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QUESTION 60
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
E. 130
F. 170
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?

A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 64
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 65
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1 C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0 C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0 O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0 O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 67
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol developed for Internet Protocol (IP) networks by the Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) working group of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 20
E. 130
F. 170
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 69
Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 192.168.0.5
D. 223.0.0.1
E. 254.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 71
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 72
How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 75
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 76
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?

A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff

F. 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 77
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. seven 48-port hubs
D. seven 48-port switches
E. one router interface
F. seven router interfaces
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 78
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?
A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2
B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2
C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1
D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers
B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set
D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY port on a remote router?
A. router# login
B. router# telnet
C. router# trace
D. router# ping
E. router(config)# line vty 0 5
F. router(config-line)# login
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify?
A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation.
B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted.
C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.
D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router running PAT?
A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.
B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection.
C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table.
D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the connection.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what?
A. local
B. inside
C. global
D. outside
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then saved the configuration. From a console connection, what password or password sequence is required for the administrator to access privileged mode on Router1?
A. cisco
B. sanfran
C. sanjose
D. either cisco or sanfran
E. either cisco or sanjose
F. sanjose and sanfran

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
The following commands are entered on the router: Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress Burbank(config)# line con 0 Burbank(config-line)# login Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n Burbank(config-line)# exit Burbank(config)# service password-encryption What is the purpose of the last command entered?
A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process
B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files
C. to encrypt the enable secret password
D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this?
A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.
B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.
D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)
A. Enable port security.
B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D. Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 18
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.
C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)
A. 10.1.168.0
B. 10.1.176.1
C. 10.1.174.255
D. 10.1.160.255
E. 10.1.160.0
F. 10.1.175.255
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem?
A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem?
A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.
B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.

A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space.
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 192.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)

A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.

D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.

E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.

F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 26
Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?
A. 192.168.1.8/29
B. 192.168.1.32/27
C. 192.168.1.40/29
D. 192.168.1.16/28
E. 192.168.1.48/29
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.

If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2

E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222

D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 33
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5
C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit.

As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.)
A. Hub1
B. Switch1
C. Router1
D. Switch2
E. Router2
F. Switch3

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.

A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet

E. UDP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40

A. 1 = E, 2 = D, 3 = C, 4 = F, 5 = B
B. 1 = C, 2 = F, 3 = E, 4 = D, 5 = B
C. 1 = C, 2 = D, 3 = E, 4 = F, 5 = A
D. 1 = B, 2 = D, 3 = E, 4 = F, 5 = A
E. 1 = C, 2 = D, 3 = E, 4 = F, 5 = B
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 41

A. 1 = B, 2 = A, 3 = E, 4 = D
B. 1 = F, 2 = A, 3 = E, C = B
C. 1 = C, 2 = A, 3 = E, 4 = B
D. 1 = F, 2 = A, 3 = E, 4 = B
E. 1 = C, 2 = A, 3 = E, 4 = D
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42

A. 1 = C, 2 = F, 3 = D, 4 = A
B. 1 = D, 2 = F, 3 = D, 4 = A
C. 1 = B, 2 = F, 3 = D, 4 = A
D. 1 = C, 2 = F, 3 = D, 4 = B

E. 1 = C, 2 = E, 3 = D, 4 = A
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43

A. SNMP = A, FTP = D, TFTP = F, DNS = C, DHCP = B
B. SNMP = E, FTP = F, TFTP = D, DNS = A, DHCP = B
C. SNMP = A, FTP = F, TFTP = D, DNS =A, DHCP = C
D. SNMP = E, FTP = F, TFTP = D, DNS = C, DHCP = C

E. SNMP = A, FTP = D, TFTP = F, DNS = C, DHCP = B
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44

A. Application layer = SNMP, transport layer = TCP, internet layer = IP, network access layer = Ehternet
B. Application layer = SNMP, transport layer = IP, internet layer = TCP, network access layer = Ehternet
C. Application layer = SNMP, transport layer = TCP, internet layer = IP, network access layer = ARP
D. Application layer = SMTP, transport layer = TCP, internet layer = IP, network access layer = Ehternet
E. Application layer = ARP, transport layer = TCP, internet layer = IP, network access layer = UDP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is used? (Choose two.)
A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. the virtual terminal lines have a weak password configured
D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used
E. configuration supports un-secure web server access
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 46
Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA . (Choose three.)
A. privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement
D. both the username and password are weak
E. telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch
F. cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 47
Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)
A. at least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed
D. console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity
E. since DHCP is not used on FaO/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 48
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 49
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: E
Exam C QUESTION 1
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit

After the power-on-self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch?
A. The POST was successful.
B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded.
D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.

B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 6
Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)
A. It uses broadcast for its routing updates.
B. It supports authentication.
C. It is a classless routing protocol.
D. It has a lower default administrative distance then RIP version 1.
E. It has the same maximum hop count as RIP version 1.
F. It does not send the subnet mask any updates.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel !.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit A host is connected to switch port fa0/3. The host and switch have been fully configured for IP connectivity as shown. However, the indicator LED on switch port fa0/3 is not on, and the host cannot communicate with any other hosts including those connected to VLAN 2 on the same switch. Based on the given information, what is the problem?

A. Switch port fa0/3 is not configured as a trunk port.
B. There is a bad cable.
C. The switch has been assigned an incorrect subnet mask.
D. Switch port fa0/3 has been blocked by STP.
E. the switch and the host must be in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
To what type of port would a cable with a DB-60 connector attach?
A. Serial port
B. Console port
C. Ethernet port
D. Fibre optic port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what would be the cause of this problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet mask.
C. The fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. The FA0/0 on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30
E. 192.169.42.34
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is the difference between the Cisco router IOS commands “show cdp neighbor” and “show cdp entry?
A. The “show cdp neighbor detail” command shows all neighbor information, while “show cdp entry” only displays one line of output for each neighbor.
B. The “show cdp entry” command shows neighbor information for specific neighbors only, while “show cdp neighbor detail” lists each neighbor with detailed output on each.
C. The “show cdp entry” command shows neighbor information for all neighbors with one line of output for each, while “show cdp neighbor detail” lists each neighbor with detailed output on each.
D. The “show cdp neighbor detail” command shows neighbor information foe a single neighbor only, while “show cdp entry” displays detailed output on each neighbor known.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit What two things can the technician detemine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly/
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit

Why did the device return this message?
A. The command requires additional options or parameters/
B. There is no show command that starts with ru.
C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received/
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit

A. 1 = A, 2 = C, 3 = E, 4 = B
B. 1 = E, 2 = C, 3 = B, 4 = D
C. 1 = A, 2 = D, 3 = B, 4 = B
D. 1 = E, 2 = C, 3 = D, 4 = A
Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 1
How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff

F. 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. seven 48-port hubs
D. seven 48-port switches
E. one router interface
F. seven router interfaces
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?
A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 15
Correct Answer: E

 

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100-101 exam

Exam QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 2
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Correct Answer: E

 

 

100-101 exam

 
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222

D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5
C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8

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