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QUESTION 101
Which two synthetic operations need the configuration of the Service Assurance Agent (SAA) Responder on target devices? (Choose all that apply.) A: UDP on port 7 B: DLSw+ C: Enhanced UDP D: TCP Connect on ports greater than 1023 E: Enhanced UTP
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 102
The Certkiller CEO wants to know what the benefits of ACL Manageris. What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A: ACL Manager reduces the need for ACLs
B: ACL Manager eliminates the CLI for managing ACLs
C: ACL Manager optimizes ACLs to improve devices
D:
ACL Manager maintains an ACL only inventory of Cisco devices

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 103
What is the purpose of configuring classes using the Class Manager tool in ACL Manager? (Choose all that apply.) A: It is to group multiple services in a single entry B: It is to group multiple networks in a single entry C: It is to share a single ACL by multiple Use statements D: It is to assign a user-friendly name to Access Control Entries (ACE) E: All of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 104
Which of the following statements regarding “Cisco Works for Windows V6.0” is valid? (Choose all that apply.) A: Cisco Works for Windows V6.0 is very user friendly and requires minimal training.
B: Cisco Works for Windows V6.0 is gratis with a purchase of a router or switch from Cisco.
C: Cisco Works for Windows V6.0 is a web-based interface that permits flexibility and mobility.
D:
Cisco Works for Windows V6.0 is a single tool used to manage a heterogeneous network.

A.

B.

C.

D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 105
Which CiscoWorks for Windows, v6.0 product suite tool makes use of templates to configure RMON setting on Cisco devices? A: CiscoView B: WhatsUp GOld C: Show Commands D: Threshold Manager E: Cisco CallManager
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 106
Which of the following are modules in VPN/Security Management Solution (VMS)? (Choose all that apply.)
A: CD One B: VPN Monitor C: Cisco VPn 3000 Monitor D: Resource Manager Essentials (RME)
E: Cisco Secure Policy Manager (CSPM)
F: Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Director
G:
Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Host Sensor

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 107
Cisco Secure Policy Manager (CSPM) is used to manager which of the following Cisco products? (Choose all that apply.) A: VPN clients B: IOS routers C: PIX firewalls D: VPN 3000 Concentrators
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 108
Certkiller has a site-to-site VPN network. At the Certkiller headquarters there are two Cisco 7100 routers and 20 branch routes (Cisco 2600 and 3600 Series routers) each with dual-homed VPN tunnels to each of headquarters Cisco 7100 routers.
How many devices are there from VPN Monitor’s perspective? A: 2 B: 4 C: 20 D: 22
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 109
Code Red and Nimda viruses can be stopped by using which of the following modules of VPN/Security Management Solution (VMS)? A: CSPM 3.0f B: CSPM 2.3.31 C: VPN Monitor D: IDS Host Sensor
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 110
The newly appointed Certkiller trainee technician wants to know what IDS Host Sensor in VPN/Security Management Solution (VMS) comes with. What will your reply be? A: Management Console only B: Management Console and live agents only C: Management Console and evaluation agents only D: Management Console, one live agent for the console, and evaluation agents E: Live agents and evaluation agents.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 111
What are the primary functions of VolP Health Monitor (VHM)? (Choose all that apply.) A: VHM provides proactive monitoring of voice gateways B: VHM provides proactive monitoring of Cisco CallManagers C: VHM provides proactive monitoring of Cisco-support VoFR links D: VHM provides proactive monitoring of Cisco 4000 and 6000 In-line power switches
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 112
The successful implementation of VoIP Health Monitor (VHM) requires the following Cisco Application: A: Cisco Voice Manager (CVM) B: Cisco Call Manager C: Device Fault Manager (DFM) D: Resource Manager Essentials (RME) E: Internetwork Performance Monitor (IPM)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 113
Which of the following statements regarding VolP Health Monitor (VHM) is valid? (Choose all that apply.)
A: VHM monitors Quality of Service (QoS) on network links used to carry VolP.
B: VHM is capable of monitoring the health of individual IP telephony applications and their hardware platforms.
C: VHM makes use of synthetic traffic to monitor the operational readiness of key IP telephony components.
D:
VHM is responsible for the provision of proactive monitoring for major hardware components of an IP telephony implementation.

A.

B.

C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 114
Which products methods will you advise the Certkiller trainee technician to use to automatically import devices to Cisco Voice Manager (CVM)? A: Device Fault Manager (DFM) B: Resource Manager Essentials (RM) C: a user-prepared seed file D: International Performance Monitor (IPM)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 115
What are the primary functions of QoS Policy Manger (QPM)? (Choose all that apply.)
A:
the monitoring of end-to-end Quality of Service (QoS) policies B: QPM provides end-to-end Quality of Service (QoS) for data C: QPM provides end-to-end Quality of Service (QoS) for VolP D: QPM provides Quality of Service (QoS) on a device-by-device basis

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 116
Whichof the following are used by QoS Policy Manager (QPM) to set Quality of Service (QoS) policy? (Choose all that apply.) A: classification and marketing C: policy-based routing and path selection B: traffic conditioning and link efficiency D: congestion management and congestion avoidance E: all of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 117
Which of the following centralized, multi-device Quality of Service (QoS) functions are supplied by QoS Policy Manager (QPM? (Choose all that apply.) A: monitoring B: maintenance C: configuration D: modification E: policy guidance
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 118
QoS Policy Manager (QPM) IP telephony templates are pre-defined Quality of Service ( QoS) policies that .A: can be modified B: cannot be modified C: work with Cisco routers only D: work with Cisco switches only
A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 119
What is the primary function of User Registration Tool (URT) Administrative Client Interface? A: URT Administrative Client Interface enables client authentication from the desktop B: URT Administrative Client Interface serves as a central collection hub for all events C: URT Administrative Client Interface is used to map users to VLANs D: URT Administrative Client Interface sets a client’s switch port to the appropriate VLAN
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 120
What is the primary function of User Registration Tool (URT) Administrative Server? A: URT Administrative Server is used to map users to VLANs B: URT Administrative Server enables client authentication from the desktop C: URT Administrative Server serves as a central collection hub for all events D: URT Administrative Server sets a client’s switch port to the appropriate VLAN
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 121
Which of the following statements regarding the User Registration Tool (URT) is valid? (Choose all that apply.) A: URT is capable of supporting most UNIX clients.
B: URT is capable of supporting most Windows clients.
C: The Administrative server can manage more than one VPS appliance.
D: Unlimited subnets can be associated per VLAN.
E:
URT is capable of supporting redundant VLAN Policy Servers (VPSs).

