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QUESTION 11

You administer the network shown above. You issue the show interfaces trunk command on SwitchA and receive the following output:

Which of the following statements is true regarding VLAN 32?
A. VLAN 32 is not allowed on the trunk port.
B. VLAN 32 is not active on the switch.
C. Traffic from VLAN 32 is not being sent over the trunk port.
D. Traffic from VLAN 32 is not restricted to only the trunk ports that require it.

Correct Answer: C Section: VLAN Trunking Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In the ※Vlans in spanning tree forwarding state and not pruned§ VLAN 32 is not listed so we can conclude that traffic from vlan 32 can’t be forwarded.
QUESTION 12
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
B. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
C. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
D. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
Correct Answer: C Section: VLAN Trunking Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
First you should know ※giant§ frames are frames that exceed the maximum IEEE 802.3 frame size (usually greater then 1518 bytes). As you know, ISL does not modify the original Ethernet frame it received but it

But a normal Ethernet frame itself can have a maximum size of 1518 bytes. Therefore an Ethernet frame can be up to 1518 + 30 = 1548 bytes, which creates a ※giant§.
That is why both ends must be configured as ISL trunks because only ISL-aware devices are able to read it.
QUESTION 13
While logged into a Company switch you issue the following command:
CompanySwitch(config-mst)#instance 10 vlan 11-12
What does this command accomplish?
A. It enables a PVST+ instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
B. It enables vlan 11 and vlan 12 to be part of the MST region 10
C. It maps vlan 11 and vlan 12 to the MST instance of 10.
D. It creates an Internal Spanning Tree (1ST) instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
E. It create a Common Spanning Tree (CST) instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
F. It starts two instances of MST, one instance for vlan 11 and another instance for vlan 12.

Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MST maps multiple VLANs that have the same traffic flow requirements into the same spanning-tree instance. The main enhancement introduced by MST raises the problem, however, of determining what VLAN is to be associated with what instance. More precisely, based on received BPDUs, devices need to identify these instances and the VLANs that are mapped to the instance.

Note: To be part of a common MST region, a group of switches must share the same configuration attributes. In particular, the configuration name (or region name 每 32 bits), revision number (16 bits), and VLAN mapping (associate VLANs with spanning-tree instances) need to be the same for all the switches within the same region.
QUESTION 14
By default, all VLANs will belong to which MST instance when using Multiple STP?
A. MST00
B. MST01
C. the last MST instance configured
D. none
Correct Answer: A Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By default, all VLANs are assigned to MST instance 0. Instance 0 is known as the Internal Spanning-Tree (IST), which is reserved for interacting with other Spanning-Tree Protocols (STPs) and other MST regions.
QUESTION 15
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state,
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.
Correct Answer: A Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In STP 802.1D, a non-root bridge only generates BPDUs when it receives one on the root port. But in RSTP 802.1w, a bridge sends a BPDU with its current information every hello-time seconds (2 by default), even if it does not receive any from the root bridge. Also, on a given port, if hellos are not received three consecutive times, protocol information can be immediately aged out (or if max_age expires). Because of the previously mentioned protocol modification, BPDUs are now used as a keep-alive mechanism between bridges. A bridge considers that it loses connectivity to its direct neighbor root or designated bridge if it misses three BPDUs in a row. This fast aging of the information allows quick failure detection. If a bridge fails to receive BPDUs from a neighbor, it is certain that the connection to that neighbor is lost. This is opposed to 802.1D where the problem might have been anywhere on the path to the root.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/ technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml)
QUESTION 16
A port in a redundant topology is currently in the blocking state and is not receiving BPDUs. To ensure that this port does not erroneously transition to the forwarding state, which command should be configured to satisfy the requirement?
A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree loopguard default
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpdufilter
C. Switch(config)#udld aggressive
D. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard
Correct Answer: A Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Loop guard prevents alternate or root ports from becoming the designated port due to a failure that could lead to a unidirectional link. An example is shown below: Without loop guard, the blocking port on S3 will transition to listening (upon max age timer expiration) -> learning -> forwarding state which create a loop.n

With loop guard enabled, the blocking port on S3 will transition into the STP loop-inconsistent state upon expiration of the max age timer. Because a port in the STP loop-inconsistent state will not pass user traffic, no loop is created. The loop-inconsistent state is effectively equal to the blocking state.
To enable loop guard globally use the command spanning-tree loopguard default.
QUESTION 17
You are the administrator of a switch and currently all host-connected ports are configured with the portfast command. You have received a new directive from your manager that states that, in the future, any host-connected port that receives a BPDU should automatically disable PortFast and begin transmitting BPDUs. Which of the following commands will support this new requirement?
A. Switch(config)# spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
B. Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard enable
C. Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
D. Switch(config)# spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
Correct Answer: D Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The bpdufilter option feature is used to globally enable BPDU filtering on all Port Fast-enabled interfaces and this prevent the switch interfaces connected to end stations from sending or receiving BPDUs.
Note: The spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default global configuration command can be overridden by the spanning-tree bdpufilter enable command in interface mode.
QUESTION 18
Which two statements correctly describe characteristics of the PortFast feature? (Choose two)
A. STP will be disabled on the port
B. PortFast can also be configured on trunk ports.
C. PortFast is required to enable port-based BPDU guard.
D. PortFast is used for both STP and RSTP host ports.
E. PortFast is used for STP-only host ports.
Correct Answer: BD Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can use PortFast on switch or trunk ports connected to a single workstation, switch, or server to allow those devices to connect to the network immediately, instead of waiting for the port to transition from the listening and learning states to the forwarding state -> B is correct.
Also, PortFast can be used for both STP and RSTP -> D is correct.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4000/7.4/configuration/guide/ stp_enha.html)
Answer C is not correct because BPDU guard can be enabled without PortFast. But what will happen if the PortFast and BPDU guard features are configured on the same port?
Well, at the reception of BPDUs, the BPDU guard operation disables the port that has PortFast configured.
(Reference and good resource: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/ technologies_tech_note09186a008009482f.shtml)
QUESTION 19
Which of the following commands can be issued without interfering with the operation of loop guard?
A. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree guard root
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PortFast & Root guard should be placed on ports configured as access ports while loop guard should be placed on trunk ports -> we can use the ※switchport mode trunk§ without interfering with the operation of loop guard.
QUESTION 20
Which statement correctly describes enabling BPDU guard on an access port that is also enabled for PortFast?
A. Upon startup, the port transmits 10 BPDUs. If the port receives a BPDU, PortFast and BPDU guard are disabled on that port and it assumes normal STP operation.
B. The access port ignores any received BPDU.
C. If the port receives a BPDU, it is placed into the error-disable state.
D. BPDU guard is only configured globally and the BPDU filter is required for port-level configuration.
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If any BPDU is received on a port where BPDU guard is enabled, that port is put into the err-disable state immediately. The port is shut down in an error condition and must be either manually re-enabled or automatically recovered through the errdisable timeout function.
Note: A port that has PortFast enabled also has BPDU guard automatically enabled. By combining PortFast & BPDU guard we have a port that can quickly enter the Forwarding state from Blocking state and automatically shut down when receiving BPDUs.
QUESTION 21
Why is BPDU guard an effective way to prevent an unauthorized rogue switch from altering the spanning-tree topology of a network?
A. BPDU guard can guarantee proper selection of the root bridge.
B. BPDU guard can be utilized along with PortFast to shut down ports when a switch is connected to the port.
C. BPDU guard can be utilized to prevent the switch from transmitteing BPDUs and incorrectly altering the root bridge election.
D. BPDU guard can be used to prevent invalid BPDUs from propagating throughout the network.
Correct Answer: B Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Each BPDU includes the hello, forward delay, and max age STP timers. An IEEE bridge is not concerned about the local configuration of the timers value. The IEEE bridge considers the value of the timers in the BPDU that the bridge receives. Effectively, only a timer that is configured on the root bridge of the STP is important. If you lose the root, the new root starts to impose its local timer value on the entire network. So, even if you do not need to configure the same timer value in the entire network, you must at least configure any timer changes on the root bridge and on the backup root bridge.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/
technologies_tech_note09186a0080094954.shtml)
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the Certprepare
domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning.
Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host
connected to Switch 1. Where will the broadcast propagate?
A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.
Correct Answer: C Section: VTP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
With VTP pruning enabled network-wide, switch 2 and switch 4 automatically use VTP to learn that none of the switches in the lower-left part of the figure have any ports assigned to VLAN 10. As a result, switch 2 and switch 4 prune VLAN 2 from the trunks connected to these switches. The pruning causes switch 2 and switch 4 to not send frames in VLAN 2 out these trunks -> Switches 3, 5 and 6 will not receive the broadcast while Switch 4 will receive it and forward out to port 2 -> C is correct.
QUESTION 24
Switch R1 is part of the Company VTP domain. What*s true of VTP Pruning within this domain?
A. It does not prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning-ineligible
B. VLAN 1 is always pruning-eligible
C. It will prune traffic from VLANs that are pruning-ineligible
D. VLAN 2 is always pruning-ineligible
Correct Answer: A Section: VTP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
VLAN 1 and VLANs 1002 to 1005 are always pruning-ineligible; traffic from these VLANs cannot be pruned. Extended-range VLANs (VLAN IDs greater than 1005) are also pruning-ineligible -> A is correct.
QUESTION 25
Switch R1 has been configured with DTP using the desirable option. Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) desirable mode?
A. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link
B. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
Correct Answer: A Section: VTP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: If an interface is set to switchport mode dynamic desirable, it will actively attempt to convert the link into trunking mode. If the peer port is configured as switchport mode trunk, dynamic desirable, or dynamic auto mode, trunking is negotiated successfully.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the switch SW2 is connected to the rest of the network in the VTP domain Lab_Network?

A. The recently introduced switch SW2 adds one more VLAN to the VLAN database in the VTP domain.
B. The recently introduced switch SW2 creates a STP loop in the VTP domain.
C. The recently introduced switch SW2 removes all configured VLANs throughout the VTP domain.
D. The recently introduced switch SW2 switches over to VTP transparent mode in order to be included into the VTP domain.
E. A trunk should be configured between the two switches in order to integrate SW2 into the VTP domain.
Correct Answer: C Section: VTP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Configuration Revision number of SW2 is higher than that of SW1 (147 > 47) and SW2 is operating in Client mode so it can send update to other switches. The result is SW1 and other switches in that VTP domain will remove their current VLAN information and copy VLAN information from SW2.
QUESTION 27
When an attacker is using switch spoofing to perform VLAN hopping, how is the attacker able to gather information?
A. The attacking station uses DTP to negotiate trunking with a switch port and captures all traffic that is allowed on the trunk.
B. The attacking station tags itself with all usable VLANs to capture data that is passed through the switch, regardless of the VLAN to which the data belongs.
C. The attacking station will generate frames with two 802.1Q headers to cause the switch to forward the frames to a VLAN that would be inaccessible to the attacker through legitimate means.
D. The attacking station uses VTP to collect VLAN information that is sent out and then tags itself with the domain information in order to capture the data.
Correct Answer: C Section: VLAN Hopping Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
An attacker is launching a DoS attack with a public domain hacking tool that is used to exhaust the IP address space available from the DHCP servers for a period of time. Which procedure would best defend against this type of attack?
A. Configure only trusted interfaces with root guard.
B. Implement private VLANs (PVLANs) to carry only user traffic.
C. Implement private VLANs (PVLANs) to carry only DHCP traffic.
D. Configure only untrusted interfaces with root guard.
E. Configure DHCP spoofing on all ports that connect untrusted clients.
F. Configure DHCP snooping only on ports that connect trusted DHCP servers.
Correct Answer: F Section: DHCP Snooping Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To defend DHCP spoofing attack, we only need to configure DHCP snooping on trusted interfaces because other ports are classified as untrusted ports by default.
QUESTION 29
Which three statements are true about DAI? (Choose three)
A. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the DHCP Snooping database.
B. DAI forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface without any checks.
C. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the CAM table.
D. DAI forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface after verifying and inspecting the packet against the DAI table.
E. DAI intercepts all ARP packets on untrusted ports
F. DAI is used to prevent against a DHCP Snooping attack.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: Dynamic ARP Inspection DAI Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
You need to configure port security on switch R1. Which two statements are true about this technology? (Choose two)
A. Port security can be configured for ports supporting VoIP.
B. With port security configured, four MAC addresses are allowed by default.
C. The network administrator must manually enter the MAC address for each device in order for the switch to allow connectivity.
D. With port security configured, only one MAC addresses is allowed by default.
E. Port security cannot be configured for ports supporting VoIP.
Correct Answer: AD Section: Port Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Port security can be set on ports supporting VoIP. This example shows how to designate a maximum of one MAC address for a voice VLAN (for a Cisco IP Phone) and one MAC address for the data VLAN (for a PC) on Fast Ethernet interface 5/1 and to verify the configuration: Switch(config)# interface fa5/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 vlan voice Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 vlan access
-> A is correct.
By default, only one MAC addresses is allowed but we can use the ※switchport port-security maximum number§ command to set the maximum number of MAC allowed -> D is correct.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12.2/31sg/configuration/guide/ port_sec.html)
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these is true based upon the output shown in the command?

A. If the number of devices attempting to access the port exceeds 11, the port will shut down for 20 minutes, as configured.
B. The port has security enabled and has shut down due to a security violation
C. The port is operational and has reached its configured maximum allowed number of MAC addresses.
D. The port will allow access for 11 MAC addresses in addition to the 3 configured MAC addresses.

