connecting end to maintain activation information (information used to confirm the connectivity available between two devices), here shows the problem of clock frequency (maintain activation information) or frame Packaging types. Maybe the devices in the opposite end are not configured with clock frequency, or package type configuration is not consistent.
QUESTION 99
ActualTests.com Refer to the exhibit. This command is executed on 2960Switch: SW(config)# mac-address-table static 0000.00aa.aaaa vlan 10 interface fa0/1
Which two of these statements correctly identify results of executing the command? (Choose two.)

A. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa does not need to be learned by this switch. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 85 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
B. Only MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa can source frames on the fa0/1 segment.
C. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa will be listed in the MAC address table for interface fa0/1 only.
D. Port security is implemented on the fa0/1 interface.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 56
A network is composed of several VRFs. It is required that VRF users VRF_A and VRF_B be able to route to and from VRF_C, which hosts shared services. However, traffic must not be allowed to flow between VRF_A and VRF_B. How can this be accomplished?
A. route redistribution
B. import and export using route descriptors
C. import and export using route targets
D. Cisco MPLS Traffic Engineering

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which of these statements best describes the major difference between an IPv4-compatible tunnel and a 6to4 tunnel?
A. An IPv4-compatible tunnel is a static tunnel, but an 6to4 tunnel is a semiautomatic tunnel.
B. The deployment of a IPv4-compatible tunnel requires a special code on the edge routers, but a 6to4 tunnel does not require any special code.
C. An IPv4-compatible tunnel is typically used only between two IPv6 domains, but a 6to4 tunnel is used to connect to connect two or more IPv6 domains.
D. For an IPv4-compatible tunnel, the ISP assigns only IPv4 addresses for each domain, but for a 6to4 tunnel, the ISP assigns only IPv6 addresses for each domain.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which information is carried in an OSPFv3 intra-area-prefix LSA?
A. IPv6 prefixes
B. link-local addresses
C. solicited node multicast addresses
D. IPv6 prefixes and topology information

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Which IPv6 address would you ping to determine if OSPFv3 is able to send and receive unicast packets across a link?
A. anycast address
B. site-local multicast
C. global address of the link
D. unique local address PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
E. link-local address

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
You are using IPv6, and would like to configure EIGRPv3. Which three of these correctly describe how you can perform this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. EIGRP for IPv6 is directly configured on the interfaces over which it runs.
B. EIGRP for IPv6 is not configured on the interfaces over which it runs, but if a user uses passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 needs to be configured on the interface that is made passive.
C. There is a network statement configuration in EIGRP for IPv6, the same as for IPv4.
D. There is no network statement configuration in EIGRP for IPv6.
E. When a user uses a passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 does not need to be configured on the interface that is made passive.
F. When a user uses a non-passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 does not need to be configured on the interface that is made passive

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 61
Which of these statements accurately identifies how Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding can be employed to prevent the use of malformed or forged IP sources addresses?
A. It is applied only on the input interface of a router.
B. It is applied only on the output interface of a router.
C. It can be configured either on the input or output interface of a router.
D. It cannot be configured on a router interface.
E. It is configured under any routing protocol process.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding can perform all of these actions except which one?
A. examine all packets received to make sure that the source addresses and source interfaces appear in the routing table and match the interfaces where the packets were received
B. check to see if any packet received at a router interface arrives on the best return path
C. combine with a configured ACL
D. log its events, if you specify the logging options for the ACL entries used by the unicast rpf command
E. inspect IP packets encapsulated in tunnels, such as GRE

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 63
Which three of these statements about Dynamic Trunking Protocol are correct? (Choose
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
three.)
A. It supports autonegotiation for both ISL and IEEE 802.1Q trunks.
B. It must be disabled on an interface if you do not want the interface to work as a trunk or start negotiation to become a trunk.
C. It is a point-to-multipoint protocol.
D. It is a point-to-point protocol.
E. It is not supported on private VLAN ports or tunneling ports.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 64
You are designing your network to be able to use trunks. As part of this process you are comparing the ISL and 802.1Q encapsulation options. All of these statements about the two encapsulation options are correct except which one?
A. Both support normal and extended VLAN ranges.
B. ISL is a Cisco proprietary encapsulation method and 802.1Q is an IEEE standard.
C. ISL encapsulates the original frame.
D. Both support native VLANs.
E. 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What s the default stratum clock on a Cisco router, when you see the key word “master” configured on the NTP line?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 66
Though many options are supported in EIGRPv6, select two options from the below list that are supported. Choose 2
A. VRF
B. auto-summary
C. per-interface configuration
D. prefix-list support via route-map
E. prefix-list support via distribute-list

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 67
During the IPv6 address resolution, a node sends a neighbor solicitation message in order to discover which of these?
A. The Layer 2 multicast address of the destination node
B. The solicited node multicast address of the destination node
C. The Layer 2 address of the destination node based on the destination IPv6 address
D. The IPv6 address of the destination node based on the destination Layer 2 address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which one of these statements is true of OSPF type 5 LSAs?
A. They are used to summarize area routes to other areas.
B. They are used in not-so-stubby areas to propagate external routes.
C. They are used to notify areas of the ASBR.
D. They are flooded to all areas except stub areas (external route).
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Which OSPF LSA type does an ASBR use to originate a default route into an area?
A. LSA 1
B. LSA 3
C. LSA 4
D. LSA 5
E. LSA 7
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected. Given the configuration, how many EIGRP routes will router B see in its routing table?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running EIGRP, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. The network statements are misconfigured.
B. The IP address statements are misconfigured.
C. The autonomous system is misconfigured.
D. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are directly connected and running OSPF, but they are unable to form a neighbor relationship. What is the most likely cause?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

A. The routers are not on the same network.
B. The network statements do not match.
C. The process number does not match.
D. The MTU does not match.
E. The OSPF cost does not match.
F. There is a physical issue with the cable.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 199.155.24.0 network are unable to reach the 16.10.0 network. What is the most likely solution?