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 122
Which protocol will you advise the Certkiller trainee technician to use for administrative access control of Cisco device configuration changes? A: S/NUNE B: RADIUS C: TACACS+ D: DIAMETER
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 123
Which of the following forms part of user AAA? (Choose all that apply.) A: Accounting B: Addressing C: Authorization D: Authentication
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 124
The newly appointed Certkiller trainee technician wants to know what the new features of Cisco Secure ACS v3.02 are. What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.) A: support for Kerberos proxy
B: LDAP accounting
C: SNMP MIB for rate limiting
D: 802 1x support for Catalyst switches
E:
all of the above

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 125
On which of the following is Hosting Solution Engine’s (HSE) security model is based? A: user role B: network domain C: location user logged in from D: network domain and user role E: client and server role
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 126
Which of the following are all included in the Hosting Solution Engine (HSE) customer’s domain? (Choose all that apply.) A: ports B: Virtual private networks C: IP address D: Virtual LANs E: Layer 47 services
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 127
Which of the following statements regarding Hosting Solution Engine (HSE) is valid? (Choose all that apply.) A: HSE is capable of supporting CDP B: HSE is capable of testing back-end services C: HSE can be accessed through a firewall D: HSE is capable of supporting data export in CSV/XML formats.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 128
What is the primary function of Network Analysis Module (NAM) for Catalyst 6500? A: load balancing B: traffic monitoring C: outgoing traffic monitoring only D: intrusion detection D: accelerated switching
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 129
The newly appointed Certkiller trainee technician wants to know what RMON 2 monitoring with the Network Analysis Module (NAM) for Catalyst 6500 provides. What will your reply be? A: It provides visibility into network traffic up to the network layer B: It provides visibility into network traffic up to the data-link layer C: It provides less visibility than RMON 1 into applications D: It provides visibility into network traffic up to the application layer
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 130
What is the primary function of Differentiated Services Monitoring (DSMON)? A: to monitor traffic by application tpe B: to monitor traffic by Quality of Service (QoS) parameters C: to provision Quality of Service (QoS) policies D: to monitor traffic for latency in data and voice services
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 126
Both Switches and Hubs are used in the P4S network, please study the exhibit carefully, how many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

A. one
B. two
C. six
D. twelve

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
Which item will be the result of issuing the following commands on the basis of the exhibit below? P4S-Switch-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5 P4S-Switch-1(config-if)# switchport mode access P4S-Switch-1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30

A. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to the P4S-Switch-2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as a VLAN to the P4S-Switch-2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to the P4S-Switch-2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as a VLAN to the P4S-Switch-2 VLAN database.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 128
You are a network administrator for P4S. You configure a workgroup switch with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. And you configure all ports as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?
A. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
B. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
C. The additions will create more collisions domains.
D. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 129
Two P4S hosts reside in different VLANs as shown below:
The P4S network shown in the diagram above is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the
following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the IP address of P4SA as 10.1.2.2.
B. Configure the gateway on P4SB as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the gateway on P4SA as 10.1.1.1.
D. Configure the IP address of P4SB as 10.1.2.2.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 130
John is the Cisco Configuration Assistant in pass4usre.com.He is attempting to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. John knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the essential resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. He should determine which interfaces are access ports. For the following items, which three interfaces are access ports? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-switch-1 – Fa 0/2
B. P4S-switch-2 – Fa 0/8
C. P4S-switch-2 – Fa 0/3
D. P4S-switch-2 – Fa 0/4

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 131
You are a technician for P4S. You issue the show interface e0 command during routine network maintenance. The following graphic shows a partial output of the command. Some values displayed in the command output indicate that collisions have occurred. What are the values? (Choose two.)

A. 933 runts
B. reliability 128/255
C. 253 giants
D. 75427 broadcasts

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 132
A network administrator would configure port security on a switch, why?
A. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
B. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
C. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 133
What is the way that Spanning Tree Protocol prevents switching loops based on the exhibit provided?

A. STP identifies cables that must be disconnected to eliminate the redundant paths.
B. STP load balances traffic evenly across the redundant links.
C. STP shuts down P4S-Switch-3 to eliminate the switching loops.
D. STP places ports into the blocking state to disable the redundant paths.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 134
The following shows the topology of the network and partial switch command output. From the diagram you know that the internetwork is experiencing connectivity problems. Host P4S-PCA cannot ping Host P4S-PCB. In order that these hosts can ping each other, what should to be done?

A. VLAN 2 should be named.
B. The gateway on Host P4S-PCA should be changed.
C. The IP address on Host P4S-PCB should be reconfigured.
D. The Fa0/1 interface on the P4S-S switch must be configured as a trunk port.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
This output is generated by a switch that has 24 ports, however, some of the ports missing from VLAN1. Why?

A. The missing ports are in VLAN 86.
B. The missing ports are configured as trunk ports.
C. The missing ports are administratively disabled.
D. The missing ports have a status problem such as a speed or duplex mismatch.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 136
Which item will be the result by executing the following commands. P4S-SW(config-if)# switchport port-security P4S-SW(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 137
The following network was designed to provide reliability through redundancy. Both of the IDF switches, S3 and S4, are in connection with both of the MDF switches, S1 and S2. A loop-free switching environment is needed, which configuration scenario will achieve this?

A. Spanning Tree Protocol is not needed in this network.
B. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running only on the root bridge.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on all switches.
D. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on only the MDF switches S1 and S2.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 138
Multiple copies of the same unicast frame are likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN in which circumstance?
A. when a dual ring topology is in use
B. after broken links are re-established
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 139
Three of the following are spanning-tree switch port states, what are them? (Choose three.)
A. filtering
B. forwarding
C. learning
D. listening

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 140
When configuring a new trunk link on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?
A. By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk.
B. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vlan database command.
C. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the switchport mode command.
D. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vtp domain command.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 141
On a network of one P4S department, there are four PCs
connected to a switch,as shown in the following figure:
After the switch P4S1 restarts, P4SA ( the host on the left ) sends the first frame to P4SC (the host on the
right ).what the first thing should the switch do ?
A. P4S1 will add 192.168.23.12 to the switching table.
B. P4S1 will add 192.168.23.4 to the switching table.
C. P4S1 will add 000A.8A47.E612 to the switching table.
D. P4S1 will add 000B.DB95.2EE9 to the switching table.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
The P4S network administrator has issued the “VTP password
P4S” command on a Cisco device. What is the purpose of this command?

A. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches.
B. It is used to access the VTP server to make changes to the VTP configuration.
C. It allows VTP server to exist in the same domain, each configured with different passwords.
D. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to VTP server mode.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 143
You want to configure a switch port to use the IEEE standard method of inserting VLAN membership information into Ethernet frames. Which command will you use?
A. P4S-SW(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
B. P4S-SW(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
C. P4S-SW(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
D. P4S-SW(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 144
How many collision domains are presented in the exhibit?

A. four
B. two
C. one
D. three

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 145
On the basis of the exhibit presented, in order to allow connectivity between all devices ,how to configure the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches shown in the exhibit?

A. P4S-Switch-X(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport mode access P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
B. P4S-Switch-X(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. P4S-Switch-X(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport mode trunk P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 146
Study the exhibit below carefully ,then answer the following questions.
If most of the communication is between hosts and the servers, which switch is best as the root switch for
VLAN20?
A. P4S-SwA
B. P4S-SwB
C. P4S-SwC
D. P4S-SwD

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
What is the effect on CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network by replacing a hub with a switch?
A. It effectively eliminates collisions.
B. It eliminates Layer 3 broadcast traffic.
C. In increases the size of the collision domain by allowing more devices to be connected at once.
D. It decreases the amount of time that a jam signal must be sent to reach all network devices.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 148
With the information shown in the following exhibit, which switch will be chosen as root bridge and why?