Correct Answer: C Section: Port Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Notice that the ※Violation mode: Shutdown§ line only describes what the switch will do if a violation occurs; it is not the current status of that port. The last line ※Security Violation count: 0∪ tells us no violation has occurred -> the port is operational. Also ※the Maximum MAC§ and ※Total MAC Addresses§ are both 11 -> the maximum MAC addresses have ben reached.
From the ※Configured MAC Addresses: 3∪ we also learn that there are 3 MAC addresses are manually learned and 8 MAC addresses are dynamically learned.
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the running configuration that is shown for interface FastEthemet0/2, what two conclusions can be deduced? (Choose two)

A. Connecting a host with MAC address 0000.0000.4147 will move interface FastEthemet0/2 into error disabled state.
B. The host with address 0000.0000.4141 is removed from the secure address list after 5 seconds of inactivity.
C. The sticky secure MAC addresses are treated as static secure MAC addresses after the running configuration is saved to the startup configuration and the switch is restarted.
D. Interface FastEthemet0/2 is a voice VLAN port.
E. The host with address 0000.0000.000b is removed from the secure address list after 300 seconds.
Correct Answer: CE Section: Port Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In this case the ※switchport port-security aging time 5∪ sets aging time to 5 minutes and the ※switchport port-security aging static§ tells the switch to age out for statically configured MAC addresses -> the MAC 0000.0000.000b will be aged out after 5 minutes (300 seconds).
Note: Cisco switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses -> the sticky secure MAC addresses are not aged out.
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about VLANs 200 and 202?

A. VLAN 202 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 200 carries traffic between community ports and to promiscuous ports.
B. VLAN 202 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 200 carries traffic from isolated ports to a promiscuous port.
C. VLAN 200 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 202 carries traffic between community ports and to promiscuous ports.
D. VLAN 200 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 202 carries traffic from isolated ports to a promiscuous port.
Correct Answer: B Section: Private VLAN Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In fact the exhibit above is wrong, that output should be from the command ※show vlan private-vlan§. The

With this output we can see VLAN 202 is configured as the primary VLAN while VLAN 200 is configured as secondary (isolated) VLAN -> B is correct.
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminal Switch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2 Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminal Switch2(config)# interface range gigabitethemet3/1 -2 Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminal Switch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2 Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminal Switch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2 Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on
Correct Answer: B Section: EtherChannel Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
LACP trunking supports four modes of operation, as follows:
*
On: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any LACP negotiation. In other words, the switch will neither send the LACP packet nor process any incoming LACP packet. This is similar to the on state for PAgP.

*
Off: The link aggregation will not be formed. We do not send or understand the LACP packet. This is similar to the off state for PAgP.

*
Passive: The switch does not initiate the channel, but does understand incoming LACP packets. The peer (in active state) initiates negotiation (by sending out an LACP packet) which we receive and reply to, eventually forming the aggregation channel with the peer. This is similar to the auto mode in PAgP.

*
Active: We are willing to form an aggregate link, and initiate the negotiation. The link aggregate will be formed if the other end is running in LACP active or passive mode. This is similar to the desirable mode of PAgP.
LACP does not have ※auto§ & ※desirable§ modes so A & C are not correct.

Therefore if Switch1 is set ※active§ mode, we cannot set ※on§ mode on Switch2 -> D is not correct.
Only answer B is suitable in this case.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk213/

technologies_configuration_example09186a0080094470.shtml)
QUESTION 35
Which statement is true regarding the Port Aggregation Protocol?
A. Configuration changes made on the port-channel interface apply to all physical ports assigned to the portchannel interface.
B. Configuration changes made on a physical port that is a member of a port-channel interface apply to the port-channel interface.
C. Configuration changes are not permitted with Port Aggregation Protocol; instead, the standardized Link Aggregation Control Protocol should be used if configuration changes are required.
D. The physical port must first be disassociated from the port-channel interface before any configuration changes can be made.
Correct Answer: A Section: EtherChannel Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The port-channel interface represents for the whole bundle and all the configurations on this interface are applied to all physical ports that are assigned to this logical interface.
Note: We must manually create port-channel logical interface when configuring Layer 3 EtherChannels. The port-channel logical interface is automatically created when configuring Layer 2 EtherChannels (you can*t put Layer 2 ports into a manually created port channel interface).
An example of configuring Layer 3 EtherChannels with port-channel interfaces:

QUESTION 36
Based on the following exhibit, which problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN 200?

A. Native VLAN mismatch.
B. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
C. Trunking needs to be enabled.
D. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.
Correct Answer: D Section: InterVLAN Routing Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To allow communication between two VLANs, we need to enables Layer 3 routing on the switch with the ※ip routing§ command. Some flatforms are enabled by default but some are not.
QUESTION 37
You work as a network technician, study the exhibit carefully. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?

A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch SW is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch SW will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
Correct Answer: A Section: Voice Support Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The ※mls qos trust cos§ command is used to configure the port trust state (by default, the port is not trusted). By using this command, you can configure the switch port to which the telephone is connected to trust the CoS labels of all traffic received on that port.
(Note: All current Cisco IP Phones include an internal three-port Layer 2 switch therefore you can think an IP Phone as a switch and network administrators generally accept a Cisco IP Phone as a trusted device.)
QUESTION 38
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The ※no standby priority§ command will reset the priority to the default value (100) -> C is correct.
QUESTION 39
HSRP has been configured between two Company devices. Which of the following describe reasons for deploying HSRP? (Choose three)
A. HSRP provides redundancy and fault tolerance
B. HSRP allows one router to automatically assume the function of the second router if the second router fails
C. HSRP allows one router to automatically assume the function of the second router if the second router starts
D. HSRP provides redundancy and load balancing
Correct Answer: ABD Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer A and B are correct because they are the functions of HSRP. I just want to mention about answer
D. In fact answer D is not totally correct, in SWITCH only GLBP has the load-balancing feature. HSRP can only load-sharing by configuring some different HSRP groups. But answer D is the only choice left in this question so we have to choose it.
QUESTION 40
Regarding high availability, with the MAC address 0000.0c07.ac03, what does the ※03∪ represent?
A. The GLBP group number
B. The type of encapsulation
C. The HSRP router number
D. The VRRP group number
E. The HSRP group number
F. The active router number
Correct Answer: E Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The last two-digit hex value in the MAC address presents the HSRP group number.
QUESTION 41
Three Cisco Catalyst switches have been configured with a first-hop redundancy protocol. While reviewing some show commands, debug output, and the syslog, you discover the following information:

What conclusion can you infer from this information?
A. VRRP is initializing and operating correctly.
B. HSRP is initializing and operating correctly.
C. GLBP is initializing and operating correctly.
D. VRRP is not properly exchanging three hello messages.
E. HSRP is not properly exchanging three hello messages.
F. GLBP is not properly exchanging three hello messages.
Correct Answer: E Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
These error messages describe a situation in which a standby HSRP router did not receive three successive HSRP hello packets from its HSRP peer (by default, hello messages are sent every 3 seconds while the holdtime is 10 seconds). The output shows that the standby router moves from the standby state to the active state. Shortly thereafter, the router returns to the standby state. Unless this error message occurs during the initial installation, an HSRP issue probably does not cause the error message. The error messages signify the loss of HSRP hellos between the peers. When you troubleshoot this issue, you must verify the communication between the HSRP peers. A random, momentary loss of data communication between the peers is the most common problem that results in these messages. HSRP state changes are often due to High CPU Utilization. If the error message is due to high CPU utilization, put a sniffer on the network and the trace the system that causes the high CPU utilization.
(Reference and good resource: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk648/tk362/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080094afd.shtml)
QUESTION 42
You administer a network that uses two routers, R1 and R2, configured as an HSRP group to provide

Which of the following describes the effect the ※standby preempt delay minimum 50§ command will have on router R1?
A. The HSRP priority for router R1 will increase to 200.
B. Router R1 will become the standby router if the priority drops below 50.
C. The HSRP priority for router R1 will decrease to 50 points when FaO/2 goes down.
D. Router R1 will wait 50 seconds before attempting to preempt the active router.
Correct Answer: D Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If R1, for some reason, loses its active state, the ※standby preempt delay minimum 50∪ command will cause R1 to wait 50 seconds before it tries to get the active state again -> D is correct.
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. HSRP has been configured and Link A is the primary route to router R4. When Link A fails, router R2 (Link B) becomes the active router. Which router will assume the active role when Link A becomes operational again?

A. The primary router R1 will reassume the active role when it comes back online.
B. The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in the event of its own failure.
C. The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in the event of Link B failure.
D. The third member of the HSRP group, router R3, will take over the active role only in event of router R2 failure.
Correct Answer: A Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When R1 fails, the ※standby 1 preempt§ command on R2 will cause R2 to take over the active state of R1. But when R1 comes up again, the ※standby 1 preempt§ command on R1 will help R1 take over the active state again. Without the ※preempt§ command configured on R2, R2 only takes over the active state only if it receives information indicating that there is no router currently in active state (by default it does not receive 3 hello messages from the active router). Without the ※preempt§ command on R2, it will not become active router even if its priority is higher than all other routers.
QUESTION 44
Which first-hop redundancy solution listed would supply clients with MAC address 0000.0C07.AC0A for group 10 in response to an ARP request for a default gateway?
A. IRDP
B. Proxy ARP
C. GLBP
D. HSRP
E. VRRP
F. IP Redirects

Correct Answer: D Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The last two-digit hex value in the MAC address presents the HSRP group number. In this case 0A in hexa equals 10 in decimal so this router belongs to group 10 and it is running HSRP.
QUESTION 45
Which one of the statements below correctly describes the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP), which is being used in the Company network to provide redundancy?
A. A VRRP group has one active and one or more standby virtual routers.
B. A VRRP group has one master and one or more backup virtual routers.
C. A VRRP group has one master and one redundant virtual router.
Correct Answer: B Section: VRRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Unilike HSRP (which has one active router, one standby router and many listening routers), a VRRP group has one master router and one or more backup routers. All backup routers are in backup state.
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol has been configured on routers R1 and R2, and hosts A and B have been configured as shown. Which statement can be derived from the exhibit?

A. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.10/24.
B. The GLBP weighted load balancing mode has been configured.
C. The GLBP round-robin, load-balancing mode has been configured.
D. The GLBP host-dependent, load-balancing mode has been configured.
E. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.1/24.
F. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.4/24.
Correct Answer: A Section: GLBP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100 on this router?

A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group
1.
Correct Answer: B Section: GLBP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Each tracked object goes down will decrease the weighting of this router by 10, that makes the weighting = 105 每 10 = 95. This value is still higher than the lower threshold (90) so this router is not lost its status as an AVF. Only if both tracked objects go down, the weighting will fall below the lower threshold (105 每 10 每 10 = 85 < 90) and this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1 -> B is correct.
QUESTION 48
HSRP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol developed to allow several routers (or multilayer switches) to appear as a single gateway address. Which two statements are true about the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)? (Choose two)
A. Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating multiple subinterfaces on the HSRP routers.
B. Routers configured for HSRP can belong to multiple groups and multiple VLANs.
C. All routers configured for HSRP load balancing must be configured with the same priority.
D. Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating HSRP groups on the HSRP routers.
Correct Answer: BD Section: Gateway Redundancy Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
If you are a network technician, study the exhibit carefully. Which Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) statement is true about the roles of the master virtual router and the backup virtual router?

A. Router RA is the master virtual router, and Router RB is the backup virtual router. When Router RA fails, Router RB will become the master virtual router. When Router RA recovers, Router RB will maintain the role of master virtual router.
B. Router RA is the master virtual router, and Router RB is the backup virtual router. When Router RA fails, Router RB will become the master virtual router. When Router RA recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
C. Router RB is the master virtual router, and Router RA is the backup virtual router. When Router RB fails, Router RA will become the master virtual router. When Router RB recovers, RouterRA will maintain the role of master.
D. Router RB is the master virtual router, and Router RA is the backup virtual router. When Router RB fails, Router RA will become the master virtual router. When Router RB recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
Correct Answer: B Section: Gateway Redundancy Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Router RA is the master virtual router because of its higher priority (110). By default, the pre-empting function is enabled so Router RB will become the master virtual router when RA fails; and when RA recovers, it will take the master role again.
QUESTION 50
Which set of statements describes the correct order and process of a wireless client associating with a wireless access point?
A. 1. Client sends probe request.
2.
Access point sends probe response.

3.
Client initiates association.

4.
Access point accepts association.

5.
Access point adds client MAC address to association table.
B. 1. Client sends probe request.
2.
Access point sends probe response.

3.
Access point initiates association.

4.
Client accepts association.

5.
Access point adds client MAC address to association table.
C. 1. Access point sends probe request .
2.
Client sends probe response.

3.
Client initiates association.

4.
Access point accepts association.

5.
Client adds access point MAC address to association table.
D. 1. Client sends probe request.
2.
Access point sends probe response.

3.
Client initiates association.

4.
Access point accepts association.

5.
Client adds access point MAC address to association table.
Correct Answer: A Section: Wireless Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
You are a network technician, study the exhibit carefully. What should be taken into consideration when using the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) to configure the static WEP keys on the wireless client adapter?

A. Before the client adapter WEP key is generated, all wireless infrastructure devices (such as access points, servers, etc.) must be properly configured for LEAP authentication.
B. The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the AP and forwarded to the client adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
C. In infrastructure mode the client adapter WEP key must match the WEP key used by the access point. In ad hoc mode all client WEP keys within the wireless network must match each other.
D. The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the authentication server and forwarded to the client adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
Correct Answer: C Section: Wireless Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Drag and Drop HotSpot LabSim

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Question 1:
Answer: C

On the Fa0/2 interface we can see the type of connection is P2p Peer (STP) and Cisco says that: “!—
Type P2p Peer(STP) represents that the neighbor switch runs PVST.”
Please visit this link to understand more http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/
products_configuration_example09186a00807b0670.shtml

Question 2:

Answer: A

Have a look at the output at VLAN0047:
Notice there are two “Cost” value in the picture, the above “Cost” is the total cost from the current switch to
the root bridge while the second “Cost” refers to the cost on that interface (Fa0/2). Both these “Cost” are
the same so we can deduce that the root bridge is connectly directly to this switch on Fa0/2 interface -> the
root bridge is Switch B, and the “Address” field shows its MAC address 000f.34f5.0138. Notice Bridge ID =
Bridge Priority + MAC address.