A. Router ISP1 should be configured to peer with router B.
B. Router ISP2 should be configured with no synchronization.
C. Router ISP1 should be configured with no synchronization.
D. Router ISP2 should be configured with no auto-summary.
E. Router ISP1 or IPS2 should be configured with network 176.16.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 74
Two BGP peers connected through a routed firewall are unable to establish a peering relationship. What could be the most likely cause?
A. BGP peers must be Layer 2-adjacent.
B. EBGP multihop is not configured.
C. The firewall is not configured to allow IP protocol 89.
D. The firewall is not configured to allow UDP 179.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
Which two of these steps are minimum requirements to configure OSPFv3 under IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a routing process using the command ipv6 router ospf [process-id].
B. Add the network statement for the interfaces on which OSPF will run.
C. Configure OSPF on the interface that it will run on.
D. Use the passive-interface command on the interfaces on which OSPF should not run.
E. Enable routing. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 76
You add the following commands into a routed topology: router eigrp 1 variance 3 traffic-share min across-interfaces. Users now complain about voice quality in your VoIP system. What should be done?
A. Add the command: router eigrp 1 traffic-share voice interface fast 0/0.
B. Reconfigure EIGRP to recognize voice packets.
C. Remove the variance from the configuration.
D. Reconfigure the VoIP system to use RTP sequence number headers.
E. Use an H.323 gatekeeper for your VoIP system to negotiate an H.245 uneven packet buffer.
F. Reconfigure EIGRP to version 2.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit. How would you get the 1.1.1.1 network into the OSPF database?

A. Configure RTA as an ASBR.
B. Redistribute connected routes on RTA into OSPF.
C. Set up a virtual link between area 1 and area 0.
D. Set up a virtual link between area 1 and area 2.
E. Add a static route into RTB and enter it into OSPF.
F. Place a network 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.0 command into RTB.
G. Set up a unique router ID on RTA using an RFC 1918 address.
H. Change area 0 on RTB to area 1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit. Router E learned about the PIM RP (designated as 7.7.7.7) from four different sources. Routers A and D advertised the 7.0.0.0 network via EIGRP. Routers B and C advertised the
7.0.0.0 network via OSPF. Considering that all four Ethernet interfaces on router E could potentially lead back to the PIM-RP, when router E receives the first multicast packet down the shared tree, which incoming interface will be used to successfully pass the
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
RPF check?

A. E0
B. E1
C. E2
D. E3
E. None of these interfaces will be used to successfully pass the RPF check.
F. All of these interfaces would successfully pass the RPF check.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Refer to the exhibit. From the MAC addresses shown in the command output, to which two ports is the multicast stream 225.230.57.199 being forwarded on this switch? (Choose two.)

A. Fa6/28
B. Fa7/20
C. Gi3/7
D. Fa4/2
E. Fa4/14
F. Fa4/38 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
G. Fa6/28
H. Fa5/7

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. Two ISPs have decided to use MSDP and configured routers X and Y (both are PIM RPs) as MSDP peers. In the domain of ISP B, PC A has sent an IGMP membership report for the group
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 81
Refer to the exhibit. Two ISPs have decided to use MSDP and configured routers X and Y (both are PIM RPs) as MSDP peers. In the domain of ISP B, PC A has sent an IGMP membership report for the group
224.1.1.1 and PC B has sent an IGMP membership report for the group 224.5.5.5. Assuming that the MSDP peering relationship between routers X and Y is functional, and given the partial configuration output shown from router X, which two of these statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Router X will contain an entry for 224.1.1.1 in its SA cache and will also have an installed (S,G) entry for this in its mroute table.
B. Router X will not contain an entry for 224.1.1.1 in its SA cache but will have an installed (*,G) entry for this in its mroute table.
C. Router X will not contain an entry for 224.5.5.5 in its SA cache but will have an installed (S,G) entry for this in its mroute table.
D. Router X will not contain an entry for 224.5.5.5 in its SA cache but will have an installed (*,G) entry for this in its mroute table.
E. Router X will have no entries for 224.5.5.5 in neither its SA cache nor in its mroute table.
F. Router X will have no entries for 224.1.1.1 in neither its SA cache nor in its mroute table.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 82
You are about to migrate a customer network to use a VSS. Which of these statements is true about a VSS?
A. The VSS switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs and is automatically designated.
B. The VSS switch is defined in RFC 4318 as a managed object.
C. The PAgP+ or LACP protocols are used to maintain the operational state of the VSS devices. D. A VSS interoperates with a virtual port channel.
D. The 802.1Q or ISL protocols are used to maintain the operational state of the VSS devices.
E. A VSS increases the size of the spanning-tree domain.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
You have done a partial migration from 802.1D STP to 802.1w STP. Which of the following is true?
A. 802.1D and 802.1w interoperate only when the 802.1D STP domain supports rapid convergence.
B. Ports leading to 802.1D devices will run in compatibility mode, while the rest of the ports will run in 802.1w mode.
C. This is an invalid configuration and a partial migration cannot be done.
D. The bridge timers will be set to match the 802.1D devices.
E. A secondary root bridge will always be populated within the 802.1D domain.
F. If the root bridge is selected within the 802.1D domain, the whole STP domain will run in 802.1D compatibility mode.
G. In partially migrated 802.1w networks, it is recommended to keep the STP diameter below
H.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
The network administrator is trying to add Switch1 to the network, but the 802.1Q trunk is not coming up. Switch1 was previously tested in the laboratory and its trunk configuration worked fine. What are three possible causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. The trunking configuration mode on Switch1 is set to Off.
B. The trunking configuration mode on the other end is set to On.
C. The trunking configuration mode on the other end is set to Desirable.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not running on the other end.
E. There is a VTP domain name mismatch.
F. Switch1 does not support 802.1Q.

Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 1
After adding R3 router, no routing updates are being exchanged between R3 and the new location. All other inter connectivity and Internet access for the existing locations of the company are working properly. The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration to provide full connectivity between the routers.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host. All passwords on all routers are cisco.
IP addresses are listed in the chart below.

R1 Fa0/0: 192.168.77.33 S1/0: 198.0.18.6 S0/1: 192.168.60.25
R2 Fa0/0: 192.168.60.97 Fa0/1: 192.168.60.113 S0/0: 192.168.36.14
R3 Fa0/0: 192.168.77.34 Fa0/1: 192.168.60.65 Fa1/0: 192.168.60.81
R4 Fa0/0: 192.168.60.129 Fa0/1: 192.168.60.145 S0/1: 192.168.60.26
A.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2

Central Florida Widgets recently installed a new router in their Apopka office. Complete the network
installation by performing the initial router configurations and configuring RIPv2 routing using the router
command line interface (CLI) on the Apopka router.

Configure the router per the following requirements:

Name of the router is Apopka
Enable-secret password is cisco10
The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is RouterPass
The password to allow telnet access to the router is scan90

IPv4 addresses must be configured as follows:
Ethernet network 209.165.201.0/27 – router has second assignable host address in subnet.
Serial network is 192.0.2.128/28 – router has last assignable host address in the subnet. Interfaces should
be enabled.
Routing protocol is RIPv2.

(Notice: In the real exam the name, passwords, IP addresses and the positions of the assignable host
addresses might be different)

Instruction:

To configure the router (Apopka) click on the console host icon that is connected to a router by a serial
console cable (shown in the diagram as a dashed black line).

Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging
it by the title bar.
The “Tab” key and most commands that use the “Control” or “Escape” keys are not supported and are not
necessary to complete this simulation. The help command does not display all commands of the help
system.

A.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit, when running EIGRP what is required for R1 to exchange routing updates with R3?

A. A – AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. B – Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. C – The no auto-summary command is needed on R1 and R3
D. D – R2 needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
As a Cisco technician, you need to know EIGRP protocol very well. Which of the following is true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two)
A. A – A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination
B. B – Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process
C. C – Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table
D. D – A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true regarding EIGRP? (Choose two)
A. A – Passive routes are in the process of being calculated by DUAL
B. B – EIGRP supports VLSM, route summarization, and routing update authentication
C. C – EIGRP exchanges full routing table information with neighboring routers with every update
D. D – If the feasible successor has a higher advertised distance than the successor route, it becomes the primary route
E. E – A query process is used to discover a replacement for a failed route if a feasible successor is not identified from the current routing information
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements below best describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. A – It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router
B. B – It is locally significant
C. C – It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database
D. D – All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
Why R1 can’t establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3 according to the following graphic? (Choose two)

A. A – Configure EIGRP on these routers with a lower administrative distance
B. B – All routers should be configured for backbone Area 1
C. C – R1 and R3 have been configured in different areas
D. D – The hello and dead interval timers are not configured the same values on R1 and R3
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Which items are correct about the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)
A. A – Support VLSM
B. B – Increase routing overhead on the network
C. C – Confine network instability to one area of the network
D. D – Allow extensive control of routing updates
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9
Which three features are of OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three)
A. A – Converge quickly
B. B – OSPF is a classful routing protocol
C. C – Identify the best route by use of cost
D. D – Before exchanging routing information, OSPF routers find out neighbors
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 10
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Chose three)
A. A – Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured
B. B – Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535
C. C – Area 0 is called the backbone area
D. D – Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas
E. E – Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
F. F – Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 11
Part of the OSPF network is shown below: Configuration exhibit:

R1 routing commands:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0 router ospf 1 network 172.16.100.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 172.16.100.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 172.16.100.128 0.0.0.31 area 0 default-information originate
You work as a network technician, study the exhibits carefully. Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. A – Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately
B. B – Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped
C. C – Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1
D. D – The network directly connected to a router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.28 and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. E – Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur
Correct Answer: E Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is in a campus building distant from Building B. WANRouter is hosting a newly installed WAN link on interface S0/0. The new link is not functioning and the administrator needs to determine if the correct cable has been attached to the S0/0 interface. How can the administrator accurately verify the correct cable type on S0/0 in the most efficient manner?