A. P4S-SW-C, because it has the lowest priority
B. P4S-SW-D, because it has the highest priority
C. P4S-SW-A, because it has the lowest MAC address
D. P4S-SW-B, because it has the highest MAC address

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 149
The Cisco Catalyst 2950 Series Switch is a fixed-configuration, stackable standalone switch that provides wire-speed Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet connectivity. You work as a network administrator for the P4Spany. Study the exhibit carefully. Some 2950 series switches are connected to the conference area of the corporate headquarters network. The switches offer two to three jacks per conference room to host laptop connections for employees who visit the headquarters office. When many employees come from other locations, you often discover that hubs have been connected to wall jacks in the conference area although the ports on the access layer switches were not intended to support multiple workstations. What would you do to prevent access by multiple laptops through a single switch port and still leave the switch functional for its intended use?

A. Implement Port Security on all interfaces and use the port-security mac-address sticky command to limit access to a single MAC address.
B. Implement Port Security at global configuration mode and use the port-security maximum 1 command to allow each switch only one attached hub.
C. Configure static entries in the switch MAC address table to include the range of addresses used by visiting employees.
D. Implement Port Security on all interfaces and use the port-security maximum 1 command to limit port access to a single MAC address.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
You are a network administrator for P4S. The following graphic shows the topology and configuration information of the network. You have configured the router to enable communication between the VLANs. You are required to configure switch port fa0/1 to establish a link with router P4S-R1 using the IEEE standard protocol, which IOS commands should be used? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
B. P4S-SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
C. P4S-SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
D. P4S-SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 51
The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme best defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?
A. 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
B. 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
C. 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
D. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
E. 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group address that is used by RIPng as the destination address for RIP updates?FF02::6
A. FF02::6
B. FF02::9
C. FF05::101
D. FF02::A

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
A. show cdp neigbors
B. show session
C. show users
D. show vty logins
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?
A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
In which integration method is an IPv6 packet encapsulated within an IPv4 protocol?
A. dual-stack
B. proxy
C. dot1q
D. tunneling

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Select the action that results from executing these commands.
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Two switches are connected through a trunk link. Which two commands show that there is a native VLAN mismatch on that link? (Choose two.)
A. show vlan brief
B. show interface trunk
C. show interface vlan
D. show interface switchport
E. show interface interface
F. show switchport trunk

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 60
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted.
Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption access-listl permit 192.168.1.0.0.0.0.255 line vty0 4 login password cisco access-class 1
B. enable password secret line vty0 login password cisco
C. service password-encryption line vty0 login password cisco
D. service password-encryption line vty0 4 login password cisco

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Unauthorized users have used Telnet to gain access to a company router. The network administrator wants to configure and apply an access list to allow Telnet access to the router, but only from the network administrator’s computer. Which group of commands would be the best choice to allow only the IP address
172.16.3.3 to have Telnet access to the router?
A. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
B. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 access-class 3 in
C. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
D. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 ip access-group 3 in

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, are the best for accomplishing this task? (Choose two.)
A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: AC Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose three.)
A. VTP works at Layer 3 of the OSI model and requires that a management VLAN IP address be configured.
B. When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies.
C. When properly configured, VTP maintains VLAN configuration consistency and accelerates trunk link negotiation.
D. Each broadcast domain on a switch can have its own unique VTP domain.
E. VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links.
F. To configure a switch to be part of two VTP domains, each domain must have its own passwords.
G. Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP modes.
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.
B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface.
C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available.
D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?
A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which command can be used from a router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
An access list has been designed to prevent Telnet traffic from the Graphics Department from reaching the HR server attached to the Eastfield router but allow Telnet traffic to other destinations. Given the following access list:
access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq 23 permit ip any any
On which router, interface, and in what direction should the access list be placed to most efficiently implement this list? (Choose three.)
A. Westfield
B. Eastfield
C. e0
D. s0
E. in
F. out
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)
A. They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
B. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
C. They are always present in the NAT table.
D. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13
A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Employ a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incompatible with other host connectors.
C. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port Fa0/1.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
E. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than that of the server.
F. Configure an access list on the switch to deny server traffic from entering any port other than Fa0/1.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 14
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 15
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The ROUTE company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. What is the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?
A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2000::
D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
E. 2002:c0a8:101::42
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 20
A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for this issue?
A. VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router.
B. This address is a network address.
C. This address is a broadcast address
D. The Ethernet interface is faulty.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/26
B. 10.188.31.0/25
C. 10.188.31.0/28
D. 10.188.31.0/27
E. 10.188.31.0/29
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which IPv6 address is valid?
A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 25
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Each router has its own view of the topology.
B. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table.
C. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes.
D. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols.
E. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols.
F. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 27
Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location? (Choose two.)
A. terminal monitor
B. logging host ip-address
C. no logging console
D. snmp-server enable traps syslog
E. show logging | redirect flash:output.txt
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a Cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport output all
B. transport preferred all
C. transport type all
D. transport input all

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
In which solution is a router ACL used?
A. filtering packets that are passing through a router
B. to change the default administrative distance of a route in the route table
C. protecting a server from unauthorized access
D. controlling path selection, based on the route metric

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 34
DRAG DROP Refer to exhibits:
Exhibit:

Select and Place: Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 104
Inside the ABC University network, all WAN links use PPP with CHAP for authentication security. When it occurs between two routers in the network, which command will display the CHAP authentication process?
A. show interface serial0
B. debug PPP authentication
C. show CHAP authentication
D. show ppp authentication chap

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
There is a term dynamic displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command, what is the meaning of this dynamic? P4S-R# show frame-relay map Serial0/0 (up): ip 172.16.3.1 dlci 100(0x64,0x1840), dynamic broadcast, status defined, active
A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
C. As required, the DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
D. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
What type of physical network is a default Frame Relay WAN classified?
A. point-to-point
B. broadcast multi-access
C. nonbroadcast multipoint
D. nonbroadcast multi-access

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
For the following Frame Relay features, which one allows the point-to-point Frame Relay PVC between Router P4S-R-1 and Router P4S-R-2 to be identified at Router P4S-R-1 as 100 and at Router P4S-R-2 as 200?

A. locally significant DLCI
B. globally significant LMI
C. globally significant DLCI
D. locally significant LMI

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
You are a network administrator for P4S. You have entered the command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast on the router. Concerning this command, which of the following statements is true?
A. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
B. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
C. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
D. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
How should router P4S1, which will be used in the P4S
Frame Relay network, be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing routing updates?

A. Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface.
B. None of the bove
C. Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet.
D. Configure a single sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
A Cisco router providing Frame Relay connectivity at a remote site was replaced with a different vendor’s frame relay router. Now, connectivity between the central and remote site is down. What most likely causes this problem?
A. incorrect IP address mapping
B. mismatched LMI types
C. mismatched encapsulation types
D. incorrect DLCI

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
How to determine the interface clock rate while a router is connected to a Frame Relay WAN link by use of a serial DTE interface?
A. It is supplied by the CSU/DSU.
B. It is supplied by the Layer 1 bit stream timing.
C. It is supplied by the far end router.
D. It is determined by the clock rate command.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Topic – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications.
Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 113
You are an administrator for P4S. You cannot add VLAN 50 to a switch. When troubleshooting the problem, you view the output of the show vtp status command, which is displayed in the graphic. To add VLAN 50 to the database, what commands should be used on this switch? (Choose two.)