Question 3:

Answer: C
We learned that Switch B is the root bridge for VLAN 47 so port Fa0/1 on SwitchA and Fa0/2 on SwitchC should be the root ports, and from the output of SwitchC, we knew that port Fa0/1 of SwitchC is in blocking state. Therefore its opposite port on SwitchA must be in designated state (forwarding). So, can Fa0/2 of SW-A be in blocking state? The answer is no so that BPDU packets can be received on Fa0/1 of SW-C. It will remain in blocking state as long as a steady .ow of BPDUs is received.
Question 4:
Answer: D
As explained in question 2, we can deduce SW-A is the root bridge for VLANs 1 and 106 so ports Fa0/1 on SW-B and SW-C will be the root ports. From the output of SW-C for VLANs 1 and 106, port Fa0/2 of this switch is designated (forwarding) so we can deduce interface Fa0/2 of SW-B is in blocking status.
Question 5:
Answer: D
SW-A is the root bridge for VLANs 1 and 106 and we can easily find the MAC address of this root bridge from the output of SW-C, it is 000d.65db.0102. Notice that SW-A has 2 bridge IDs for VLANs 1 and 106, they are 32769.000d.65db.0102 and 24682.000d.65db.0102
QUESTION 5
AAAdot1x Lab Sim Acme is a small shipping company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of 2 switches DSW1 and ASW2. The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping. VLAN 40 is a new VLAN that will be used to provide the shipping personnel access to the server. For security reasons, it is necessary to restrict access to VLAN 20 in the following manner:

-Users connecting to ASW1’s port must be authenticate before they are given access to the network.
-Authentication is to be done via a Radius server:

Radius server host: 172.120.39.46


Radius key: rad123
-Authentication should be implemented as close to the host device possible.
-Devices on VLAN 20 are restricted to in the address range of 172.120.40.0/24.

Packets from devices in the address range of 172.120.40.0/24 should be passed on VLAN 20.


Packets from devices in any other address range should be dropped on VLAN 20.
-Filtering should be implemented as close to the server farm as possible.
The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date. You have been tasked with
implementing the above access control as a pre-condition to installing the servers.
You must use the available IOS switch features.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: Section: Labs Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Step1: Console to ASW1 from PC console 1
ASW1(config)# aaa new-model
ASW1(config)# radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123 ASW1(config)# aaa authentication dot1x default group radius ASW1(config)# dot1x system-auth-control
ASW1(config)# int fastEthernet 0/1 ASW1(config-if)# switchport mode access ASW1(config-if)# dot1x port-control auto ASW1(config-if)# end
ASW1# copy running-config startup-config
Step2: Console to DSW1 from PC console 2
DSW1(config)# ip access-list standard 10 DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255 DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map PASS 10 DSW1(config-access-map)# match ip address 10 DSW1(config-access-map)# action forward DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map PASS 20 DSW1(config-access-map)# action drop DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan filter PASS vlan-list 20 DSW1(config)# exit
DSW1# copy running-config startup-config
QUESTION 6
MLS and EIGRP Sim 1
Configure the Multilayer Switch so that PCs from VLAN 2 and VLAN 3 can communicate with the Server.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: Labs Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
mls>enable mls# conf t
mls(config)# int gi 0/1 mls(config-if)# no switchport mls(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0 mls(config-if)# no shutdown mls(config-if)# exit
mls(config)# int vlan 2 mls(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224 mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# int vlan 3 mls(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224 mls(config-if)# no shutdown mls(config-if)#exit
mls(config)# int gi 0/10
mls(config-if)# switchport mode access
mls(config-if)# switchport access vlan 2
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# exit

mls(config)# int gi 0/11
mls(config-if)# switchport mode access
mls(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# exit

mls(config)# ip routing (Notice: MLS will not work without this command)

mls(config)# router eigrp 650
mls(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
mls(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
mls(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31
mls(config-router)# no auto-summary
mls(config-router)# end

mls# copy running-configuration startup-configuration

NOTE : THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the exam , also
don’t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration. in order to complete the lab , you should
expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS , and from the PCs as well.
If the above configuration does not work, you should configure EIGRP with “no auto-summary” command.

QUESTION 7
MLS and EIGRP Sim 2
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram.

HOST 1:
HOST 2:
You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successful ping the server S1. Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1. Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans, changes VLAN port assignments or create trunk links Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing All routes must be learned via EIGRP 65010 routing protocol. You do not have access to RouteC, RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC. Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement this solution: · 172.16.1.0/24 · 192.168.3.32/27 · 192.168.3.64/27 Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway. SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password. Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: Labs Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
On switch C:
SwitchC> enable SwitchC# conf t SwitchC(config)# int gi 0/1 SwitchC(config-if)# no switchport -> without this the simulator does not let you assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface. SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# int vlan 2 SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.33 255.255.255.224 (default gateway address) SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config-if)# int vlan 3 SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.65 255.255.255.224 (default gateway address) SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# ip routing SwitchC(config-router)# router eigrp 65010 SwitchC(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 SwitchC(config-router)# network 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.31 SwitchC(config-router)# network 192.168.3.64 0.0.0.31 SwitchC(config-router)# no auto-summary SwitchC(config-router)# end
SwitchC# copy running-config startup-config
Verification: We should be able to ping from SWITCHC to the gateway called “Server S1” [208.77.188.166]
You must obtain subnets and IP ADDRESS by yourself and this will be done by clicking on each host icon, then write ipconfig and you will obtain ip addresses of the host, default gateway & subnet mask. The default gateway address & subnet mask should be configured as SwitchC respective vlan ip’s
QUESTION 8
LACP with STP Sim 1

Each of these vlans has one host each on its ports SVI on vlan 1 – ip 192.168.1.11
Switch B –
Ports 3, 4 connected to ports 3 and 4 on Switch A
Port 15 connected to Port on Router.
Tasks to do:
1.
Use non proprietary mode of aggregation with Switch B being the initiator — Use LACP with B being in Active mode

2.
Use non proprietary trunking and no negotiation — Use switchport mode trunk and switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

3.
Restrict only to the VLANs needed — Use either VTP pruning or allowed VLAN list. The preferred method is using allowed VLAN list

4.
SVI on VLAN 1 with some ip and subnet given

5.
Configure switch A so that nodes other side of Router C are accessible — on switch A the default gateway has to be configured.

6.
Make switch B the root
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: Labs Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SW-A: verify with show run if you need to create vlans 21-23 and verify trunk’s native vlan (remove if not 99)
SW-A# int vlan 1 SW-A(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0 SW-A(config-if)# no shut SW-A(config-if)# exit
SW-A(config)# int range fa 0/9 – 10 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access SW-A(config-if)# switchport access vlan 21 SW-A(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast SW-A(config-if)# no shut SW-A(config-if)# exit
SW-A(config)# int range fa 0/13 – 14 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access SW-A(config-if)# switchport access vlan 22 SW-A(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast SW-A(config-if)# no shut SW-A(config-if)# exit
SW-A(config)# int range fa 0/15 – 16 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access SW-A(config-if)# switchport access vlan 23 SW-A(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast SW-A(config-if)# no shut SW-A(config-if)# exit SW-A(config)# int range fa 0/3 – 4 SW-A(config-if)# channel-protocol lacp SW-A(config-if)# channel group 1 mode passive SW-A(config-if)# no shut SW-A(config-if)# exit
SW-A(config)# int port-channel 1 SW-A(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW-A(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 99 SW-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlans 1,21-23 SW-A(config-if)# no shut SW-A(config-if)# end
SW-A# copy running-configuration startup-configuration
SW B
SW-B# conf t
Create vlan: SW-B(config)# vlan 21 SW-B(config-vlan)# vlan 22 SW-B(config-vlan)# vlan 23 SW-B(config-vlan)# exit
SW-B(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1,21-23,99 root primary
SW-B(config)# int range fa 0/3 – 4 SW-B(config-if)# channel-protocol lacp SW-B(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode active SW-B(config-if)# no shut SW-B(config-if)# exit
SW-B(config)# int port-channel 1 SW-B(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW-B(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW-B(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 99 (I did a sh vlan and saw vlan 99 named as “TrunkNative” so I used this as the native VLAN for both switches) SW-B(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23 SW-B(config-if)# no shut SW-B(config-if)# end
SW-B# copy running-configuration startup-configuration
QUESTION 9
LACP with STP Sim 2
Scenario:
You work for SWITCH.com. They have just added a new switch (SwitchB) to the existing network as shown in the topology diagram.

RouterA is currently configured correctly and is providing the routing function for devices on SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA is currently configured correctly, but will need to be modified to support the addition of SwitchB. SwitchB has a minimal configuration. You have been tasked with competing the configuration of SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA and SwitchB use Cisco as the enable password.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchA
The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA should not be modified.
Steps · SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11, 12, 13, 21, 22 and 23. All other vlans should be left are their default values.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchB

Vlan 21, Name: Marketing, will support two servers attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10


Vlan 22, Name: Sales, will support two servers attached to fa0/13 and fa0/14


Vlan 23, Name: Engineering, will support two servers attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16
· Access ports that connect to server should transition immediately transition to forwarding state upon detecting the connection of a device. · SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA. · SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode as SwitchA · No routing is to be configured on SwitchB · Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use address 192.168.1.11/24
Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements:
· For operational and security reasons trunking should be unconditional and Vlans 1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when traversing the trunk link.
· The two trunks between SwitchA and SwitchB need to be configured in a mode that allows for the maximum use of their bandwidth for all vlans. This mode should be done with a non- proprietary protocol, with SwitchA controlling activation.
· Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts should be limited using manual pruning on this trunk link.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: Labs Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SwitchA
SwitchA# conf t
Create vlan: SwitchA(config)# vlan 21 SwitchA(config-vlan)# name Marketing SwitchA(config-vlan)# vlan 22 SwitchA(config-vlan)# name Sales SwitchA(config-vlan)# vlan 23 SwitchA(config-vlan)# name Engineering SwitchA(config-vlan)# exit
SwitchA(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1,11-13,21-23,99 root primary
SwitchA(config)# int range fa 0/3 – 4 SwitchA(config-if)# channel-protocol lacp SwitchA(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode active SwitchA(config-if)# no shut SwitchA(config-if)# exit
SwitchA(config)# int port-channel 1 SwitchA(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SwitchA(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchA(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 99 SwitchA(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23 SwitchA(config-if)# no shut SwitchA(config-if)# end
SwitchA# copy running-configuration startup-configuration
SwitchB: verify with show run if you need to create vlans 21-23 and verify trunk’s native vlan (remove the wrong native if not 99)
SwitchB# conf t SwitchB(config-if)# int vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shut SwitchB(config-if)# exit
SwitchB(config)# vtp mode transparent SwitchB(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
SwitchB(config)# int range fa 0/9 – 10 SwitchB(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchB(config-if)# switchport access vlan 21 SwitchB(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast SwitchB(config-if)# no shut SwitchB(config-if)# exit
SwitchB(config)# int range fa 0/13 – 14 SwitchB(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchB(config-if)# switchport access vlan 22 SwitchB(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast SwitchB(config-if)# no shut SwitchB(config-if)# exit
SwitchB(config)# int range fa 0/15 – 16 SwitchB(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchB(config-if)# switchport access vlan 23 SwitchB(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast SwitchB(config-if)# no shut SwitchB(config-if)# exit
SwitchB(config)# int range fa 0/3 – 4 SwitchB(config-if)# channel-protocol lacp SwitchB(config-if)# channel group 1 mode passive SwitchB(config-if)# no shut SwitchB(config-if)# exit
SwitchB(config)# int port-channel 1 SwitchB(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SwitchB(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchB(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 99 SwitchB(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlans 1,21-23 SwitchB(config-if)# no shut SwitchB(config-if)# end
SwitchB# copy running-configuration startup-configuration
QUESTION 10
HSRP HOTSPOT Sim
During routine maintenance, G1/0/1 on DSW1 was shutdown. All other interface were up. DSW2 became the active HSRP device for Vlan101 as desired. However, after G1/0/1 on DSW1 was reactivated. DSW1 did not become the active HSRP device as desired. What need to be done to make the group for Vlan101 function properly?

Interface VLAN 101 exhibit:

A. Enable preempt on DS1’s Vlan101 HSRP group
B. Disable preempt on DS1’s Vlan101 HSRP group
C. Decrease DS1’s priority value for Vlan101 HSRP group to a value that is less than priority value configured on DS2’s HSRP group for Vlan101
D. Decrease the decrement in the track command for DS1’s Vlan 101 HSRP group to a value less than the value in the track command for DS2’s Vlan 101 HSRP group.
Correct Answer: A Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A is correct. All other answers is incorrect. Because Vlan101 on DS1 ( left ) disable preempt. We need enable preempt to after it reactive , it will be active device. If not this command, it never become active device.
QUESTION 11
HSRP HOTSPOT Sim
During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shutdown G1/0/1 on DSW1. All other interface were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for Vlan 102′s HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command in Vlan 102′s HSRP group. What need to be done to make the group function properly?

Interface VLAN 102 exhibit:

A. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from 5 to 15
B. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from 9 to 15
C. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from 11 to 18
D. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from 195 to less than 205
E. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from 200 to less than 205
F. The DS1’s decrement value should be greater than 190 and less 200
Correct Answer: C Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use “show run” command to show. The left Vlan102 is console1 of DS1. Priority value is 200, we should decrement value in the track command from 11 to 18. Because 200 11 = 189 < 190( priority of Vlan102 on DS2 ).
QUESTION 12
HSRP HOTSPOT Sim
DSW2 has not become the active device for Vlan103′s HSRP group even though all interfaces are active. As related to Vlan103′s HSRP group. What can be done to make the group function properly?