A. A. Telnet to WANRouter and execute the command show interfaces S0/0
B. B. Telnet to WANRouter and execute the command show processes S0/0
C. C. Telnet to WANRouter and execute the command show running-configuration
D. D. Telnet to WANRouter and execute the command show controller S0/0
E. E. Physically examine the cable between WANRouter S0/0 and the DCE.
F. F. Establish a console session on WANRouter and execute the command show interfaces S0/0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard

A. A. A loopback is not set
B. B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
F. F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three)

A. A. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.
B. B. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.
C. C. The London router is a Cisco 2610.
D. D. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.
E. E. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.
F. F. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
A network administrator has configured two switches, named London and Madrid, to use VTP. However, the switches are not sharing VTP messages. Given the command output shown in the graphic, why are these switches not sharing VTP messages?

A. A. The VTP version is not correctly configured.
B. B. The VTP operating mode is not correctly configured.
C. C. The VTP domain name is not correctly configured.
D. D. VTP pruning mode is disabled.
E. E. VTP V2 mode is disabled.
F. F. VTP traps generation is disabled.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)

A. A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
The network administrator has created a new VLAN on Switch1 and added host C and host D. The administrator has properly configured switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 through FastEthernet0/24 to be members of the new VLAN. However, after the network administrator completed the configuration, host A could communicate with host B, but host A could not communicate with host C or host D. Which commands are required to resolve this problem?

A. A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1.3 Router(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 3 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
B. B. Router(config)# router rip Router(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
C. C. Switch1# vlan database Switch1(vlan)# vtp v2-mode Switch1(vlan)# vtp domain cisco Switch1(vlan)# vtp server
D. D. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Switch1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other but are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between VLANs?

A. A. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
B. B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
C. C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. D. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown in the graphic. What are possible

A. A. The interface is shut down.
B. B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. C. The clockrate is not set.
D. D. No loopback address is set.
E. E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 9
While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obtain the following information: Local PC IP address: 10.0.0.35/24 Default Gateway: 10.0.0.1
Remote Sever: 10.5.75.250/24
You then conduct the following tests from the local PC: Ping 127.0.0.1 – Successful Ping 10.0.0.35 – Successful Ping 10.0.0.1 – Unsuccessful Ping 10.5.75.250 – Unsuccessful

A. A. A remote physical layer problem exists.
B. B. The host NIC is not functioning.
C. C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
D. D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
This graphic shows the results of an attempt to open a Telnet connection to router ACCESS1 from router Remote27. Which of the following command sequences will correct this problem?

A. A. ACCESS1(config)# line console 0 ACCESS1(config-line)# password cisco
B. B. Remote27(config)# line console 0 Remote27(config-line)# login Remote27(config-line)# password cisco
C. C. ACCESS1(config)# line vty 0 4 ACCESS1(config-line)# login ACCESS1(config-line)# password cisco
D. D. Remote27(config)# line vty 0 4 Remote27(config-line)# login Remote27(config-line)# password cisco
E. E. ACCESS1(config)# enable password cisco
F. F. Remote27(config)# enable password cisco
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is a possible problem?

A. A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
B. B. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
C. C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
D. D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
E. E. Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
F. F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two)

A. A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 14
When upgrading the IOS image, the network administrator receives the exhibited error message. What could be the cause of this error?

A. A. The new IOS image is too large for the router flash memory.
B. B. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router.
C. C. The new IOS image is not correct for this router platform.
D. D. The IOS image on the TFTP server is corrupt.
E. E. There is not enough disk space on the TFTP server for the IOS image.
Correct Answer: B Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
This task requires you to use the CLI of Sw-AC3 to answer five multiple-choice questions. This does not
require any configuration.
To answer the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes in the right panel.
There are five multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all five questions before leaving
this item.
Notice: All the images in this VTP LAB are used for demonstration only, you will see slightly different images in the real CCNA exam
What interface did Sw-AC3 associate with source MAC address 0010.5a0c.ffba ?
A. a) Fa0/1
B. b) Fa0/3
C. c) Fa0/6
D. d) Fa0/8
E. e) Fa0/9
F. f) Fa0/12
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating has trunks (choose three)?
A. a) Fa0/1
B. b) Fa0/3
C. c) Fa0/4
D. d) Fa0/6
E. e) Fa0/9
F. f) Fa0/12
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
What kind of router is VLAN-R1?
A. a) 1720
B. b) 1841
C. c) 2611
D. d) 2620
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Which switch is the root bridge for VLAN 1?
A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
From which switch did Sw-Ac3 receive VLAN information ?
A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Refer to the exibit, SwX was taken out of the production network for maintenance. It will be reconnected to the Fa 0/16 port of Sw-Ac3. What happens to the network when it is reconnected and a trunk exists between the two switches?

A. A – All VLANs except the default VLAN win be removed from all switches
B. B – All existing switches will have the students, admin, faculty, Servers, Management, Production, and no-where VLANs
C. C – The VLANs Servers, Management, Production and no-where will replace the VLANs on SwX
D. D – The VLANs Servers, Management, Production and no-where will be removed from existing switches
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Out of which ports will a frame be forwarded that has source mac-address 0010.5a0c.fd86 and destination mac-address 000a.8a47.e612? (Choose three)
A. A – Fa0/8
B. B – Fa0/3
C. C – Fa0/1
D. D – Fa0/12
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 9
If one of the host connected to Sw-AC3 wants to send something for the ip 190.0.2.5 (or any ip that is not on the same subnet) what will be the destination MAC address
A.
Correct Answer: A

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. A: This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. B: The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. C: 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. D: This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. E: The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?