A. P4S-Switch(vlan)# vlan 50
B. P4S-Switch(vlan)# vtp server
C. P4S-Switch(config)# vlan 50 name Tech
D. P4S-Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 50

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 114
Which three options can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN support
B. compression
C. authentication
D. multilink support

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 115
As it is shown in the exhibit. A new VLAN on Switch P4S1 has been created and host P4SC and host P4SD have been added. And switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 has been properly configured through FastEthernet0/24 to be members of the new VLAN. After the configuration completed, however, host P4SA could communicate with host P4SB, but it could not communicate with host P4SC or host P4SD. To resolve this problem, which commands should be used?

A. P4S1# vlan database P4S1(vlan)# vtp v2-mode P4S1(vlan)# vtp domain cisco P4S1(vlan)# vtp server
B. P4S2(config)# router rip P4S2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 P4S2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 P4S2(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
C. P4S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 P4S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk P4S1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
D. P4S2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1.3 P4S2(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 3 P4S2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 116
You work as a network technician for P4S Ltd. Study the topology displayed in the exhibit carefully. If all the links are operating at the same bandwidth,which ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-Switch-C – Fa0/1
B. P4S-Switch-A – Fa0/1
C. P4S-Switch-B – Fa0/0
D. P4S-Switch-B – Fa0/1

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 117
You are a network administrator for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on P4S-ALSwitch1 will be used for creating an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. On the basis of the output presented, why the trunk does not form, even if the proper cabling has been attached?
A. The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.
B. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. An IP address must be configured for the port.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 118
What does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe in a switched environment?
A. VLAN pruning
B. the operation of VTP
C. a method of VLAN trunking
D. an approach to wireless LAN communication

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 119
Which switch is the root bridge for VLAN 1?
A. Sw-DS1
B. Sw-AC1
C. Sw-AC2
D. Sw-AC3

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit.SwX was taken out of the production network for maintenance. It will be reconnected to the Fa0/16 port of Sw-AC3. What happens to the network when it is reconnected and a trunk exists between the two switches? SwX#show vlan | SwX#show vtp stat Sw-AC3#show vtp stat Sw-AC3#show vlan A. All VLANs except the default VLAN will be removed from all switches.
B. All existing switches will have the students,admin,faculty,Servers,Management,Production,and no-where VLANs.
C. The VLANs Servers,Management,Production,and no-where will replace the VLANs on SwX.
D. The VLANs Servers,Managements,Production,and no-where will be removed from existing switches.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Out of which ports on Sw-AC3 will a frame be forwarded that has Source MAC address 0010.5a0c.fd86 and destination MAC address 000a.8a47.e612?(Choose three) Sw-AC3#show mac-address-table Sw-AC3#show vlan Sw-AC3#show int trunk
A. Fa0/8
B. Fa0/3
C. Fa0/1
D. Fa0/12
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 122
What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating as trunks?(Choose three) Sw-AC3#show int trunk

A. Fa0/3
B. Fa0/9
C. Fa0/1
D. Fa0/12

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 123
What address should be configured as the default-gateway for the host connected to interface Fa0/4 of Sw-AC3? Sw-AC3#show vlan

A. 192.168.1.254
B. 192.168.22.254
C. 192.168.44.254
D. 192.168.33.254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
The exhibit below displays the network which has just been installed. Host P4S-B is able to access the
Internet, but it can’t ping host P4S-C. What is the problem with this configuration?

A. The exhibit below displays the network which has just been installed. Host P4S-B is able to access the Internet, but it can’t ping host P4S-C. What is the problem with this configuration?
B. The address of host P4S-C is incorrect.
C. The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down.
D. Host P4S-B should be in VLAN 13.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 125
The root bridge of the spanning tree is the bridge with the smallest bridge ID. On the basis of the exhibit presented. If all the four switches are running STP, which one will become the root bridge?

A. P4S-switch-A
B. P4S-switch-B
C. P4S-switch-C
D. P4S-switch-D

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 60
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted.
Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption access-listl permit 192.168.1.0.0.0.0.255 line vty0 4 login password cisco access-class 1
B. enable password secret line vty0 login password cisco
C. service password-encryption line vty0 login password cisco
D. service password-encryption line vty0 4 login password cisco

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Unauthorized users have used Telnet to gain access to a company router. The network administrator wants to configure and apply an access list to allow Telnet access to the router, but only from the network administrator’s computer. Which group of commands would be the best choice to allow only the IP address
172.16.3.3 to have Telnet access to the router?
A. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
B. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 access-class 3 in
C. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
D. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 ip access-group 3 in

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, are the best for accomplishing this task? (Choose two.)
A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: AC Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose three.)
A. VTP works at Layer 3 of the OSI model and requires that a management VLAN IP address be configured.
B. When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies.
C. When properly configured, VTP maintains VLAN configuration consistency and accelerates trunk link negotiation.
D. Each broadcast domain on a switch can have its own unique VTP domain.
E. VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links.
F. To configure a switch to be part of two VTP domains, each domain must have its own passwords.
G. Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP modes.
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.
B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface.
C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available.
D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?
A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which command can be used from a router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
An access list has been designed to prevent Telnet traffic from the Graphics Department from reaching the HR server attached to the Eastfield router but allow Telnet traffic to other destinations. Given the following access list:
access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq 23 permit ip any any
On which router, interface, and in what direction should the access list be placed to most efficiently implement this list? (Choose three.)
A. Westfield
B. Eastfield
C. e0
D. s0
E. in
F. out
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)
A. They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
B. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
C. They are always present in the NAT table.
D. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13
A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Employ a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incompatible with other host connectors.
C. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port Fa0/1.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
E. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than that of the server.
F. Configure an access list on the switch to deny server traffic from entering any port other than Fa0/1.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 14
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 15
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The ROUTE company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. What is the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?
A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2000::
D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
E. 2002:c0a8:101::42
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 20
A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for this issue?
A. VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router.
B. This address is a network address.
C. This address is a broadcast address
D. The Ethernet interface is faulty.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/26
B. 10.188.31.0/25
C. 10.188.31.0/28
D. 10.188.31.0/27
E. 10.188.31.0/29
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which IPv6 address is valid?
A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 25
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Each router has its own view of the topology.
B. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table.
C. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes.
D. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols.
E. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols.
F. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 27
Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location? (Choose two.)
A. terminal monitor
B. logging host ip-address
C. no logging console
D. snmp-server enable traps syslog
E. show logging | redirect flash:output.txt
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a Cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport output all
B. transport preferred all
C. transport type all
D. transport input all

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
In which solution is a router ACL used?
A. filtering packets that are passing through a router
B. to change the default administrative distance of a route in the route table
C. protecting a server from unauthorized access
D. controlling path selection, based on the route metric

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 34
DRAG DROP Refer to exhibits:
Exhibit:

Select and Place: Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 50
The network administrator cannot connect to P4S-SW1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to P4S-SW1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and P4S-SW2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on P4S-SW1 to correct this problem?