Interface VLAN 103 exhibit: A. On DS1, disable preempt

B. On DS1, decrease the priority value to a value less than 190 and greater than 150
C. On DS2, increase the priority value to a value greater 241 and less than 249
D. On DS2, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 10 and less than
50.
Correct Answer: C Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The reason DSW2 has not become the active switch for Vlan103 is because the priority value of DSW1 is higher than that of DSW2. In order to make DSW2 become the active switch, we need to increase DSW2′s priority (to higher than 200) or decrease DSW1′s priority (to lower than 190).
QUESTION 13
HSRP HOTSPOT Sim
During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shutdown G1/0/1 on DSW1 and DSW2. All other interface were up. During this time, DSW1 became the active device for Vlan104′s HSRP group. As related to Vlan104′s HSRP group, what can be done to make the group function properly?

Interface VLAN 104 exhibit:

A. On DS1, disable preempt
B. On DS2, decrease the priority value to a value less than 150
C. On DS1, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 6
D. On DS1, disable track command.

Correct Answer: C Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We should NOT disable preempt on DS1. By do that, you will make Vlan104’s HSRP group fail function. Example: if we are disable preempt on DS1. It can not become active device when G1/0/1 on DS2 fail. In this question, G0/1/0 on DS1 & DS2 is shutdown. Vlan104 (left) : 150 1 = 149. Vlan104 (right) : 200 155 =
145. Result is priority 149 > 145 ( Vlan104 on DS1 is active). If increase the decrement in the track value to a value greater than 6 ( > or = 6). Vlan104 (left) : 150 6 = 144. Result is priority 144 < 145 ( vlan104 on DS2 is active).
QUESTION 14
HSRP HOTSPOT Sim
If G1/0/1 on DSW1 is shutdown, what will be the current priority value of the Vlan105′s group on DSW1?

Interface VLAN 105 exhibit:

A. 95
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Correct Answer: A Section: HSRP
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Priority is configured 150, Track is 55. So, if shutdown interface G1/0/1 > 150 55 = 95.

QUESTION 15
HSRP HOTSPOT Sim
What is the configured priority value of the Vlan105′s group on DSW2 ?
Interface VLAN 105 exhibit: B. 100

C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use “show standby brief” command on console2 . Very easy to see priority of Vlan105 is 100.
QUESTION 16
STP HOTSPOT Sim
Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of “show spanning-tree” command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
Beware: VLAN number can change.
Question 1:
Which spanning Tree Protocol has been implemented on SW-B?
A. STP/IEEE 802.1D
B. MSTP/IEEE 802.1s
C. PVST+
D. PVRST
E. None of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: C

On the Fa0/2 interface we can see the type of connection is P2p Peer (STP) and Cisco says that: “!—
Type P2p Peer(STP) represents that the neighbor switch runs PVST.”
Please visit this link to understand more http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/
products_configuration_example09186a00807b0670.shtml

QUESTION 17
STP HOTSPOT Sim
Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of “show spanning-tree” command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
Beware: VLAN number can change.
Which bridge ID belongs to SW-B?
A. 24623.000f.34f5.0138
B. 32768.000d.bd03.0380
C. 32768.000d.65db.0102
D. 32769.000d.65db.0102
E. 32874.000d.db03.0380
F. 32815.000d.db03.0380
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: A Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: A

Have a look at the output at VLAN0047:
Notice there are two “Cost” value in the picture, the above “Cost” is the total cost from the current switch to
the root bridge while the second “Cost” refers to the cost on that interface (Fa0/2). Both these “Cost” are
the same so we can deduce that the root bridge is connectly directly to this switch on Fa0/2 interface -> the
root bridge is Switch B, and the “Address” field shows its MAC address 000f.34f5.0138. Notice Bridge ID =
Bridge Priority + MAC address.
QUESTION 18
STP HOTSPOT Sim
Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of “show spanning-tree” command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
Beware: VLAN number can change.
Which port role has interface Fa0/2 of SW-A adopted for VLAN 47?
A. Root port
B. Nondesigned port
C. Designated port
D. Backup port
E. Alternate port
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: C
We learned that Switch B is the root bridge for VLAN 47 so port Fa0/1 on SwitchA and Fa0/2 on SwitchC should be the root ports, and from the output of SwitchC, we knew that port Fa0/1 of SwitchC is in blocking state. Therefore its opposite port on SwitchA must be in designated state (forwarding). So, can Fa0/2 of SW-A be in blocking state? The answer is no so that BPDU packets can be received on Fa0/1 of SW-C. It will remain in blocking state as long as a steady .ow of BPDUs is received.
QUESTION 19
STP HOTSPOT Sim
Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of “show spanning-tree” command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
Beware: VLAN number can change.
Which port state is interface Fa0/2 of SW-B in for VLANs 1 and 106?
A. Listening
B. Learning
C. Disabled
D. Blocking
E. Forwarding
F. Discarding
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: D Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: D
As explained in question 2, we can deduce SW-A is the root bridge for VLANs 1 and 106 so ports Fa0/1 on SW-B and SW-C will be the root ports. From the output of SW-C for VLANs 1 and 106, port Fa0/2 of this switch is designated (forwarding) so we can deduce interface Fa0/2 of SW-B is in blocking status.
QUESTION 20
STP HOTSPOT Sim
Online Incorporated is an internet game provide. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, system administrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purpose, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of “show spanning-tree” command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the following questions:
Beware: VLAN number can change.
Which bridge ID belongs to SW-A?
A. 24623.000f.34f5.0138
B. 32768.000d.bd03.0380
C. 32768.000d.65db.0102
D. 32769.000d.65db.0102
E. 32874.000d.db03.0380
F. 32815.000d.db03.0380
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: D Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: D
SW-A is the root bridge for VLANs 1 and 106 and we can easily find the MAC address of this root bridge from the output of SW-C, it is 000d.65db.0102. Notice that SW-A has 2 bridge IDs for VLANs 1 and 106, they are 32769.000d.65db.0102 and 24682.000d.65db.0102

Exam E
QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?
A. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.
B. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
C. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated.
D. Only edge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
E. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.
Correct Answer: B Section: RSTP, MST Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol was designed to keep a switched or bridged network loop free,
with adjustments made to the network topology dynamically. A topology change typically takes 30
seconds, where a port moves from the Blocking state to the Forwarding state after two intervals of the
Forward Delay timer. As technology has improved, 30 seconds has become an unbearable length of time
to wait for a production network to failover or “heal” itself during a problem.

Topology Changes and RSTP
Recall that when an 802.1D switch detects a port state change (either up or down), it signals the Root
Bridge by sending topology change notification (TCN) BPDUs. The Root Bridge must then signal a
topology change by sending out a TCN message that is relayed to all switches in the STP domain. RSTP
detects a topology change only when a nonedge port transitions to the Forwarding state. This might seem
odd because a link failure is not used as a trigger. RSTP uses all of its rapid convergence mechanisms to
prevent bridging loops from forming.

Therefore, topology changes are detected only so that bridging tables can be updated and corrected as
hosts appear first on a failed port and then on a different functioning port. When a topology change is
detected, a switch must propagate news of the change to other switches in the network so they can correct
their bridging tables, too. This process is similar to the convergence and synchronization mechanism-
topology change (TC) messages propagate through the network in an everexpanding wave.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which four statements about this GLBP topology are true? (Choose four.)
A. Router A is responsible for answering ARP requests sent to the virtual IP address.
B. If router A becomes unavailable, router B forwards packets sent to the virtual MAC address of router A.
C. If another router is added to this GLBP group, there would be two backup AVGs.
D. Router B is in GLBP listen state.
E. Router A alternately responds to ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
F. Router B transitions from blocking state to forwarding state when it becomes the AVG.

Correct Answer: ABDE Section: GLBP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With GLBP the following is true:
With GLB, there is 1 AVG and 1 standby VG. In this case Company1 is the AVG and Company2 is the
standby. Company2 would act as a VRF and would already be forwarding and routing packets.
Any additional routers would be in a listen state.
As the role of the Active VG and load balancing, Company1 responds to ARP requests with different virtual
MAC addresses.
In this scenario, Company2 is the Standby VF for the VMAC 0008.b400.0101 and would become the
Active VF if Company1 were down.
As the role of the Active VG, the primary responsibility is to answer ARP requests to the virtual IP address.
As an AVF router Company2 is already forwarding/routing packets

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which VRRP statement about the roles of the master virtual router and the backup virtual router is true?
A. Router A is the master virtual router, and router B is the backup virtual router. When router A fails, router B becomes the master virtual router. When router A recovers, router B maintains the role of master virtual router.
B. Router A is the master virtual router, and router B is the backup virtual router. When router A fails, router B becomes the master virtual router. When router A recovers, it regains the master virtual router role.
C. Router B is the master virtual router, and router A is the backup virtual router. When router B fails, router A becomes the master virtual router. When router B recovers, router A maintains the role of master virtual router.
D. Router B is the master virtual router, and router A is the backup virtual router. When router B fails, router A becomes the master virtual router. When router B recovers, it regains the master virtual router role.

Correct Answer: B Section: VRRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
Which description correctly describes a MAC address flooding attack?
A. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the destination address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
B. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the source address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
C. The attacking device spoofs a destination MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
D. The attacking device spoofs a source MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
E. Frames with unique, invalid destination MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
F. Frames with unique, invalid source MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: F Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

An attacker is connected to interface Fa0/11 on switch A-SW2 and attempts to establish a DHCP server for a man-in-middle attack. Which recommendation, if followed, would mitigate this type of attack?
A. All switch ports in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP trusted ports.
B. All switch ports in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
C. All switch ports connecting to hosts in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP trusted ports.
D. All switch ports connecting to hosts in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
E. All switch ports in the Server Farm block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
F. All switch ports connecting to servers in the Server Farm block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.

Correct Answer: D Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: One of the ways that an attacker can gain access to network traffic is to spoof responses that would be sent by a valid DHCP server. The DHCP spoofing device replies to client DHCP requests. The legitimate server may reply also, but if the spoofing device is on the same segment as the client, its reply to the client may arrive first. The intruder’s DHCP reply offers an IP address and supporting information that designates the intruder as the default gateway or Domain Name System (DNS) server. In the case of a gateway, the clients will then forward packets to the attacking device, which will in turn send them to the desired destination. This is referred to as a “man-in-the-middle” attack, and it may go entirely undetected as the intruder intercepts the data flow through the network. Untrusted ports are those that are not explicitly configured as trusted. A DHCP binding table is built for untrusted ports. Each entry contains the client MAC address, IP address, lease time, binding type, VLAN number, and port ID recorded as clients make DHCP requests. The table is then used to filter subsequent DHCP traffic. From a DHCP snooping perspective, untrusted access ports should not send any DHCP server responses, such as DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK.
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

The web servers WS_1 and WS_2 need to be accessed by external and internal users. For security reasons, the servers should not communicate with each other, although they are located on the same subnet. However, the servers do need to communicate with a database server located in the inside
network. Which configuration isolates the servers from each other?
A. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 are defined as secondary VLAN isolated ports. The ports connecting to the two firewalls are defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
B. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 are defined as secondary VLAN community ports. The ports connecting to the two firewalls are defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
C. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 and the ports connecting to the two firewalls are defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
D. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 and the ports connecting to the two firewalls are defined as primary VLAN community ports.

Correct Answer: A Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Service providers often have devices from multiple clients, in addition to their own servers, on a single
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) segment or VLAN. As security issues proliferate, it becomes necessary to
provide traffic isolation between devices, even though they may exist on the same Layer 3 segment and
VLAN. Catalyst 6500/4500 switches implement PVLANs to keep some switch ports shared and some
switch ports isolated, although all ports exist on the same VLAN. The 2950 and 3550 support “protected
ports,” which are functionality similar to PVLANs on a per- switch basis.

A port in a PVLAN can be one of three types:
Isolated: An isolated port has complete Layer 2 separation from other ports within the same PVLAN,
except for the promiscuous port. PVLANs block all traffic to isolated ports, except the traffic from
promiscuous ports. Traffic received from an isolated port is forwarded to only promiscuous ports.
Promiscuous: A promiscuous port can communicate with all ports within the PVLAN, including the
community and isolated ports. The default gateway for the segment would likely be hosted on a
promiscuous port, given that all devices in the PVLAN will need to communicate with that port. Community:
Community ports communicate among themselves and with their promiscuous ports. These interfaces are
isolated at Layer 2 from all other interfaces in other communities, or in isolated ports within their PVLAN.

QUESTION 7
What does the command “udld reset” accomplish?
A. allows a UDLD port to automatically reset when it has been shut down
B. resets all UDLD enabled ports that have been shut down
C. removes all UDLD configurations from interfaces that were globally enabled
D. removes all UDLD configurations from interfaces that were enabled per-port
Correct Answer: B Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Dynamic ARP Inspection is enabled only on switch SW_A. Host_A and Host_B acquire their IP addresses from the DHCP server connected to switch SW_A. What would the outcome be if Host_B initiated an ARP spoof attack toward Host_A ?
A. The spoof packets are inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and are permitted.
B. The spoof packets are inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and are dropped.
C. The spoof packets are not inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and are permitted.
D. The spoof packets are not inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and are dropped.

Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When configuring DAI, follow these guidelines and restrictions:

· DAI is an ingress security feature; it does not perform any egress checking. · DAI is not effective for hosts
connected to routers that do not support DAI or that do not have this feature enabled. Because man-in-the-middle attacks are limited to a single Layer 2 broadcast domain, separate the domain with DAI checks from
the one with no checking. This action secures the ARP caches of hosts in the domain enabled for DAI. ·
DAI depends on the entries in the DHCP snooping binding database to verify IP-to-MAC address bindings
in incoming ARP requests and ARP responses. Make sure to enable DHCP snooping to permit ARP
packets that have dynamically assigned IP addresses. · When DHCP snooping is disabled or in non-DHCP
environments, use ARP ACLs to permit or to deny packets.
· DAI is supported on access ports, trunk ports, EtherChannel ports, and private VLAN ports. In our
example, since Company2 does not have DAI enabled (bullet point 2 above) packets will not be inspected
and they will be permitted.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/routers/7600/ios/12.2SXF/configuration/guide/dynarp.html

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about Layer 2 security threats?
A. MAC spoofing, in conjunction with ARP snooping, is the most effective counter-measure against reconnaissance attacks that use Dynamic ARP Inspection to determine vulnerable attack points.
B. DHCP snooping sends unauthorized replies to DHCP queries.
C. ARP spoofing can be used to redirect traffic to counter Dynamic ARP Inspection.
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection in conjunction with ARP spoofing can be used to counter DHCP snooping attacks.
E. MAC spoofing attacks allow an attacking device to receive frames intended for a different network host.
F. Port scanners are the most effective defense against Dynamic ARP Inspection.
Correct Answer: E Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
First of all, MAC spoofing is not an effective counter-measure against any reconnaissance attack; it IS an
attack! Furthermore, reconnaissance attacks don’t use dynamic ARP inspection (DAI); DAI is a switch
feature used to prevent attacks.

QUESTION 10
What does the global configuration command “ip arp inspection vlan 10-12,15” accomplish?
A. validates outgoing ARP requests for interfaces configured on VLAN 10, 11, 12, or 15
B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports
C. intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings
D. discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings on trusted ports
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The “ip arp inspection” command enables Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) for the specified VLANs. DAI is a security feature that validates Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) packets in a network. DAI allows a network administrator to intercept, log, and discard ARP packets with invalid MAC address to IP address bindings. This capability protects the network from certain “man-in-the- middle” attacks.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12.1/20ew/configuration/guide/dynarp .html
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A has sent an ARP message to the default gateway IP address 10.10.10.1. Which statement is true?
A. Because of the invalid timers that are configured, DSw1 does not reply.
B. DSw1 replies with the IP address of the next AVF.
C. DSw1 replies with the MAC address of the next AVF.
D. Because of the invalid timers that are configured, DSw2 does not reply.
E. DSw2 replies with the IP address of the next AVF.
F. DSw2 replies with the MAC address of the next AVF.
Correct Answer: F Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) is a Cisco-proprietary protocol designed to overcome the
limitations of existing redundant router protocols. Some of the concepts are the same as with HSRP/
VRRP, but the terminology is different and the behavior is much more dynamic and robust.

The trick behind this load balancing lies in the GLBP group. One router is elected the active virtual gateway
(AVG). This router has the highest priority value, or the highest IP address in the group, if there is no

highest priority. The AVG answers all ARP requests for the virtual router address. Which MAC address it returns depends on which load-balancing algorithm it is configured to use. In any event, the virtual MAC address supported by one of the routers in the group is returned. According to exhibit, Router Company2 is the Active Virtual Gateway (AVG) router because it has highest IP address even having equal priority. When router Company1 sends the ARP message to 10.10.10.1 Router Company2 will reply to Company1 as a Active Virtual Router.
QUESTION 12
What are two methods of mitigating MAC address flooding attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Place unused ports in a common VLAN.
B. Implement private VLANs.
C. Implement DHCP snooping.
D. Implement port security.
E. Implement VLAN access maps
Correct Answer: DE Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

What information can be derived from the output?
A. Interfaces FastEthernet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are connected to devices that are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter and no traffic is forwarded across the ports. After the sending of BPDUs has stopped, the interfaces must be shut down administratively, and brought back up, to resume normal operation.
B. Devices connected to interfaces FastEthernet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter, but traffic is still forwarded across the ports.
C. Devices connected to interfaces FastEthernet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter and no traffic is forwarded across the ports. After the inaccurate BPDUs have been stopped, the interfaces automatically recover and resume normal operation.
D. Interfaces FastEthernet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are candidates for becoming the STP root port, but neither can realize that role until BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter are no longer received on at least one of the interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
What is one method that can be used to prevent VLAN hopping?
A. Configure ACLs.
B. Enforce username and password combinations.
C. Configure all frames with two 802.1Q headers.
D. Explicitly turn off DTP on all unused ports.
E. Configure VACLs.
Correct Answer: D Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When securing VLAN trunks, also consider the potential for an exploit called VLAN hopping. Here, an
attacker positioned on one access VLAN can craft and send frames with spoofed 802.1Q tags so that the
packet payloads ultimately appear on a totally different VLAN, all without the use of a router.

For this exploit to work, the following conditions must exist in the network configuration:
The attacker is connected to an access switch port.
The same switch must have an 802.1Q trunk.
The trunk must have the attacker’s access VLAN as its native VLAN. To prevent from VLAN hopping turn
off Dynamic Trunking Protocol on all unused ports.

QUESTION 15
Why is BPDU guard an effective way to prevent an unauthorized rogue switch from altering the spanning-tree topology of a network?
A. BPDU guard can guarantee proper selection of the root bridge.
B. BPDU guard can be utilized along with PortFast to shut down ports when a switch is connected to the port.
C. BPDU guard can be utilized to prevent the switch from transmitting BPDUs and incorrectly altering the root bridge election.
D. BPDU guard can be used to prevent invalid BPDUs from propagating throughout the network.
Correct Answer: B Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
What two steps can be taken to help prevent VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN.
B. Enable BPDU guard.
C. Implement port security.
D. Prevent automatic trunk configurations.
E. Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on ports where it is not necessary.

Correct Answer: AD Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that Switch_A is active for the standby group and the standby device has only the default HSRP configuration. Which statement is true?
A. If port Fa1/1 on Switch_A goes down, the standby device takes over as active.
B. If the current standby device had the higher priority value, it would take over the role of active for the HSRP group.
C. If port Fa1/1 on Switch_A goes down, the new priority value for the switch would be 190.
D. If Switch_A had the highest priority number, it would not take over as active router.
Correct Answer: C Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
When an attacker is using switch spoofing to perform VLAN hopping, how is the attacker able to gather information?
A. The attacking station uses DTP to negotiate trunking with a switch port and captures all traffic that is allowed on the trunk.
B. The attacking station tags itself with all usable VLANs to capture data that is passed through the switch, regardless of the VLAN to which the data belongs.
C. The attacking station generates frames with two 802.1Q headers to cause the switch to forward the frames to a VLAN that would be inaccessible to the attacker through legitimate means.
D. The attacking station uses VTP to collect VLAN information that is sent out and then tags itself with the domain information to capture the data.
Correct Answer: A Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DTP should be disabled for all user ports on a switch. If the port is left with DTP auto-configured (default on
many switches), an attacker can connect and arbitrarily cause the port to start trunking and therefore pass
all VLAN information.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/ns340/ns517/ns224/ns376/net_design_guidance0900aecd8
00ebd1e.pdf

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

GLBP has been configured on the network. When the interface serial0/0/1 on router R1 goes down, how is the traffic coming from Host1 handled?
A. The traffic coming from Host1 and Host2 is forwarded through router R2 with no disruption.
B. The traffic coming from Host2 is forwarded through router R2 with no disruption. Host1 sends an ARP request to resolve the MAC address for the new virtual gateway.
C. The traffic coming from both hosts is temporarily interrupted while the switchover to make R2 active occurs.
D. The traffic coming from Host2 is forwarded through router R2 with no disruption. The traffic from Host1 is dropped due to the disruption of the load balancing feature configured for the GLBP group.

Correct Answer: A Section: GLBP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) is a Cisco-proprietary protocol designed to overcome the limitations of existing redundant router protocols. Some of the concepts are the same as with HSRP/VRRP, but the terminology is different and the behavior is much more dynamic and robust and allows for load balancing. The trick behind this load balancing lies in the GLBP group. One router is elected the active virtual gateway (AVG). This router has the highest priority value, or the highest IP address in the group, if there is no highest priority. The AVG answers all ARP requests for the virtual router address. Which MAC address it returns depends on which load-balancing algorithm it is configured to use. In any event, the virtual MAC address supported by one of the routers in the group is returned. According to exhibit, Company1 is the active virtual gateway and Company2 is the standby virtual gateway. So, when Company1 goes down, Company2 will become active virtual gateway and all data goes through Company2.
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

DHCP snooping is enabled for selected VLANs to provide security on the network. How do the switch ports handle the DHCP messages?
A. A DHCPOFFER packet from a DHCP server received on Ports Fa2/1 and Fa2/2 is dropped.
B. A DHCP packet received on ports Fa2/1 and Fa2/2 is dropped if the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address does not match Snooping database.
C. A DHCP packet received on ports Fa2/1 and Fa2/2 is forwarded without being tested.
D. A DHCPRELEASE message received on ports Fa2/1 and Fa2/2 has a MAC address in the DHCP snooping binding database, but the interface information in the binding database does not match the interface on which the message was received and is dropped.
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Exam F QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2.

HSRP is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not become active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?
A. R2 should be configured with an HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.

Correct Answer: D Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can configure a router to preempt or immediately take over the active role if its priority is the highest at
any time. Use the following interface configuration command to allow preemption:
Switch(config-if)# standby group preempt [delay seconds] By default, the router can preempt another
immediately, without delay. You can use the delay keyword to force it to wait for seconds before becoming
active. This is usually done if there are routing protocols that need time to converge.

QUESTION 2
Which optional feature of an Ethernet switch disables a port on a point-to-point link if the port does not receive traffic while Layer 1 status is up?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Loop Guard
D. UDLD aggressive mode
E. Fast Link Pulse bursts
F. Link Control Word
Correct Answer: D Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true? (Choose three.)
A. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
B. A routed port takes an IP address assignment.
C. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
D. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.
E. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN.
F. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?
A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking must be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing must be enabled on the switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
Which three statements about Dynamic ARP Inspection are true? (Choose three.)
A. It determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the DHCP snooping database.
B. It forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface without any checks.
C. It determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the CAM table.
D. It forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface after verifying and inspecting the packet against the Dynamic ARP Inspection table.
E. It intercepts all ARP packets on untrusted ports.
F. It is used to prevent against a DHCP snooping attack.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 6
A network administrator wants to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 7
The following command was issued on a router that is being configured as the active HSRP router.
standby ip 10.2.1.1
Which statement about this command is true?
A. This command will not work because the HSRP group information is missing.
B. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.0c07.ac00.
C. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.0c07.ac01.
D. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.070c.ac11.
E. This command will not work because the active parameter is missing.

Correct Answer: B Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

The link between switch SW1 and switch SW2 is configured as a trunk, but the trunk failed to establish connectivity between the switches. Based on the configurations and the error messages received on the console of SW1, what is the cause of the problem?
A. The two ends of the trunk have different duplex settings.
B. The two ends of the trunk have different EtherChannel configurations.
C. The two ends of the trunk have different native VLAN configurations.
D. The two ends of the trunk allow different VLANs on the trunk.
Correct Answer: C Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
A campus infrastructure supports wireless clients via Cisco Aironet AG Series 1230, 1240, and 1250
access points. With DNS and DHCP configured, the 1230 and 1240 access points appear to boot and
operate normally. However, the 1250 access points do not seem to operate correctly.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. DHCP with option 150
B. DHCP with option 43
C. PoE
D. DNS
E. switch port does not support gigabit speeds
Correct Answer: C Section: WLANs Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
A standalone wireless AP solution is being installed into the campus infrastructure. The access points appear to boot correctly, but wireless clients are not obtaining correct access. You verify that this is the local switch configuration connected to the access point:
interface ethernet 0/1 switchport access vlan 10 switchport mode access spanning-tree portfast mls qos trust dscp
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. QoS trust should not be configured on a port attached to a standalone AP.
B. QoS trust for switchport mode access should be defined as “cos”.
C. switchport mode should be defined as “trunk” with respective QoS.
D. switchport access vlan should be defined as “1”.
Correct Answer: C Section: WLANs Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
During the implementation of a voice solution, which two required items are configured at an access layer switch that will be connected to an IP phone to provide VoIP communication? (Choose two.)
A. allowed codecs
B. untagged VLAN
C. auxiliary VLAN
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address
E. RSTP
Correct Answer: BC Section: IP Telephony Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Which two statements best describe Cisco IOS IP SLA? (Choose two.)
A. only implemented between Cisco source and destination-capable devices
B. statistics provided by syslog, CLI, and SNMP
C. measures delay, jitter, packet loss, and voice quality
D. only monitors VoIP traffic flows
E. provides active monitoring
Correct Answer: CE Section: Network Monitoring Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
Which two items best describe a Cisco IOS IP SLA responder? (Choose two.)
A. required at the destination to implement Cisco IOS IP SLA services
B. improves measurement accuracy
C. required for VoIP jitter measurements
D. provides security on Cisco IOS IP SLA messages via LEAP or EAP-FAST authentication
E. responds to one Cisco IOS IP SLA operation per port
F. stores the resulting test statistics
Correct Answer: BC Section: Network Monitoring Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Which two characteristics apply to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch supervisor redundancy using NSF? (Choose two.)
A. supported by RIPv2, OSPF, IS-IS, and EIGRP
B. uses the FIB table
C. supports IPv4 and IPv6 multicast
D. prevents route flapping
E. independent of SSO
F. NSF combined with SSO enables supervisor engine load balancing
Correct Answer: BD Section: Supervisor and Route Processor Redundancy Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
You are tasked with designing a security solution for your network. What information should be gathered before you design the solution?
A. IP addressing design plans, so that the network can be appropriately segmented to mitigate potential network threats
B. a list of the customer requirements
C. detailed security device specifications
D. results from pilot network testing
Correct Answer: B Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
Which two components should be part of a security implementation plan? (Choose two.)
A. detailed list of personnel assigned to each task within the plan
B. a Layer 2 spanning-tree design topology
C. rollback guidelines
D. placing all unused access ports in VLAN 1 to proactively manage port security
E. enabling SNMP access to Cisco Discovery Protocol data for logging and forensic analysis
Correct Answer: BC Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
When creating a network security solution, which two pieces of information should you have obtained previously to assist in designing the solution? (Choose two.)
A. a list of existing network applications currently in use on the network
B. network audit results to uncover any potential security holes
C. a planned Layer 2 design solution
D. a proof-of-concept plan
E. device configuration templates
Correct Answer: AB Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
What action should you be prepared to take when verifying a security solution?
A. having alternative addressing and VLAN schemes
B. having a rollback plan in case of unwanted or unexpected results
C. running a test script against all possible security threats to insure that the solution will mitigate all potential threats
D. isolating and testing each security domain individually to insure that the security design will meet overall requirements when placed into production as an entire system
Correct Answer: B Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, what is the maximum number of secure MAC addresses that should be set on the port?
A. No more than one secure MAC address should be set.
B. The default is set.
C. The IP phone should use a dedicated port, therefore only one MAC address is needed per port.
D. No value is needed if the switchport priority extend command is configured.
E. No more than two secure MAC addresses should be set.
Correct Answer: B Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