A. A: DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
B. B: DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
C. C: DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
D. D: DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?
A. A: point-to-point
B. B: broadcast multi-access
C. C: nonbroadcast multi-access
D. D: nonbroadcast multipoint
E. E: broadcast point-to-multipoint
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are key characteristics of PPP? (Choose three.)
A. A: can be used over analog circuits
B. B: maps Layer 2 to Layer 3 address
C. C: encapsulates several routed protocols
D. D: supports IP only
E. E: provides error correction
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 5
Which three Layer 2 encapsulation types would be used on a WAN rather than a LAN? (Choose three)
A. A: HDLC
B. B: Ethernet
C. C: Token Ring
D. D: PPP
E. E: FDDI
F. F: Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?

A. A: The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B. B: The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router
C. C: The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server
D. D: The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud
E. E: The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A: A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. B: A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. C: A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. D: A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. E: A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. F: A router is commonly considered a DCE device
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay network be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing routing updates?
A. A: Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface
B. B: Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a point-to-point line to support multicast and broadcast traffic
C. C: Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet
D. D: Configure a single sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation? (Choose three.)
A. A: VLAN support
B. B: compression
C. C: authentication
D. D: sliding windows
E. E: multilink support
F. F: quality of service
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 10
The Frame Relay network in the diagram is not functioning properly. What is the cause of the problem?

A. A: The Gallant router has the wrong LMI type configured
B. B: Inverse ARP is providing the wrong PVC information to the Gallant router
C. C: The S3 interface of the Steele router has been configured with the frame-relay encapsulation ietf command
D. D: The frame-relay map statement in the Attalla router for the PVC to Steele is not correct
E. E: The IP address on the serial interface of the Attalla router is configured incorrectly
Correct Answer: D Question Set 1 QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. Using the information shown, answer the question
All hosts in the networks have been operational for several hours when the DHCP server goes down. What happens to the hosts that have obtained service from the DHCP server?
A. A – The hosts will not be able to communicate with any other hosts.
B. B – The hosts will continue to communicate normally for a period of time.
C. C – The hosts will be able to communicate with hosts outsides their own network
D. D – The hosts will only be able to communicate with other hosts by IP address not by hostname
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the DHCP server?
A. A – to provide storage for email
B. B – to translate URLs to IP addresses
C. C – to translate IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
D. D – to provide an IP configuration information to hosts
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
How is the message sent from a PC2 when is first powers on and attempts to contact the DHCP Server?
A. A – Layer 3 unicast
B. B – Layer 3 broadcast
C. C – Layer 3 multicast
D. D – Without any Layer 3 encapsulation
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
What is the default behavior of R1 when PC1 requests service from DHCP server?
A. A – Drop the request
B. B – Broadcast the request to P4S2 and P4S3
C. C – Forward the request to P4S2
D. D – Broadcast the request to P452, P4S3 and ISP
Correct Answer: A Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that

What are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three)
A. A – Interface fa0/3 has an IP address that overlaps with network 10.1.3.0/30.
B. B – Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
C. C – Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
D. D – Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
E. E – Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
F. F – The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2
If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. A – 1024
B. B – 2046
C. C – 4094
D. D – 4096
E. E – 8190
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 2. Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

A. A – 192.168.1.31
B. B – 192.168.1.64
C. C – 192.168.1.127
D. D – 192.168.1.190
E. E – 192.168.1.192
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?

A. A – HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B. B – The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. C – The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. D – The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. E – The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The Administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table to the Central Router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANS in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

A. 10.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
B. 10.0.0.0 /28 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
C. 10.0.0.0 /30 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
D. 10.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
E. 10.0.0.0 /28 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
F. 10.0.0.0 /30 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured. what could be the

A. A – HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B. B – The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. C – The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. D – The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. E – The Fa0/0 interface on Routers is using a broadcast address.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The routers are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste fewest addresses?

A. Network 1: 1 92.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 1 92.168.10.64/26 Network 3: 1 92.168.10.128/26 Serial link 1: 192.168.20.0/24 Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24
B. Network 1: 1 92.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 1 92.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 1 92.168.10.80/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.88/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30
C. Network 1: 1 92.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 1 92.168.10.64/27 Network 3: 1 92.168.10.96/28 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
D. Network 1: 1 92.168.10.0/27 Network 2: 1 92.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 1 92.168.10.96/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 46

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is to send data to Host B How will Router1 handle the data frame received from Host A? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address of Host B.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of HostB.
E. Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 47

Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
A. Interface Address: 192.168.4.7 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916 Type: dynamic
B. Interface Address: 192.168.4.7 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
C. Interface Address: 192.168.6.1 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
D. Interface Address: 192.168.6.1 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916 Type: dynamic
E. Interface Address: 192.168.6.2 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae Type: dynamic
F. Interface Address: 192.168.6.2 Physical Address: 000f.2485.8918 Type: dynamic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 49
Three different Certkiller routers are connected as shown below:

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 50
What should be done prior to backing up an IOS image to a TFTP server? (Choose three)
A. Make sure that the server can be reached across the network.
B. Check the authentication for TFTP access to the server is set.
C. Assure that the network server has adequate space for the IOS image.
D. Verify file naming and path requirements.
E. Make sure that the server can store binary files.
F. Adjust the TCP window size to speed up the transfer.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 51

Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)
A. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26
D. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 52
Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0/20? (Choose two.)
A. 172.31.17.4/30
B. 172.31.51.16/30
C. 172.31.64.0/18
D. 172.31.80.0/22
E. 172.31.92.0/22
F. 172.31.192.0/18
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 53

The Ethernet networks connect to router Certkiller 1 in the exhibit have been summarized for router Certkiller 2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will Certkiller 2 forward to Certkiller 1, according to this summary? Select two.
A. 192.1.159.2
B. 192.1.160.11
C. 192.1.138.41
D. 192.1.151.254
E. 192.1.143.145
F. 192.1.1.144

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 54

Drag the description on the left to the routing protocol on the right. (Not all options are used.)
Is vendor-specific
Uses cost as its metric
Uses hop count as its metric
Uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm
Elects a DR on each multi-access network
Has a default administrative distance of 90

EIGRP
OSPF

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 55

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56

Refer to the exhibit. The FMJ manufacturing company is concerned about unauthorized access to the Payroll Server. The Accounting1, CEO, Mgr1, and Mgr2 workstations should be the only computers with access to the Payroll Server. What two technologies should be implemented to help prevent unauthorized access to the server? (Choose two.)
A. access lists
B. encrypted router passwords
C. STP
D. VLANs
E. VTP
F. wireless LANs

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 57
An inbound access list has been configured on a serial interface to deny packet entry for TCP and UDP ports 21, 23 and 25. What types of packets will be permitted by this ACL? (Choose three.)
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. SMTP
D. DNS
E. HTTP
F. POP3

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 58
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 59
Which two devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate on similar frequencies? (Choose two.)
A. copier
B. microwave oven
C. toaster
D. cordless phone
E. IP phone
F. AM radio
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 60
What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)
A. ATM
B. IDS
C. IOS
D. IOX
E. IPS
F. SDM
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 61
With regard to bridges and switches, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Switches typically have a higher number of ports than bridges.
E. Bridges define broadcast domain while switches define collision domains.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 62
A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To ensure maximum throughput for the phone data, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is on a different network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which to directly connect the phones and computers, and what technology should be implemented on this device? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. STP
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 63

The network shown in the exhibit is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? Select two.
A. Configure the gateway on Certkiller A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Certkiller B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Certkiller A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Certkiller B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to Switch A. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about InterVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 66
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network
B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network
C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network
D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address
192.168.2.4
E. It uses the default administrative distance
F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 68

Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a 192.168. 176.0/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to R2? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.194.160
B. 192.168.183.41
C. 192.168.159.2
D. 192.168.183.255
E. 192.168.179.4
F. 192.168.184.45

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 69
What are two characteristics of the OSPF process identifier? (Select two answer choices)
A. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
B. It is an optional parameter only necessary if multiple OSPF processes are used.
C. It is locally significant.
D. It is globally insignificant
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID to exchange routing information.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 70

What are possible causes for the status of this interface? Select three.
A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: BCF

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of an explicit “deny any” statement at the end of an ACL?
A. none, since it is implicit
B. to enable Cisco IOS IPS to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required
C. to enable Cisco IOS Firewall to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required
D. to allow the log option to be used to log any matches
E. to prevent sync flood attacks
F. to prevent half-opened TCP connections
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of these is mandatory when configuring Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. Cisco IOS IPS enabled on the untrusted interface
B. NBAR enabled to perform protocol discovery and deep packet inspection
C. a route map to define the trusted outgoing traffic
D. a route map to define the application inspection rules
E. an inbound extended ACL applied to the untrusted interface
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which statement correctly describes the disabling of IP TTL propagation in an MPLS network?
A. The TTL field from the IP packet is copied into the TTL field of the MPLS label header at the ingress edge LSR.
B. TTL propagation cannot be disabled in an MPLS domain.
C. TTL propagation is only disabled on the ingress edge LSR.
D. The TTL field of the MPLS label header is set to 255.
E. The TTL field of the IP packet is set to 0.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Two routers configured to run BGP have been connected to a firewall, one on the inside interface and one on the outside interface. BGP has been configured so the two routers should peer, including the correct BGP session endpoint addresses and the correct BGP session hop-count limit (EBGP multihop). What is a good first test to see if BGP will work across the firewall?
A. Attempt to TELNET from the router connected to the inside of the firewall to the router connected to the outside of the firewall. If telnet works, BGP will work, since telnet and BGP both use TCP to transport data.
B. Ping from the router connected to the inside interface of the firewall to the router connected to the outside interface of the firewall. If you can ping between them, BGP should work, since BGP uses IP to transport packets.
C. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall without special configuration, so there is no simple test that will show you if BGP will work or not, other than trying to start the peering session.
D. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1s defines the ability to deploy which of these?
A. one global STP instance for all VLANs
B. one STP instance for each VLAN
C. one STP instance per set of VLANs
D. one STP instance per set of bridges
Correct Answer: C

Cisco 640-802 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-802 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification

QUESTION 6
Which two of these are used in the selection of a root bridge in a network utilizing Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1D? (Choose two.)
A. Designated Root Cost
B. bridge ID priority
C. max age
D. bridge ID MAC address
E. Designated Root Priority
F. forward delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
If a port configured with STP loop guard stops receiving BPDUs, the port will be put into which state?
A. learning state
B. listening state
C. forwarding state
D. root-inconsistent state
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the STP PortFast BPDU guard feature?
A. enforce the placement of the root bridge in the network PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams
B. ensure that a port is transitioned to a forwarding state quickly if a BPDU is received
C. enforce the borders of an STP domain
D. ensure that any BPDUs received are forwarded into the STP domain
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
When STP UplinkFast is enabled on a switch utilizing the default bridge priority, what will the new bridge priority be changed to?
A. 8192
B. 16384
C. 49152
D. 65535
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of these best describes the actions taken when a VTP message is received on a switch configured with the VTP mode “transparent”?
A. VTP updates are ignored and forwarded out all ports.
B. VTP updates are ignored and forwarded out trunks only.
C. VTP updates are made to the VLAN database and are forwarded out trunks only.
D. VTP updates are ignored and are not forwarded.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. In this network, R1 has been configured to advertise a summary route, 168.0.0/22, to R2. R2 has been configured to advertise a summary route, 192.168.0.0/21, to R1. Both routers have been configured to remove the discard route (the route to null created when a summary route is configured) by setting the administrative distance of the discard route to 255. What will happen if R1 receives a packet destined to 192.168.3.1?

A. The packet will loop between R1 and R2. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-001
B. It is not possible to set the administrative distance on a summary to 255.
C. The packet will be forwarded to R2, where it will be routed to null0.
D. The packet will be dropped by R1, since there is no route to 192.168.3.1.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two.)
A. path selection
B. packet switching
C. VLAN membership assignment
D. microsegmentation of broadcast domains
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity?
A. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts.
B. Hubs can filter frames.
C. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.
D. Switches do not forward broadcasts.
E. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? (Choose two)
A. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge
C. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
D. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
B. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose 3.)
A. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
B. Switches have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
D. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
E. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
F. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

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QUESTION 6

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would increase.
C. The number of collision domains would decrease.
D. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
E. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
The switch in the graphic has a default configuration and the MAC table is fully populated.
In addition, this network is operating properly. The graphic represents selected header information
in a frame leaving host A. What can be concluded from this information?
A. The MAC address of host A is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. The router will forward the packet in this frame to the Internet.
C. The switch will only forward this frame to the attached router interface.
D. All devices in this LAN except host A will pass the packet to Layer 3.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 9

Which two of the following are advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)
A. increasing the size of broadcast domains
B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
D. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10

SW1 and SW2 have default configurations. What will happen if host 1 sends a broadcast?
A. Hosts 2, 3, and 4 will receive the broadcast.
B. Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 will receive the broadcast.
C. Host 2 and the Fa0/0 interface of R1 will receive the broadcast.
D. Hosts 1, 2 and the Fa0/0 interface of R1 will receive the broadcast.
E. Hosts 1, 2, 3, 4 and interface Fa0/0 of R1 will receive the broadcast.
F. Hosts 2, 3, 4, and interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 of R1 will receive the broadcast.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11

As a frame leaves a Layer 3 device, the Layer 2 encapsulation information is changed from what it was when it entered the device. For what two reasons can this happen? (Choose two.)
A. The data is moving from 10BASETX to 100BASETX.
B. The WAN encapsulation type has changed.
C. The data format has changed from analog to digital.
D. The source and destination hosts are in the same subnet.
E. The source and destination MAC addresses have changed.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 12

Complete this network diagram by dragging the correct device name of description name or description to the correct location. Not all the names or descriptions will be used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer: QUESTION 13

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Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
This task requires the use of various show commands from the CLI of Router1 to answer 5 multiple-choice

NOTE: The show running-configuration and the show startup-configuration commands have been disabled
in this simulation.
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the right of the top panel.
There are 5 multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all 5 questions before leaving this
item.

What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1?

A. A – 192.168.136.15
B. B -192.168.136.31
C. C -192.168.136.63
D. D – 192.168.136.127
E. E – 255.255.255.255

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router1?
A. A – 16 Kbit/sec
B. B – 32 Kbit/sec
C. C – 64 Kbit/sec
D. D – 128 Kbit/sec
E. E – 512 Kbit/sec
F. F – 1544 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
What interfaces on Router1 have not had any configurations applied? (Choose two) A. A – Ethernet 0
B. B – FastEthenet 0/0
C. C – FastEthernet 0/1
D. D – Serial 0
E. E – Serial 0/0
F. F – Serial 0/1

Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 4
Including the address on the Router1 FastEthernet interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN to which Router1 is connected?
A. A – 6
B. B – 14
C. C – 62
D. D – 128

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
The hosts in the LAN are not able to connect to the Internet. Which commands will correct this issue?
A. A – Router1(conf)# interface fa0/0 Router1(conf-if)# no shutdown
B. B – Routed (conf)# interface fa0/1 Router1(conf-if)# no shutdown
C. C – Router1(conf)# interface s0/0 Router1(conf-if)# no shutdown
D. D – Router1(conf)# interface s0/1 Router1(conf-if)# no shutdown
E. E – Router1(conf)# interface s0/0 Router1(conf-if)# ip address 10.11.12.13 255.255.255.252
F. F – Router1(conf)# interface s0/1 Routerl (conf-if)# ip address 10.11.12.13 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
You have been hired by PC Consultants Incorporated to document the layout of the network. Complete the following tasks: Complete the network topology shown in the graphic by dragging the labels below with the appropriate router types, interface types and IP addresses to the graphic. Find the information you need by using the router console attached to the Home router.