A. P4S-SW1(config)# line con0 P4S-SW1(config-line)# password cisco P4S-SW1(config-line)#login
B. P4S-SW1(config)# interface fa0/1 P4S-SW1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. P4S-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D. P4S-SW1(config)# interface fa0/1 P4S-SW1(config-if)# duplex full P4S-SW1(config-if)# speed 100

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
The following are four types of EIGRP route entries. Which of them describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the topology table
B. a backup route, stored in the routing table
C. a primary route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the routing table

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 52
You are a network engineer ,study the exhibit carefully. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How to correct this problem?

A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
C. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.
D. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a dynamic routing protocol for use in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. If configuring all OSPF routers in a single area with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces
B. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface
C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces
D. the priority value until a loopback interface is configured

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
The OSPF interface status of two P4S devices is shown below: You work as a network technician at P4S and are responsible for the OSPF network. You are troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers P4S1 and P4S2. The routers can’t establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the “show ip ospf interface eth0” command for routers P4S1 and P4S2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network
B. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
C. The cost on P4S1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
On the basis of the topology and command output provided in the exhibit. When hosts on the 172.16.5.0 network try to ping the remote server at 192.168.145.27, the message “Reply from 192.168.145.27:TTL expired in transit” is returned. Which is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. A routing protocol must be configured to send packets between SOHO and ISP.
B. No static route is configured on the SOHO router to the 192.168.145.0 network.
C. No static route is configured on the ISP router to the 192.168.145.0 network.
D. A routing loop has occurred.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
For the following routing protocols, which one uses bandwidth and delay as metrics by default?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. EIGRP

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
From the output shown in the exhibit, what can be determined?

A. The P4S-S1 switch is using VTP.
B. The P4S-S1 switch is not the root switch.
C. This is the only switch in the LAN topology.
D. The link to the root bridge is through a 1 Gbps connection.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which statement correctly describes RIP routing?
A. Classless routing is the default method used by RIP on a router.
B. Subnetting is not supported if RIP is being used.
C. The no ip classless command enables classful RIP routing.
D. If RIP version 2 is used, the subnet mask is sent to neighboring RIP routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Alex works as a network adminstrator at P4S, study the exhibit carefully. Alex normally establishes a Telnet session with the P4S-switch from P4S-PC-A. But P4S-PC-A is unable to be used. His attempt to telnet to the P4S-switch from P4S-PC-B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What’s the problem?

A. The P4S-switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.
B. P4S-PC-B and the P4S-switch need to be in the same subnet.
C. The P4S-switch interface connected to the P4S-router is down.
D. The P4S-switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
How to forward packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN to 192.168.10.1 on the basis of the exhibited routing table?

A. The router will forward packets from P4S-R-3 to P4S-R-2 to P4S-R-1.
B. The router will forward packets from P4S-R-3 to P4S-R-1 to P4S-R-2.
C. The router will forward packets from P4S-R-3 to P4S-R-2 to P4S-R-1 and from P4S-R-3 to P4S-R-1.
D. The router will forward packets from P4S-R-3 to P4S-R-1.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
On the basis of the following exhibit. Which type of cable can be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers displayed?

A. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
You work as a network administrator for P4S Ltd. You are troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router P4S-R and need to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also should be checked. Which one of the following commands will display the required information?
A. P4S-R# show ip eigrp interfaces
B. P4S-R# show ip eigrp adjacency
C. P4S-R# show ip eigrp topology
D. P4S-R# show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
Topic – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network.
Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 64
You work as a junior network engineer for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. You have prepared the exhibited configuration file. Which two statements correctly describe the planned configuration for interface fa0/1? (Choose two.)

A. The fa0/1 IP address overlaps with the space used by s0/0.
B. Address translation on fa0/1 is not required for DMZ Devices to access the Internet.
C. The fa0/1 IP address is invalid for the IP subnet on which it resides.
D. Internet hosts may not initiate connections to DMZ Devices through the configuration that is shown.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 65
You work as a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit carefully Based on the output shown below, what should you do to allow the P4S workstations connected to the fastethernet0/0 interface to obtain an IP Address?

A. Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration
B. Add access-list 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C. Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1.
D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
You work as a network administrator for P4S Ltd. You want to implement NAT in the network presented in the exhibit to let inside hosts to use a private addressing scheme. Where should NAT be configured?

A. Corporate router
B. all routers and switches
C. Engineering router
D. Sales router

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Inbound access lists apply to traffic as it enters an interface. When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
A. before they are routed to an outbound interface
B. after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue
C. after they are routed to an outbound interface
D. before and after they are routed to an outbound interface

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Which three reasons are valid to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? (Choose three.)
A. to allow more devices to connect to the network
B. to isolate broadcast traffic
C. to logically group hosts according to function
D. to increase network security

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 69
An extended access list needs to be applied to a P4S router. What three pieces of information can be used in an extended access list to filter traffic? (Choose three)
A. protocol
B. source switch port number
C. TCP or UDP port numbers
D. source IP address and destination IP address

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 70
You are a network for P4S. Telnet has been used by unauthorized users to gain access to a company
router. You want to configure and apply an access list to allow Telnet access to the router,
but only from your computer. To allow only the IP address 172.16.3.3 to have Telnet access to the router,
which group of commands would be the best choice?

A. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
B. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 access-class 3 in
C. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 ip access-group 3 in
D. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
With the use of different ports, which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address?
A. overloading
B. static NAT
C. overlapping
D. dynamic NAT

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
A P4S office’s network topology is shown in the diagram below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, an access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic
from the accounting department from reaching the P4SI server attached to the P4S2 router. Which of the
following access lists will accomplish this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the P4S1 router?
A. permit ip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80
B. deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any
C. permit ip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80
D. deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Based on the network diagram and configuration shown in the exhibit. The network at the P4Spany has just been configured for NAT as shown. Initial tests indicate that everything is functioning as intended. However, it is found that a number of hosts cannot access the Internet. Why?

A. The access list is not correct.
B. There are not enough IP addresses available in the NAT address pool.
C. The wrong interface has been configured with the ip nat inside command.
D. The S0/1 interface of the ISP router is in the wrong subnet.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Tom works as a network administrator for P4S Ltd. He would like the text “Unauthorized access prohibited!” to be shown before the login prompt when someone attempts to initiate a Telnet session to a router. The exhibit displays this output. Which command should Tom use to configure this message?

A. cvty motd “Unauthorized access prohibited!”
B. vty 0 4 banner “Unauthorized access prohibited!”
C. banner motd x Unauthorized access prohibited! x
D. login banner x Unauthorized access prohibited! x

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
You work as a junior network engineer for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. With the access list applied as shown, which devices will be allowed to go through the router and access the Internet?