From the configuration shown, what can be determined?
A. The sticky addresses are only those manually configured MAC addresses enabled with the sticky keyword.
B. The remaining secure MAC addresses are learned dynamically, converted to sticky secure MAC addresses, and added to the running configuration.
C. A voice VLAN is configured in this example, so port security should be set for a maximum of 2.
D. A security violation restricts the number of addresses to a maximum of 10 addresses per access VLAN and voice VLAN. The port is shut down if more than 10 devices per VLAN attempt to access the port.
Correct Answer: B Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Exam G QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

BPDUGuard is enabled on both ports of SwitchA. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements about the possible result of attaching the second link are true? (Choose two.)
A. The switch port attached to LinkB does not transition to up.
B. One or both of the two switch ports attached to the hub goes into the err-disabled state when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub transitions to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA immediately transitions to the blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain.
B. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain.
C. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain.
D. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.
Correct Answer: D Section: VTP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning should only be enabled on VTP servers, all the clients in the VTP domain will automatically enable VTP pruning -> C is correct.
QUESTION 3
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B Section: VTP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer B. Explanation VTP Pruning makes more efficient use of trunk bandwidth by forwarding broadcast and unknown unicast frames on a VLAN only if the switch on the receiving end of the trunk has ports in that VLAN. The following example shows the operation of a VTP domain without and with VTP Pruning.
Without VTP Pruning:

VTP domain without VTP Pruning
When PC A sends a broadcast frame on VLAN 10, it travels across all trunk links in the VTP domain. Switches Server, Sw2, and Sw3 all receive broadcast frames from PC A. But only Sw3 has user on VLAN 10 and it is a waste of bandwidth on Sw2. Moreover, that broadcast traffic also consumes processor time on Sw2. The link between switches Server and Sw2 does not carry any VLAN 10 traffic so it can be “pruned”.

VTP domain with VTP Pruning
QUESTION 4
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a, what does 07.ac represent?
A. vendor code
B. HSRP group number
C. HSRP router number
D. HSRP well-known physical MAC address
E. HSRP well-known virtual MAC address
Correct Answer: E Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: HSRP code (HSRP well-known virtual MAC address) The fact that the MAC address is for an HSRP virtual router is indicated in the next two bytes of the address. The HSRP code is always 07.ac. The HSRP protocol uses a virtual MAC address, which always contains the 07.ac numerical value. Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 268
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access
resources through router 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through router 1. What is the cause of this problem?
A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107.
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk.
D. Spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107.
Correct Answer: B Section: VTP
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Answer: B

“VLAN allowed on trunk” – Each trunk allows all VLANs by default. However,
administrator can remove or add to the list by using the “switchport trunk allowed”
command.
“VLANs allowed and active in management” – To be active, a VLAN must be in this list.
“VLANs in spanning tree forwarding state and not pruned” – This list is a subset of the
“allowed and active” list but with any VTP-pruned VLANs removed.
All VLANs were configured except VLAN 101 so D is not correct. VLAN 107 exists in the
“allowed and active” section so A and C are not correct, too. In the “forwarding state and
not pruned” we don’t see VLAN 107 so the administrator had wrongly configured this
VLAN as pruned.

QUESTION 6
Which protocol will enable a group of routers to form a single virtual router and will use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP
Correct Answer: D Section: VRRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) feature enables a group of routers to form a single virtual

router. The LAN clients can then be configured with the virtual router as their default gateway. The virtual
router, representing a group of routers, is also known as a VRRP group.
VRRP is defined in RFC 2338.
Reference: http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc2338.html

QUESTION 7
On a multilayer Cisco Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport
B. no switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. switchport access vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: A Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The switchport command puts the port in Layer 2 mode. Then, you can use other switchport command
keywords to configure trunking, access VLANs, and so on.

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?
A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The standby preempt interface configuration command allows the router to become the active router when its priority is higher than all other HSRP-configured routers in this Hot Standby group. The configurations of both routers include this command so that each router can be the standby router for the other router. The 1 indicates that this command applies to Hot Standby group 1. If you do not use the standby preempt command in the configuration for a router, that router cannot become the active router.
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users report that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance.
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.

Correct Answer: BD Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
What two things occur when an RSTP edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
A. The port immediately transitions to the forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.
Correct Answer: BD Section: RSTP, MST Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch?
Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, the port transitions to the forwarding state.
D. The command enables BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.
Correct Answer: A Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the debug output, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose three.)
A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address
172.16.11.111.
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
A. spanning tree issues
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. VRRP misconfiguration
D. physical layer issues
E. transport layer issues

Correct Answer: BD Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

What does the command channel-group 1 mode desirable do?
A. enables LACP unconditionally
B. enables PAgP only if a PAgP device is detected
C. enables PAgP unconditionally
D. enables EtherChannel only
E. enables LACP only if an LACP device is detected
Correct Answer: C Section: EtherChannels Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface gigabitethernet 0/1 has been configured as Layer 3 ports.
B. Interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output because switchport is enabled.
C. Interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output because it is configured as a trunk interface.
D. VLAN2 has been configured as the native VLAN for the 802.1q trunk on interface gigabitethernet 0/1.
E. Traffic on VLAN 1 that is sent out gigabitethernet 0/1 will have an 802.1q header applied.
F. Traffic on VLAN 2 that is sent out gigabitethernet 0/1 will have an 802.1q header applied.
Correct Answer: CF Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
Which two statements about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP are true? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations needed to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: GLBP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B.

STP is configured on all switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port:
00:06:34: %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half duplex), with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex), with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).
What is the possible outcome of the problem?
A. The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.
B. The root port on switch SW_B will fall back to full-duplex mode.
C. The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.
D. Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop.

Correct Answer: D Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 is forwarded, and all other traffic is dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 is forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC is forwarded, and all other traffic is dropped.
Correct Answer: D Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
Which two statements about HSRP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating multiple subinterfaces on the HSRP routers.
B. Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating HSRP groups on the HSRP routers.
C. Routers configured for HSRP must belong only to one group per HSRP interface.
D. Routers configured for HSRP can belong to multiple groups and multiple VLANs.
E. All routers configured for HSRP load balancing must be configured with the same priority.
Correct Answer: BD Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
Which statement about 802.1x port-based authentication is true?
A. Hosts are required to have an 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The IEEE 802.1x standard defines a port-based access control and authentication protocol that restricts unauthorized workstations from connecting to a LAN through publicly accessible switch ports. The authentication server authenticates each workstation that is connected to a switch port before making available any services offered by the switch or the LAN. Until the workstation is authenticated, 802.1x access control allows only Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPOL) traffic through the port to which the workstation is connected. After authentication succeeds, normal traffic can pass through the port.
Authentication server: Performs the actual authentication of the client. The authentication server validates the identity of the client and notifies the switch whether or not the client is authorized to access the LAN and switch services. Because the switch acts as the proxy, the authentication service is transparent to the client. The RADIUS security system with Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) extensions is the only supported authentication server. New Questions

Exam H QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Switch S1 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst. Switch S3 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode mst. Switch S2 is running the IEEE 802.1D instance of Spanning Tree. What is the result?
A. IEEE 802.1w and IEEE 802.1s are compatible. IEEE 802.1d is incompatible. Switches S1 and S3 can pass traffic between themselves. Neither can pass traffic to switch S2.
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 can pass traffic between themselves.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 can pass traffic between themselves. However, if the topology is changed, switch S2 does not receive notification of the change.
D. IEEE 802.1d, IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic can pass between any of the switches.

Correct Answer: B Section: RSTP, MST Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

What can be concluded about VLANs 200 and 202?
A. VLAN 202 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 200 carries traffic between community ports and to promiscuous ports.
B. VLAN 202 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 200 carries traffic from isolated ports to a promiscuous port.
C. VLAN 200 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 202 carries traffic between community ports and to promiscuous ports.
D. VLAN 200 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 202 carries traffic from isolated ports to a promiscuous port.

Correct Answer: B Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Both routers are configured for the GLBP. Which statement is true?
A. The default gateway addresses of both hosts should be set to the IP addresses of both routers.
B. The default gateway address of each host should be set to the virtual IP address.
C. The hosts learn the proper default gateway IP address from router A.
D. The hosts have different default gateway IP addresses and different MAC addresses for each router.
Correct Answer: B Section: GLBP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: GLBP performs a similar, but not identical, function for the user as the HSRP and VRRP. Both HSRP and VRRP protocols allow multiple routers to participate in a virtual router group configured with a virtual IP address. One member is elected to be the active router to forward packets sent to the virtual IP address for the group. The other routers in the group are redundant until the active router fails. With standard HSRP and VRRP, these standby routers pass no traffic in normal operation – which is wasteful. Therefore the concept cam about for using multiple virtual router groups, which are configured for the same set of routers. But to share the load, the hosts must be configured for different default gateways, which results in an extra administrative burden of going around and configuring every host and creating 2 or more groups of hosts that each use a different default gateway. GLBP is similar in that it provides load balancing over multiple routers (gateways) – but it can do this using only ONE virtual IP address!!! Underneath that one virtual IP address is multiple virtual MAC addresses, and this is how the load is balanced between the routers. Instead of the hassle of configuring all the hosts with a static Default Gateway, you can lket them use ARP’s to find their own. Multiple gateways in a “GLBP redundancy group” respond to client Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests in a shared and ordered fashion, each with their own unique virtual MAC addresses. As such, workstation traffic is divided across all possible gateways. Each host is configured with the same virtual IP address, and all routers in the virtual router group participate in forwarding packets Reference: http://www.infocellar.com/networks/Routers/HSRP-GLBP-VRRP.htm
QUESTION 4
A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default gateway be configured?
A. isolated
B. promiscuous
C. community
D. primary
E. trunk
Correct Answer: B Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Promiscuous: The switch port connects to a router, firewall, or other common gateway device. This port
can communicate with anything else connected to the primary or any secondary VLAN. In other words, the
port is in promiscuous mode, in which the rules of private VLANs are ignored.

QUESTION 5
In the MAC address 0000.0c07.ac03, what does the “03” represent?
A. HSRP router number 3
B. Type of encapsulation
C. HSRP group number
D. VRRP group number
E. GLBP group number
Correct Answer: C Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Each router keeps a unique MAC address for its interface. This MAC address is always associated with the unique IP address configured on the interface. For the virtual router address, HSRP defines a special MAC address of the form 0000.0c07.acxx, where xx represents the HSRP group number as a two-digit hex value. For example, HSRP Group 1 appears as 0000.0c07.ac01, HSRP Group 16 appears as 0000.0c07.ac10.
QUESTION 6
A network is deployed using recommended practices of the enterprise campus network model, including users with desktop computers connected via IP phones. Given that all components are QoS-capable, where are the two optimal locations for trust boundaries to be configured by the network administrator? (Choose two.)
A. host
B. IP phone
C. access layer switch
D. distribution layer switch
E. core layer switch
Correct Answer: BC Section: IP Telephony Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 7
What is needed to verify that a newly implemented security solution is performing as expected?
A. a detailed physical and logical topology
B. a cost analysis of the implemented solution
C. detailed logs from the AAA and SNMP servers
D. results from audit testing of the implemented solution
Correct Answer: D Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
When configuring port security on a Cisco Catalyst switch port, what is the default action taken by the switch if a violation occurs?
A. protect (drop packets with unknown source addresses)
B. restrict (increment SecurityViolation counter)
C. shut down (access or trunk port)
D. transition (the access port to a trunking port)
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
hostname Switch1 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.32 255.255.255.0 no ip redirects standby 1 ip 172.16.10.110 standby 1 timers 1 5 standby 1 priority 130
hostname Switch2 interface Vlan10
ip address 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.0 .

no ip redirects standby 1 ip 172.16.10.110 standby 1 timers 1 5 standby 1 priority 120
Refer to the above. HSRP was implemented and configured on two switches while scheduled network maintenance was performed.
After the two switches have finished rebooting, you notice via show commands that Switch2 is the HSRP active router. Which two items are the most likely cause of Switch1 not becoming the active router? (Choose two.)
A. Booting has been delayed.
B. The standby group number does not match the VLAN number.
C. IP addressing is incorrect.
D. Preemption is disabled.
E. Standby timers are incorrect.
F. IP redirect is disabled.
Correct Answer: AD Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
Private VLANs can be configured as which three port types? (Choose three.)
A. isolated
B. protected
C. private
D. associated
E. promiscuous
F. community
Correct Answer: AEF Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the private VLAN configuration is true?
A. Only VLAN 503 will be the community PVLAN, because multiple community PVLANs are not allowed.
B. Users of VLANs 501 and 503 will be able to communicate.
C. VLAN 502 is a secondary VLAN.
D. VLAN 502 will be a standalone VLAN, because it is not associated with any other VLANs.