A.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7

Directions: Refer to the exhibit. This testlet consists of four questions that address steps in the process of data communication between host F and the server named WWW” on another LAN. You are free to move back and forth between the questions to review your answers. In order to begin communicating with the server, host F sends out an ARP request. How will the devices exhibited in the topology respond to this request?
A. A – Switch West _1 will reply with the MAC address of the server.
B. B – Hosts D and E will respond that the destination is not on the local LAN.
C. C – Router SFX will forward the ARP request to the ILM router .
D. D – Switch West _1 will block the request since the server is not on the LAN.
E. E – The ILM router will respond with the IP address of the WWW server.
F. F – Router SFX will respond with the MAC address of its Fa0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 8

The ARP reply has been received by host F, which needs to build the packet. What information will be placed in the header of the packet that leaves host F if host F is to communicate with the WWW server? (Choose two)
A. A – The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of the ILM router .
B. B – The destination address will be the IP address of the WWW server.
C. C – The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of router SFX.
D. D – The source address will be the IP address of host F.
E. E – The source address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of router SFX.
F. F – The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of router SFX.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 9

The frame has been received by the ILM router and is to be delivered on the local LAN. Which two statements describe the addressing of the Ethernet frame that has been created by the ILM router ? (Choose two)
A. A – The destination address will the be the MAC address of the switch A port attached to the Fa0/0 interface of the ILM router .
B. B – The destination address will be the MAC address of the WWW server.
C. C – The destination address will be the MAC address of the A switch port attached to the WWW server.
D. D – The source address will be the MAC address of host F.
E. E – The source address will be the MAC address of interface Fa0/0 of the ILM router.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Host F is displaying two World Wide Web documents from the WWW server in two browser windows at the same time. How did the data find its way to the correct browser windows?
A. A – The IP source addresses of the packets will be used to direct the data to the correct browser window.
B. B – The browsers track the data by the URL.
C. C – TCP port numbers are used to direct the data to the correct application window.
D. D – The OSI application layer tracks the conversations and directs them to the correct browser.
Correct Answer: C Question Set 1 QUESTION 1

(In the old days, this question was a multi-choice question but Cisco upgraded it into a lab-sim question. Therefore, instead of listing all the configuration as above, you have to type show frame-relay map and show running-config to get its configuration) What destination Layer 2 address will be used in the frame header containing a packet for host 172.30.0.4?

A. A – 704
B. B – 196
C. C – 702
D. D – 344
Correct Answer: QUESTION 2

A static map to the S-AMER location is required. Which command should be used to create this map?
A. A – frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 704 broadcast
B. B – frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 196 broadcast C. C – frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 702 broadcast
D. D – frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 344 broadcast

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which connection uses the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. A – The serial connection to the MidEast branch office
B. B – The serial connection to the DeepSouth branch office
C. C – The serial connection to the NorthCentral branch office
D. D – The serial connection to the Multinational Core

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
If required, what password should be configured on the router in the MidEast branch office to allow a connection to be established with the Dubai router?
A. A – No password is required
B. B – Enable
C. C – Scr
D. D – Telnet
E. E – Console

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Hotspot Routing Question:

If the router R1 has a packet with a destination address 192.168.1.255, what describes the operation of the network?
A. A – R1 will forward the packet out all interfaces
B. B – R1 will drop this packet because it is not a valid IP address
C. C – As R1 forwards the frame containing this packet, Sw-A will add 192.168.1.255 to its MAC table
D. D – R1 will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
E. E – As R1 forwards the frame containing this packet, Sw-A will forward it ti the device assigned the IP address of 192.168.1.255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6

Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 network must access files located on the Server 1. What route could be configured on router R1 for file requests to reach the server?
A. A – ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
B. B – ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226
C. C – ip route 209.165.200.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.250
D. D – ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 209.165.100.250

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
When a packet is sent from Host 1 to Server 1, in how many different frames will the packet be encapsulated as it is sent across the internetwork?
A. A – 0
B. B – 1
C. C – 2
D. D – 3
E. E – 4

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8

What must be configured on the network in order for users on the Internet to view web pages located on Web Server 2?
A. A – On router R2,configure a default static route to the 192.168.1.0 network
B. B – On router r2, configure DNS to resolve the URL assigned to Web Server 2 to the 192.168.1.10 address
C. C – On router R1, configure NAT to translate an address on the 209.165.100.0/24 network to
192.168.1.10
D. D – On router R1, configure DHCP to assign a registered IP address on the 209.165.100.0/24 network to Web Server 2
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9

The router address 192.168.1.250 is the default gateway for both the Web Server 2 and Host 1. What is the correct subnet mask for this network?
A. A – 255.255.255.0
B. B – 255.255.255.192
C. C – 255.255.255.250
D. D – 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10

On which router should a default route be configured?
A. A – on the ISP router
B. B – on R1
C. C – on R2
D. D – on R3
E. E – on R4

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
With all links operational and all routers converged, which of the following describes the messaging between routers?
A. A – Hellos are sent every five seconds.
B. B – Multicasts are sent every 60 seconds.
C. C – Broadcasts are sent every 30 seconds.
D. D – No messaging unless the topology changes.

Correct Answer: C
Well-regarded for its level of detail, assessment features, and challenging review questions and hands-on exercises, Cisco 640-802 helps you master the concepts and techniques that will enable you to succeed on the Cisco 640-801 exam the first time.