A. only P4S-S1 and P4S-S2
B. only P4S-PC1, P4S-PC3, and P4S-S1
C. only P4S-S1, P4S-S2, P4S-PC1, and P4S-PC3
D. none of the devices

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
You are a network technician for P4S. You enter the following line into the router:
P4S-R1(config)# access-list 106 deny tcp 192.168.254.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www What is the effect of this
configuration?
A. All traffic from the 192.168.254.0 LAN to the Internet is permitted.
B. The change has no effect on the packets being filtered.
C. No hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN except 192.168.254.7 can access web pages from the Internet.
D. Web pages from the Internet cannot be accessed by hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
The Missouri Branch office router is connected through its s0 interface the Alabama Headquarters router s1 interface. The Alabama router has two LANs. Missouri users obtain Internet access through the Headquarters router. The network interfaces in the topology are addressed as follows: Missouri: e0 – 192.168.35.17/28; s0 – 192.168.35.33/28; Alabama: e0 – 192.168.35.49/28; e1 -192.168.35.65/28; s1 – 192.168.35.34/28. The accounting server has address of 192.168.35.66/28. Match the proper relationship between access list conditions and the goals.(Not all options are used.) 1.deny ip 192.168.35.55 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.35.66 2.deny ip 192.168.35.16 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.135.66 3.permit ip any any 4.permit ip 192.168.35.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.168.35.66
A. Block only the users attached to the e0 interface of the Missouri router form access to the accounting server. II.Block a user from the Alabama e0 network from access to the accounting server. III.Prevent all users from outside the enterprise network form accessing the accounting server.
B. I-1;II-3;III-4
C. I-2;II-1;III-4
D. I-1;II-2;III-3
E. I-2;II-3;III-4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
In the configuration of NAT, what does the “Inside Global” address stand for?
A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses
B. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
D. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
For the following protocols, which one offers a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between switches?
A. VTP
B. VLSM
C. STP
D. ISL

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
You are a network administrator for P4S. You want to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5. To accomplish this task, what command should be used?
A. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23 access-list 1 permit ip any any
B. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21 access-list 1 permit ip any any
C. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 permit ip any any

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
You are a network administrator for P4S. To prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26, you have configured access list 173. You want to verify that the access list is working properly, which commands should be used? (Choose three.)
A. P4S-R# show access-lists
B. P4S-R# show ip interface
C. P4S-R# ping 192.168.13.26
D. P4S-R# show open ports 192.168.13.26

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 82
The following configuration line was added to router P4S1: access-list 101 permit ip 10.25.30.0 0.0.0.255 any What is the effect of this access list configuration?
A. permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address to all destinations
B. permit all packet matching the last octet of the destination address and accept all source addresses
C. permit all packet matching the host bits in the source address to all destinations
D. permit all packet from the third subnet of the network address to all destinations
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
In order to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router, what would you do? (Choose two.)
A. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
D. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 84
The P4Spany with 25 computers makes a decision to connect its network to the Internet. P4S wants all computers to have access to the Internet simultaneously, but the company only has four usable public IP addresses. What should be configured on the router so that all computers are able to connect to the Internet at the same time?
A. static NAT with ACLs
B. global NAT
C. dynamic NAT
D. dynamic NAT with overload

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
For the following access list statements, which one will block all traffic with a destination TCP port number of 5190 while not affecting other traffic?
A. access-list 180 deny tcp any any eq 5190
B. access-list 180 deny telnet any any 5190
C. access-list 180 deny tcp any eq 5190 any
D. access-list 180 deny ip any eq 5190 any

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Topic – Implement and verify WAN links.
Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 87
The P4S frame relay network is displayed as follows: A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between P4S2 and P4S3.

B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on P4S2. It cannot be used on P4S3 or P4S1.
C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by P4S2 to describe a PVC to P4S3.
D. DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from P4S2 and P4S3 to the service provider.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Cisco is the default Local Management Interface frame type transmitted by a Cisco router on a Frame Relay circuit.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
You are an administrator of P4S. WAN is a router at the customer site. You are required to connect the WAN router and the service provider. Which two devices can be used to complete the connection? (Choose two.)

A. modem
B. ISDN TA
C. CSU/DSU
D. WAN switch

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 90
You are a network administrator for P4S. You have configured both of the following switches. When testing the network, you find that users on P4S-SWA can not connect with users in the same VLAN on P4S-SWB. How to solve this problem?

A. Ensure that the ports connecting the two switches are configured to trunk.
B. Ensure that the two switches are connected with the same interface number.
C. Ensure that P4S-SWA and P4S-SWB are connected with a straight-through cable.
D. Ensure that the IP address of P4S-SWA is on the same network as the IP address of P4S-SWB.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
In the following Frame Relay network, some IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces with point-to-point PVCs, which IP addresses would be used?

A. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24 DLCI 99: 192.168.12.1 /24 DLCI 28: 192.168.13.1 /24
B. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 17: 192.168.10.2 /24 DLCI 99: 192.168.10.3 /24 DLCI 28: 192.168.10.4 /24
C. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 17: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24 DLCI 28: 192.168.10.3 /24
D. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24 DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24 DLCI 28: 192.168.11.2 /24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
S0/0 on P4S1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with P4S2 and P4S3 in the hub-and-spoke Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?

A. Configure the no ip subnet-zero command on P4S1, P4S2, and P4S3.
B. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on P4S1 as two sub interfaces and configure point-to-point links to P4S2 and P4S3.
D. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks so that at least two bits are borrowed from the last octet.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
What does STATUS=ACTIVE indicate based on the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?

A. The router P4S-R1 is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.
B. The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.
C. The router P4S-R1 is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.
D. The PVC is experiencing congestion.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 94
You are a network administrator for P4S. Now you are required to configure a router for a Frame Relay connection to a non-Cisco router. A command is needed to prepare the WAN interface for this connection. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. P4S-R(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay isl
B. P4S-R(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ietf
C. P4S-R(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ansi
D. P4S-R(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay q933a

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
PPP is short for Point-to-Point Protocol. Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. SLIP
B. NCP
C. ISDN
D. LCP

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 96
On the basis of the exhibit provided. The Bigtime router can’t authenticate to the Littletime router. Which is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
D. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
P4S is a mid-sized company that has five branch offices across The United Kingdom. The company wants to create a WAN that will provide the most cost effective fully meshed environment with at least 512 kbps throughput. What WAN service would meet this need?
A. ATM
B. ISDN BRI
C. leased lines
D. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
From the partial router output below, match the output information to the OSI layer.(Not all options apply). Pas4sure# show interface s1/0 Serial1/0 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is CD2430 in sync mode Internet address is 192.168.0.10/30 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 128 Kbit, DLY 20000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation PPP, LCP Open Open: CDPCP, IPCP, loopback not set Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:00, output hang never Last clearing of “show interface” counters 4d21h 1.Serial1/0 is up 2.line protocol is up 3.Hardware is CD2430 in sync mode 4.Internet address is 192.168.0.10/30 5.Encapsulation PPP
A. Provides information about the physical layer II.Provides information about the data link layer.
B. I-1,3;II-2,4
C. I-3,1;II-5,2
D. I-1,2;II-3,5
E. I-3,1;II-2,4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
As the P4S technician, you found the router P4SA is unable to reach P4SB. Both P4S routers are running IOS version 12.0. Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. incorrect bandwidth configuration
B. incorrect LMI configuration
C. incorrect map statement
D. incorrect IP address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 100
You work as a network administrator for P4S Ltd. Now, you are asked to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. Can you tell me how to configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 101
Which one of the following statements is the media access method that Gigabit Ethernet uses?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. token passing
D. point-to-point

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
Which Frame Relay feature is mainly used for transmitting
keepalives to ensure that the PVC does not shut down due to inactivity?