Correct Answer: C Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
When configuring a routed port on a Cisco multilayer switch, which configuration task is needed to enable that port to function as a routed port?
A. Enable the switch to participate in routing updates from external devices with the router command in global configuration mode.
B. Enter the no switchport command to disable Layer 2 functionality at the interface level.
C. Each port participating in routing of Layer 3 packets must have an IP routing protocol assigned on a per-interface level.
D. Routing is enabled by default on a multilayer switch, so the port can become a Layer 3 routing interface by assigning the appropriate IP address and subnet information.
Correct Answer: B Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
You have configured a Cisco Catalyst switch to perform Layer 3 routing via an SVI and you have assigned that interface to VLAN 20. To check the status of the SVI, you issue the show interfaces vlan 20 command at the CLI prompt. You see from the output display that the interface is in an up/up state. What must be true in an SVI configuration to bring the VLAN and line protocol up?
A. The port must be physically connected to another Layer 3 device.
B. At least one port in VLAN 20 must be active.
C. The Layer 3 routing protocol must be operational and receiving routing updates from neighboring peer devices.
D. Because this is a virtual interface, the operational status is always in an “up/up” state.
Correct Answer: B Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit, which is from a Cisco Catalyst 3560 Series Switch.

Which statement about the Layer 3 routing functionality of the interface is true?
A. The interface is configured correctly for Layer 3 routing capabilities.
B. The interface needs an additional configuration entry to enable IP routing protocols.
C. Since the interface is connected to a host device, the spanning-tree portfast command must be added to the interface.
D. An SVI interface is needed to enable IP routing for network 192.20.135.0.

Correct Answer: A Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 60
Which of the following specifications will allow you to associate VLAN groups to STP instances so you can provide multiple forwarding paths for data traffic and enable load balancing?
A. IEEE 802.1d (STP)
B. IEEE 802.1s (MST)
C. IEEE 802.1q (CST)
D. IEEE 802.1w (RSTP)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the Server Farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two)

A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance.
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
All three switches have the same bridge priority (32768 default value) and S1 has the lowest MAC -> S1 is the root bridge and all traffic must go through it -> Front Line Users (S2) must go through S1 to reach Server Farm (S3). To overcome this problem, S2 or S3 should become the root switch and we can do it by changing the bridge priority of S1 to a higher value (which lower its priority answer B) or lower the bridge priority value (which higher its priority answer D)
QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements are true about the possible result of attaching the second link? (Choose two)

A. The switch port attached to LinkB will not transistion to up.
B. One of the two switch ports attached to the hub will go into blocking mode when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub will transition to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA will immediately transition to the blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
we know that there will have only one Designated port for each segment (notice that the two ports of SwitchA are on the same segment as they are connected to a hub). The other port will be in Blocking state. But how does SwitchA select its Designated and Blocking port? The decision process involves the following parameters inside the BPDU:
*
Lowest path cost to the Root

*
Lowest Sender Bridge ID (BID)

*
Lowest Port ID
In this case, both interfaces of SwitchA have the same “path cost to the root” and “sender bridge ID” so the third parameter “lowest port ID” will be used. Suppose two interfaces of SwitchA are fa0/1 & fa0/2 then SwitchA will select fa0/1 as its Designated port (because fa0/1 is inferior to fa0/2) -> B is correct.
Suppose the port on LinkA (named portA) is in forwarding state and the port on LinkB (named portB) is in blocking state. In blocking state, port B still listens to the BPDUs. If the traffic passing through LinkA is too heavy and the BPDUs can not reach portB, portB will move to listening state (after 20 seconds for STP) then learning state (after 15 seconds) and forwarding state (after 15 seconds). At this time, both portA & portB are in forwarding state so a switching loop will occur -> D is correct.
QUESTION 63
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is running mst IEEE 802.1s. Switch S2 contains the default configuration running IEEE 802.1D. Switch S3 has had the command spanning-tree mode rapid- pvst running IEEE 802.1w. What will be the result?

A. IEEE 802.1D and IEEE 802.1w are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
D. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to exchange traffic but neither will be able to exchange traffic with Switch S2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
A switch running both MSTP and RSTP supports a built-in protocol migration mechanism that enables it to interoperate with legacy 802.1D switches. If this switch receives a legacy 802.1D configuration BPDU (a BPDU with the protocol version set to 0), it sends only 802.1D BPDUs on that port. An MST switch can also detect that a port is at the boundary of a region when it receives a legacy BPDU, an MST BPDU (version 3) associated with a different region, or an RST BPDU (version 2). However, the switch does not automatically revert to the MSTP mode if it no longer receives 802.1D BPDUs because it cannot determine whether the legacy switch has been removed from the link unless the legacy switch is the designated switch
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12.1_9_ea1/config uration/ guide/swmstp.html)
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S2 contains the default configuration. Switches S1 and S3 both have had the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst issued on them. What will be the result?

A. IEEE 802.1D and IEEE 802.1w are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.
B. Switches S1, S2. and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves.
C. Switches S1, S2. and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change. Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
D. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to exchange traffic but neither will be able to exchange traffic with Switch S2.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two)
A. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value (2 bytes) and bridge MAC address (6 bytes).
B. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (4 bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
C. The BID is made up of the system ID (6 bytes) and bridge priority value (2 bytes).
D. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
F. The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
In short, with the use of IEEE 802.1t spanning-tree extensions, some of the bits previously used for the switch priority are now used for the extended system ID Only four high-order bits of the 16-bit Bridge Priority field carry actual priority. Therefore, priority can be incremented only in steps of 4096. In most cases, the Extended System ID holds the VLAN ID. For example, if our VLAN ID is 5 and we use the default bridge priority 32768 then the 16-bit Priority will be 32768 + 5 = 32773.

Note: The MAC address is reserved when the extended system ID feature is enabled.
QUESTION 66
Which set of statements about Spanning Tree Protocol default timers is true?
A. The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 10 seconds. The max_age timer is 15 seconds.
B. The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 15 seconds. The max_age timer is 20 seconds.
C. The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 20 seconds. The max_age timer is 30 seconds.
D. The hello time is 5 seconds. The forward delay is 10 seconds. The max_age timer is 15 seconds.
E. The hello time is 5 seconds. The forward delay is 15 seconds. The max_age timer is 20 seconds.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
There are several STP timers, as this list shows:
*
Hello – The hello time is the time between each bridge protocol data unit (BPDU) that is sent on a port. This time is equal to 2 seconds (sec) by default, but you can tune the time to be between 1 and 10 sec.

*
Forward delay The forward delay is the time that is spent in the listening and learning state. This time is equal to 15 sec by default, but you can tune the time to be between 4 and 30 sec.

*
Max age The max age timer controls the maximum length of time that passes before a bridge port saves its configuration BPDU information. This time is 20 sec by default, but you can tune the time to be between 6 and 40 sec.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094954.shtml )
QUESTION 67
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN
20. If the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
All ports on root bridge are designated ports, which are in forwarding state but notice in this case Switch 15 is the root switch for VLAN 10 -> all ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding state. We can not say anything about the modes of ports of Switch 15 in other VLANs.
QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?

A. All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the reconvergence of the spanning tree domain.
B. Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only.
C. Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2.
D. No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and running.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
This command sets the switch to become root for a given VLAN. It works by lowering the priority of the switch until it becomes root. Once the switch is root, it will not prevent any other switch from becoming root. In particular, if the current root bridge is greater than 24576 then our switch will drop to 24576. If the current root bridge is less than 24576, our new bridge priority will be (Priority value of the current root bridge 4096).
This command does not affect other VLAN so SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN -> C is correct.
Note: This command is not shown in a Catalyst switch configuration because the command is actually a macro executing other switch commands.
QUESTION 69
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show spanning-tree command, which statement is true?

A. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary global configuration command.
B. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary global configuration command.
C. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 24577 global configuration command.
D. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 2 global configuration command.
E. The root bridge has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary global configuration command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The command “spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary” sets its bridge ID to a value which is higher than the current root bridge but lower than other switches in the network -> If the current root bridge fails, Sw1 will become the root bridge.
If no priority has been configured, every switch will have the same default priority of 32768. Assuming all other switches are at default priority, the spanning-tree vlan vlan-id root primary command sets a value of 24576. Also, assuming all other switches are at default priority, the spanning-tree vlan vlan-id root secondary command sets a value of 28672.
In this question, the bridge priority of Sw1 is 28673, not 28672 because the extended system ID (indicated as sys-id-ext) is 1, indicating this is the STP instance for VLAN 1. In fact, the bridge priority is 28672.
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output of the show spanning-tree inconsistentports command, which statement about interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and FastEthernet 0/2 is true?

A. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpdufilter disable command.
B. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpdufilter enable command.
C. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpduguard disable command.
D. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpduguard enable command.
E. They have been configured with the spanning-tree guard loop command.
F. They have been configured with the spanning-tree guard root command.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
We can configure the root guard feature to prevent unauthorized switches from becoming the root bridge. When you enable root guard on a port, if that port receives a superior BPDU, instead of believing the BPDU, the port goes into a root-inconsistent state. While a port is in the root- inconsistent state, no user data is sent across it. However, after the superior BPDUs stop, the port returns to the forwarding state.

For example, in the topology above suppose S1 is the current root bridge. If a hacker plugs a switch on S3 which sends superior BPDUs then it will become the new root bridge, this will also change the traffic path and may result in a traffic jam. By enabling root guard on S3 port, if spanning-tree calculations cause an interface to be selected as the root port, the interface transitions to the root-inconsistent (blocked) state instead to prevent the hacker’s switch from becoming the root switch or being in the path to the root.
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be derived from the output?

A. Devices connected to interfaces FastEthemet3/1 and FastEthemet3/2 are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter and no traffic is forwarded across the ports. Once inaccurate BPDUs have been stopped, the interfaces will need to be administratively shut down, and brought back up, to resume normal operation.
B. Devices connected to interfaces FastEthemet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter, but traffic is still forwarded across the ports.
C. Devices connected to interfaces FastEthemet3/1 and FastEthemet3/2 are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter and no traffic is forwarded across the ports. Once inaccurate BPDUs have been stopped, the interfaces automatically recover and resume normal operation.
D. Interfaces FastEthemet3/1 and FastEthemet3/2 are candidate for becoming the STP root port, but neither can realize that role until BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter are no longer received on at least one of the interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Same explanation as
QUESTION 72
Which statement is correct about RSTP port roles?
A. The designated port is the switch port on every nonroot bridge that is the chosen path to the root bridge. There can be only one designated port on every switch. The designated port assumes the forwarding state in a stable active topology. All switches connected to a given segment listen to all BPDUs and determine the switch that will be the root switch for a particular segment.
B. The disabled port is an additional switch port on the designated switch with a redundant link to the segment for which the switch is designated. A disabled port has a higher port 10 than the disabled port on the designated switch. The disabled port assumes the discarding state in a stable active topology.
C. The backup port is a switch port that offers an alternate path toward the root bridge. The backup port assumes a discarding state in a stable, active topology. The backup port will be present on nondesignated switches and will make a transition to a designated port if the current designated path fails.
D. The root port is the switch port on every nonroot bridge that is the chosen path to the root bridge. There can be only one root port on every switch. The root port assumes the forwarding state in a stable active topology.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To learn about RSTP port roles, please read my RSTP tutorial.
QUESTION 73
How are STP timers and state transitions affected when a topology change occurs in an STP environment?
A. All ports will temporarily transition to the learning state for a period equal to the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
B. All ports will transition temporarily to the learning state for a period equal to the forward delay interval.
C. The default aging time for MAC address entries will be reduced for a period of the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
D. The default hello time for configuration BPDUs will be reduced for the period of the max age timer.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: C (but the wording may cause you to misunderstand)
Explanation
If a switch stops receiving Hellos, it means that there is a failure in the network. The switch will initiate the process of changing the Spanning-tree topology. The process requires the use of 3 STP timers:
*
Hello – the time between each bridge protocol data unit (BPDU) that is sent on a port. This time is equal to 2 seconds (sec) by default, but you can tune the time to be between 1 and 10 sec.

*
Forward delay the time that is spent in the listening and learning state. This time is equal to 15 sec by default, but you can tune the time to be between 4 and 30 sec.

*
Max age maximum length of time a BPDU can be stored without receiving an update.. This time is 20 sec by default, but you can tune the time to be between 6 and 40 sec.
Max Age is the time that a bridge stores a BPDU before discarding it.
Switches (Bridges) keep its MAC address table entries for 300 seconds (5 minutes, known as aging time), by default. When a network topology change happens, the Switch (Bridge) temporarily lowers the aging time to the same as the forward delay time (15 seconds) to relearn the MAC address changes happened because of topology change.
This is important because normally only after five minutes an entry is aged out from the MAC address table of the switch and the network devices could be unreachable for up to 5 minutes. This is known as a black hole because frames can be forwarded to a device, which is no longer available.
Notice that shortening the aging time to 15 seconds does not flush the entire table, it just accelerates the aging process. Devices that continue to “speak” during the 15-second age-out period never leave the bridging table. Therefore in this question, to be clearer answer C should state “The default aging time for MAC address entries will be reduced to forward_delay time for a period of the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.”
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094797.shtml )
QUESTION 74
Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree guard root is configured on interface Gi0/0 on both switch S2 and S5. The global configuration command spanning-tree uplinkfast has been configured on both switch S2 and S5. The link between switch S4 and S5 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B?