A. CIR
B. DE
C. DLCI
D. LMI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
Alex works as a network administrator at P4S. Recently, customers have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is extremely slow. Alex suspects that the link is overloaded. According to the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command provided in the exhibit, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?

A. in DE packets 0
B. DLCI = 100
C. in BECN packets 192
D. in FECN packets 147

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption access-listl permit 192.168.1.0.0.0.0.255 line vty0 4 login password cisco access-class 1
B. enable password secret line vty0 login
password cisco
C. service password-encryption line vty0 login password cisco
D. service password-encryption line vty0 4 login password cisco
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
Exhibit:

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
Which command can be used from a router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
An access list has been designed to prevent Telnet traffic from the Graphics Department from reaching the HR server attached to the Eastfield router but allow Telnet traffic to other destinations. Given the following access list: access-list 101 deny tcp any any eq 23
permit ip any any
On which router, interface, and in what direction should the access list be placed to most efficiently implement this list? (Choose three.)
A. Westfield
B. Eastfield
C. e0
D. s0
E. in
F. out

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 22
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Unauthorized users have used Telnet to gain access to a company router. The network administrator wants to configure and apply an access list to allow Telnet access to the router, but only from the network administrator’s computer. Which group of commands would be the best choice to allow only the IP address
172.16.3.3 to have Telnet access to the router?
A. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
B. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 access-class 3 in
C. access-list 101 permit tcp any host 172.16.3.3 eq telnet access-list 101 permit ip any any interface s0/0 ip access-group 101 in
D. access-list 3 permit host 172.16.3.3 line vty 0 4 ip access-group 3 in
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
What command sequence will enable PAT from the inside to outside network?
Exhibit:

A. (config) ip nat pool isp-net 1.2.4.2 netmask 255.255.255.0 overload
B. (config-if) ip nat outside overload
C. (config) ip nat inside source list 1 interface ethernet1 overload
D. (config-if) ip nat inside overload
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)
A. They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
B. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
C. They are always present in the NAT table.
D. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.
Correct Answer: AC Exam F

QUESTION 1
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 3
A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Employ a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incompatible with other host connectors.
C. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port Fa0/1.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
E. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than that of the server.
F. Configure an access list on the switch to deny server traffic from entering any port other than Fa0/1.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
Exhibit:

A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config- router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)#vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)#vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)#vtp server
E. Switch1 (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1 (config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1 (config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these statements are true? (Choose
three.)
Exhibit:

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
Exhibit:

A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?
untitled (exhibit):

untitled (exhibit):

untitled (exhibit):

A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches
D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
The ROUTE company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. What is the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?
A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2000::
D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
E. 2002:c0a8:101::42
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 15
A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for this issue?
A. VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router.
B. This address is a network address.
C. This address is a broadcast address
D. The Ethernet interface is faulty.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/26
B. 10.188.31.0/25
C. 10.188.31.0/28
D. 10.188.31.0/27
E. 10.188.31.0/29
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which IPv6 address is valid?
A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 19
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
Exhibit:

A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
Exhibit:

A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10,00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
Exhibit:

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Each router has its own view of the topology.
B. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table.
C. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes.
D. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols.
E. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols.
F. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 25
Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location? (Choose two.)
A. terminal monitor
B. logging host ip-address
C. no logging console
D. snmp-server enable traps syslog
E. show logging | redirect flash:output.txt
Correct Answer: AB Exam G

QUESTION 1
Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a Cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport output all
B. transport preferred all
C. transport type all
D. transport input all

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
A network technician enters the following line into the router.
Tidmore1(config)# access-list 106 deny tcp 192.168.254.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
What is the effect of this configuration?

Exhibit:

A. The change has no effect on the packets being filtered.
B. All traffic from the 192.168.254.0 LAN to the Internet is permitted.
C. Web pages from the Internet cannot be accessed by hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN.
D. No hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN except 192.168.254.7 can access web pages from the Internet.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
What statement is true of the configuration for this network?

Exhibit:

A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are supported.
B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown.
C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.
D. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?
Exhibit:

A. ACDB
B. BADC
C. DBAC
D. CDBA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, are the best for accomplishing this task? (Choose two.)
A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
In which solution is a router ACL used?
A. filtering packets that are passing through a router
B. to change the default administrative distance of a route in the route table
C. protecting a server from unauthorized access
D. controlling path selection, based on the route metric
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
Refer to the topology.
If most of the communication is between hosts and the servers, which switch is best as the root switch for VLAN 20?
Exhibit:

A. Sw-A
B. Sw-B
C. Sw-C
D. Sw-D
E. Sw-E

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology.
If Sw-E is the root for all VLANs, which of the following is a valid path from host A to Server 1?
Exhibit:

A. Sw-A, Sw-D
B. Sw-A, Sw-E, Sw-D
C. Sw-A, Sw-B, Sw-C, Sw-D
D. Sw-A, Sw-E, Sw-C, Sw-D
E. Sw-A, Sw-E, Sw-A, Svv-D

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Refer to the topology.
What technology helps prevent frames from looping continuously through this switched network?

Exhibit:

A. ARP
B. VTP
C. STP
D. EIGRP
E. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Refer to the topology.
What, if anything, is required for communication to occur between the host C and Server 3?

A. DHCP
B. a router
C. nothing is required
D. trunk link between Sw-B and Sw-E

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Refer to the topology.
What type of link is needed between Sw-A and Sw-B so host C and host D can communicate through Sw-A to the servers?
Exhibit:

A. trunk
B. access
C. multi-access
D. straight-through

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Riverside Towing is redesigning the network that connects its three locations. The administrator gave the networking team 192 168.45 0 to use for addressing the entire network. After subnetting the address, the team is ready to assign the addresses. The administrator plans to configure ip subnet-zero and use RIP v2 as the routing protocol. As a member of the networking team, youmust address the network and at the same time conserve unused addresses for future growth. With those goals in mind, drag the host addresses on the left to the correct router interface. One of the routers is partially configured. Move your mouse over a router to view its configuration. Not all of the host addresses on the left are necessary.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 16
DRAG DROP
Drag each feature of the left to the appropriate routing protocol on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
Drag each description on the left to the appropriate term on the right. Not all descriptions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Drag the options on the left under the type of switch port that they describe on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 20
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 21
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP
Two offices are displayed below.
You work as a network technician. Study the exhibit carefully. The company has a main office in Los Angeles and a satellite office in Boston. The offices are connected through two Cisco routers. The Boston satellite office is connected through the R2 router s0 interface to the Los Angeles office R1 router s1 interface. R1 has two local area networks. Boston users receive Internet access through the R1 router. Drag the boxes on the top to complete the goal on the left.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 24

DRAG DROP

You are configuring the office. In particular the host C, with the IP address 192.168.125.34/27, needs to be configured so that it cannot access hosts outside its own subnet. You decide to use the following command:
You are required to fill in the protocol, address, and mask in this command using the choices below:
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
The left describes some types of connections, while the right describes some types of cables.

Drag the items on the left to the proper locations
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Exam H
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Place the Spanning-Tree Protocol port state on its function by dragging the state on the left to the correct
target on the right. (Not all options on the left are used.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
A dental firm is redesigning the network that connects its three locations. The administrator gave the networking team 192.168.164.0 to use for addressing the entire netwok. After subnetting the address, the team is ready to assign the addresses. The administrator plans to configure ip subnet-zero and use RIP v2 as the routing protocol. As a member of the networking team, you must address the network and at the same time conserver unused addresses for future growth. With those goals in mind, drag the host addresses on the left to the correct router interface. Once of the routers is partially configured. Move your mouse over a router to view its configuration. Not all of the host addresses on the left are necessary
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
In order to enhance the security of the enterprise network, the network administrators use ACL(Access Control lists). What are two reasons that the network administrator would use access lists?
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms are used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag the description on the left to the correct router mode on right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer: QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP Refer to exhibits:
Exhibit:

Select and Place: Correct Answer:

QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
The left describes the types of cables, while the right describes the purposes of the cables. Drag the items on the left to the proper locations. (Not all items can be used.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
If a Cisco router has learned about network 10.1.1.0 from multiple sources, the router will select and Install only one entry into the routing table. Indicate the order of preference that the router will use by dragging the routes on the left to the — of preference category on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: QUESTION 16
The left provides some routing protocols, while the right gives several Cisco default administrator distances. Drag the items on the right to the proper locations.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop. Match the items on the left with its corresponding definition on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
As a CCNA candidate, you need to know EIGRP very well. Which tables of EIGRP route information are held in RAM and maintained through the use of hello and update packets? Please choose two appropriate tables and drag the items to the proper locations.
Select and Place: Correct Answer:

QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP
A host with the address of 192.168.125.34 /27 needs to be denied access to all hosts outside its own subnet. To accomplish the complete command in brackets, [access-list 100 deny protocol address mask any], by dragging the appropriate options on the left correct place holders on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 20
DRAG DROP
Drag the security features on the left to the specific security risks they help protect against on right. (Not all options are used)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 21
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 22
VTP Configuration LAB.
A new switch is being added to the River Campus LAN. You will work to complete this process by first configuring the building_210 switch with an IP address and default gateway. For the switch host address, you should use the last available IP address on the management subnet. In addition, the switch needs to be configured to be in the same VTP domain as the building_100 switch and also needs to be configured as a VTP client. Assume that the IP configuration and VTP configuration on building_100 are complete and correct The configuration of the router is not accessible for this exercise. You must accomplish the following tasks:
Determine and configure the IP host address of the new switch.
Determine and configure the default gateway of the new switch.
Determine and configure the correct VTP domain name for the new switch.
Configure the new switch as a VTP client.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 23
A network associate is configuring a router for the weaver company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 192.168.100.30.
The following have already been configured on the router

The basic router configuration


The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside


The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
-All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”

Correct Answer: QUESTION 24
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 25
CP.Inc has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: -RA, -RB, -RC. The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The -RA router was recently installed but connectivity is not complete because of incomplete routing tables. Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
NOTE: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to paricipate
in the routing process.

Correct Answer:
Exam I QUESTION 1

Correct Answer: QUESTION 2
Lab- CLI Central Florida Widgets recently installed a new router in their office. Complete the network installation by
performing the initial router configurations and configuring R1PV2 routing using the router command line interface (CLI) on the RC. Configure the router per the following requirements: Name of the router is R2 Enable. secret password is cisco The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is cisco2
The password to allow telnet access to the router is cisco3
IPV4 addresses mast be configured as follows:
Ethernet network 209.165.201.0/27 – router has fourth assignable host address in subnet
Serial network is 192.0.2.176/28 – router has last assignable host address in the subnet.
Interfaces should be enabled.
Router protocol is RIPV2
Attention:
In practical examinations, please note the following, the actual information will prevail.

1.
Name of the router is xxx

2.
Enable. secret password is xxx

3.
Password In access user EXEC mode using the console is xxx

4.
The password to allow telnet access to the router is xxx

5.
IP information

Correct Answer: QUESTION 3

EIGRP
After adding RTR_2 router, no routing updates are being exchanged between RTR_1 and the new location. All other inter connectivity and internet accesses for the existing locations of the company are working properly.
The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration to provide full connectivity between
the routers.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords on all routers are Cisco.
IP addresses are listed in the chart below.
RTR_A#show run
!
!
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.60.97 255.255.255.240
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
ip address 192.168.60.113 255.255.255.240
!
interface Serial0/0 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 145 Cisco 640-816 Exam ip address 192.168.36.14 255.255.255.252
!
router eigrp 212
network 192.168.36.0
network 192.168.60.0
no auto-summary
!
RTR_A#show ip route
192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 192.168.36.12 is directly connected, Serial 0/0
192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.60.96/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 192.168.60.112/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.60.128/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
D 192.168.60.144/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
D 192.168.60.24/30 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
D* 198.0.18.0 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
******************************************************************************* RTR_2#show run ! ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.77.34 255.255.255.252 ! interface FastEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.60.65 255.255.255.240 ! “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 146 Cisco 640-816 Exam
interface FastEthernet1/0 ip address 192.168.60.81 255.255.255.240 ! ! router eigrp 22 network 192.168.77.0 network 192.168.60.0 no auto-summary ! RTR_2#show ip route 192.168.60.0/28 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets C 192.168.60.80 is directly connected, FastEthernet1/0 C 192.168.60.64 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 192.168.77.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 192.168.77.32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 ********************************************************** RTR_B#show run ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.60.129 255.255.255.240 ! interface FastEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.60.145 255.255.255.240 ! interface Serial0/1 ip address 192.168.60.26 255.255.255.252 ! “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 147 Cisco 640-816 Exam
router eigrp 212 network 192.168.60.0 ! RTR_B#show ip route 192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks C 192.168.60.24/30 is directly connected, Serial0/1 C 192.168.60.128/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 C 192.168.60.144/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 D 192.168.60.96/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1 D 192.168.60.112/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1 192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 192.168.36.12 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1 D* 198.0.18.0 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1 ************************************************************************** RTR_1#show run ! ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.77.33 255.255.255.252 ! interface Serial1/0 ip address 198.0.18.6 255.255.255.0 clockrate 64000 ! ! interface Serial0/0 ip address 192.168.36.13 255.255.255.252
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 148 Cisco 640-816 Exam
clockrate 64000
!
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.60.25 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
!
!
router eigrp 212
network 192.168.36.0
network 192.168.60.0
network 192.168.85.0
network 198.0.18.0
no auto-summary
!
ip classless
ip default-network 198.0.18.0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.0.18.5
ip http server
RTR_1#show ip route
192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 192.168.36.12 is directly connected, Serial 0/0
192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.60.24/30 is directly connected, Serial0/1
D 192.168.60.128/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.26, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1
D 192.168.60.144/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.26, 00:00:57, Serial 0/1
D 192.168.60.96/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.14, 00:00:57, Serial 0/0
192.168.77.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 149 Cisco 640-816 Exam
C 192.168.77.32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 C 192.0.18.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 1/0 *S 0.0.0.0 via 198.0.18.5
Correct Answer: QUESTION 4

Correct Answer:

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