A. Fifty percent of the traffic will successfully reach Host B, and fifty percent will dead-end at switch S3 because of a partial spanning-tree loop.
B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S2 and dead-end at S2.
C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S6 and Host A.
D. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switches S2 and S3.
E. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S2 to S1.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
First we should understand about UpLinkFast.

Suppose S1 is the root bridge in the topology above. S3 is connected to S1 via two paths: one direct path and another goes through S2. Suppose the port directly connected to S1 is root port -> port connected to S2 will be in Blocking state. If the primary link goes down, the blocked port will need about 50 seconds to move from Blocking -> Listening -> Learning -> Forwarding to be used.
To shorten the downtime, a feature called Uplink Fast can be used. When the primary (root) link fails, another blocked link can be brought up immediately for use. When UplinkFast is enabled, it is enabled for the entire switch and all VLANs. It cannot be enabled for individual VLANs.
In this question, the Root Guard feature has been enabled on Gi0/0 of S2 & S5 so these two Gi0/0 ports cannot be root ports and cannot forward traffic -> the link between S2 & S6 must be used.
Note: The idea of Uplink Fast is based on blocked ports which are possible to become a root port. Therefore the Uplink Fast feature is not allowed on the root bridge -> S2 & S5 cannot be root bridges in this case.
QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree guard root is configured on interface Gi0/0 on both switch S2 and S5. The global configuration command spanning-tree uplinkfast has been configured on both switch S2 and S5. The link between switch S4 and S5 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B?

A. Yes. Traffic can pass either from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1, or, from switch S6 to S5 to S2 to S1.
B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end at interface Gi0/0.
C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S5 and S2.
D. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1.
E. No. Traffic will either pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end, or traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 and dead-end.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Same explanation as
QUESTION 76
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking.
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F. Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Common Spanning Tree only uses one spanning-tree instance for all VLANs in the network -> A is not correct.
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP; IEEE 802.1w) can be seen as an evolution of the 802.1D standard more than a revolution. The 802.1D terminology remains primarily the same. Most parameters have been left unchanged so users familiar with 802.1D can rapidly configure the new protocol comfortably -> B is not correct.
Per-VLAN spanning tree protocol plus (PVST+) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that expands on the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) by allowing a separate spanning tree for each VLAN. Cisco first developed this protocol as PVST, which worked with the Cisco ISL trunking protocol, and then later developed PVST+ which utilizes the 802.1Q trunking protocol. PVST+ allows interoperability between CST and PVST in Cisco switches -> C is not correct but D is correct.
RSTP significantly reduces the time to reconverge the active topology of the network when changes to the physical topology or its configuration parameters occur. RSTP supports Edge Ports (similar to PortFast), UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) can also revert back to 802.1D STP for interoperability with older switches and existing infrastructures -> E is correct.
Multiple Spanning Tree can map one or more VLANs to a single STP instance. Multiple instances of STP can be used (hence the name MST), with each instance supporting a different group of VLANs. For example, instead of creating 50 STP separate STP instances for 50 VLANs, we can create only 2 STP instances each for 25 VLANs. This helps saving switch resources -> F is not correct.
QUESTION 77
Given the diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two statements are true? (Choose two)

A. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which two RSTP port roles include the port as part of the active topology? (Choose two)
A. root
B. designated
C. alternate
D. backup
E. forwarding
F. learning

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
What is the result of entering the command spanning-tree loopguard default?
A. The command enables both loop guard and root guard.
B. The command changes the status of loop guard from the default of disabled to enabled.
C. The command activates loop guard on point-to-multipoint links in the switched network.
D. The command will disable EtherChannel guard.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
This command is used in global configuration mode to enable loop guard on all ports of a given switch. To disable it, use the “no” keyword at the beginning of this command.
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. The service provider wants to ensure that switch S1 is the root switch for its own network and the network of the customer. On which interfaces should root guard be configured to ensure that this happens?

A. interfaces 1 and 2
B. interfaces 1,2,3, and 4
C. interfaces 1, 3, 5, and 6
D. interfaces 5 and 6
E. interfaces 5, 6, 7, and 8
F. interfaces 11 and 12

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Let’s see what will happen if we set port 5 & 6 as “root guard” ports:
First, notice that the “root guard” command cannot be used on root switch (because this command is based on blocked port while a root switch can’t have a blocked port -> two middle switches cannot become root bridges.
Moreover, the neighbor switch which has its port connected with this “root guard” port can’t be the root bridge. For example if we configure port 6 as “root guard” port, the left-bottom switch (the switch with ports 3, 4) can’t be root bridge because that will make port 6 root port. Therefore by configuring port 5 & 6 as “root guard” ports, two switches in the “Customer network” cannot become root bridge.
QUESTION 81
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
First, only switches in Distribution section should become root bridge -> only DSW11 or DSW12 should be chosen.
The traffic passing root bridge is always higher than other switches so we should choose switch with highest speed connection to be root bridge -> DSW12 with two 100Mbps connections should be chosen.
Also, the correct command to change priority value for a specific VLAN is spanning-treee vlan VLAN-ID priority Priority-number.
QUESTION 82
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
MST maps multiple VLANs that have the same traffic flow requirements into the same spanning-tree instance. The main enhancement introduced by MST raises the problem, however, of determining what VLAN is to be associated with what instance. More precisely, based on received BPDUs, devices need to identify these instances and the VLANs that are mapped to the instance.
To be part of a common MST region, a group of switches must share the same configuration attributes. In particular, the configuration name (or region name 32 bits), revision number (16 bits), and VLAN mapping (associate VLANs with spanning-tree instances) need to be the same for all the switches within the same region.
An example of configuring MST on a switch is shown below:
Configuration Description Switch(config)# spanning-tree Turn on MST (and RSTP) on this switch mode mst
Switch(config)# spanning-tree Enter MST configuration submode mst configuration
Switch(config-mst)# name Name MST instance certprepare
Set the 16-bit MST revision number. It is not incremented Switch(config-mst)# revision 5 automatically when you commit a new MST configuration.
Switch(config-mst)#instance 1 Map instance with respective VLANs vlan 5-10
Switch(config-mst)#instance 2 vlan 11-15
QUESTION 83
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three)
A. Region name
B. Configuration revision number
C. VLAN instance map
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Same as
QUESTION 84
Which three statements about the MST protocol (IEEE 802.1S) are true? (Choose three)
A. To verify the MST configuration, the show pending command can be used in MST configuration mode.
B. When RSTP and MSTP are configured; UplinkFast and BackboneFast must also be enabled.
C. All switches in the same MST region must have the same VLAN-to-instance mapping, but different configuration revision numbers.
D. All switches in an MST region, except distribution layer switches, should have their priority lowered from the default value 32768.
E. An MST region is a group of MST switches that appear as a single virtual bridge to adjacent CST and MST regions.
F. Enabling MST with the “spanning-tree mode mst” global configuration command also enables RSTP.

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The show pending command can be used to verify the MST configuration (pending configuration). An example of this command is shown below:

Note:
The above commands do these tasks:
+
Enter MST configuration mode

+
Map VLANs 10 to 20 to MST instance 1

+
Name the region certprepare

+
Set the configuration revision to 1

+
Display the pending configuration

+
Apply the changes, and return to global configuration mode The MST region appears as a single bridge to spanning tree configurations outside the region -> a MST region appears as a single virtual bridge to adjacent CST and MST regions -> E is correct.
By enabling MST you also enable RSTP because MST relies on the RSTP configuration to operate -> F is correct.
QUESTION 85
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two)
A. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C. Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F. If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

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QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing has been disabled.
B. SVI VLAN 30 connects directly to the 10.1.30.0/24 network due to a valid glean adjacency. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 26 Cisco 642-813 Exam
C. VLAN 30 is not operational because no packet or byte counts are indicated.
D. The IP Cisco Express Forwarding configuration is capable of supporting IPv6.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 56
Which two components should be part of a security implementation plan? (Choose two.)
A. detailed list of personnel assigned to each task within the plan
B. a Layer 2 spanning-tree design topology
C. rollback guidelines
D. placing all unused access ports in VLAN 1 to proactively manage port security
E. enabling SNMP access to Cisco Discovery Protocol data for logging and forensic analysis

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 57
When creating a network security solution, which two pieces of information should you have obtained previously to assist in designing the solution? (Choose two.)
A. a list of existing network applications currently in use on the network
B. network audit results to uncover any potential security holes
C. a planned Layer 2 design solution
D. a proof-of-concept plan E. device configuration templates

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 58
What action should you be prepared to take when verifying a security solution?
A. having alternative addressing and VLAN schemes
B. having a rollback plan in case of unwanted or unexpected results
C. running a test script against all possible security threats to insure that the solution will mitigate all potential threats
D. isolating and testing each security domain individually to insure that the security design will meet overall requirements when placed into production as an entire system

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 59
When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, what is the maximum number of secure MAC addresses that should be set on the port?
A. No more than one secure MAC address should be set.
B. The default is set.
C. The IP phone should use a dedicated port, therefore only one MAC address is needed per port.
D. No value is needed if the switchport priority extend command is configured.
E. No more than two secure MAC addresses should be set. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 27 Cisco 642-813 Exam

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit. From the configuration shown, what can be determined?

A. The sticky addresses are only those manually configured MAC addresses enabled with the sticky keyword.
B. The remaining secure MAC addresses are learned dynamically, converted to sticky secure MAC addresses, and added to the running configuration.
C. A voice VLAN is configured in this example, so port security should be set for a maximum of 2.
D. A security violation restricts the number of addresses to a maximum of 10 addresses per access VLAN and voice VLAN. The port is shut down if more than 10 devices per VLAN attempt to access the port.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 61
hostname Switch1 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.32 255.255.255.0no ip redirectsstandby 1 ip 172.16.10.110standby 1 timers msec 200 msec 700standby 1 preempt
hostname Switch2 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.0no ip redirectsstandby 1 ip 172.16.10.110standby 1 timers msec 200 msec 750standby 1 priority 110standby 1 preempt
hostname Switch3 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.34 255.255.255.0no ip redirectsstandby 1 ip 172.16.10.110standby 1 timers msec 200 msec 750standby 1 priority 150standby 1 preempt
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 28 Cisco 642-813 Exam
Refer to the above. Three switches are configured for HSRP. Switch1 remains in the HSRP listen state. What is the most likely cause of this status?
A. This is normal operation.
B. The standby group number does not match the VLAN number.
C. IP addressing is incorrect.
D. Priority commands are incorrect.
E. Standby timers are incorrect.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Three Cisco Catalyst switches have been configured with a first-hop redundancy protocol. While reviewing some show commands, debug output, and the syslog, you discover the following information:
Jan 9 08:00:42.623: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Standby -> Active Jan 9 08:00:56.011: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Active ->Speak Jan 9 08:01:03.011: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Speak ->StandbyJan 9 08:01:29.427: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Standby -> Active Jan 9 08:01:36.808: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Active ->SpeakJan 9 08:01:43.808: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Speak ->Standby
What conclusion can you infer from this information?
A. VRRP is initializing and operating correctly.
B. HSRP is initializing and operating correctly.
C. GLBP is initializing and operating correctly.
D. VRRP is not exchanging three hello messages properly.
E. HSRP is not exchanging three hello messages properly.
F. GLBP is not exchanging three hello messages properly.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
By itself, what does the command “aaa new-model” enable?
A. It globally enables AAA on the switch, with default lists applied to the VTYs.
B. Nothing; you must also specify which protocol (RADIUS or TACACS) will be used for AAA.
C. It enables AAA on all dot1x ports.
D. Nothing; you must also specify where (console, TTY, VTY, dot1x) AAA is being applied.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. The link between switch SW1 and switch SW2 is configured as a trunk, but the trunk failed to establish connectivity between the switches. Based on the configurations and the error messages received on the console of SW1, what is the cause of the problem?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 29 Cisco 642-813 Exam

A. The two ends of the trunk have different duplex settings.
B. The two ends of the trunk have different EtherChannel configurations.
C. The two ends of the trunk have different native VLAN configurations.
D. The two ends of the trunk allow different VLANs on the trunk.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 65
A campus infrastructure supports wireless clients via Cisco Aironet AG Series 1230, 1240, and 1250
access points. With DNS and DHCP configured, the 1230 and 1240 access points appear to boot and
operate normally. However, the 1250 access points do not seem to operate correctly.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. DHCP with option 150
B. DHCP with option 43
C. PoE
D. DNS
E. switch port does not support gigabit speeds

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 66
A standalone wireless AP solution is being installed into the campus infrastructure. The access points appear to boot correctly, but wireless clients are not obtaining correct access. You verify that this is the local switch configuration connected to the access point:
interface ethernet 0/1switchport access vlan 10switchport mode accessspanning-tree portfast mls qos trust dscp
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. QoS trust should not be configured on a port attached to a standalone AP.
B. QoS trust for switchport mode access should be defined as “cos”.
C. switchport mode should be defined as “trunk” with respective QoS.
D. switchport access vlan should be defined as “1”.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
During the implementation of a voice solution, which two required items are configured at an access layer switch that will be connected to an IP phone to provide VoIP communication? (Choose two.)
A. allowed codecs
B. untagged VLAN
C. auxiliary VLAN
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address
E. RSTP

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 68
Which two statements best describe Cisco IOS IP SLA? (Choose two.)
A. only implemented between Cisco source and destination-capable devices
B. statistics provided by syslog, CLI, and SNMP
C. measures delay, jitter, packet loss, and voice quality
D. only monitors VoIP traffic flows
E. provides active monitoring

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 69
Which two items best describe a Cisco IOS IP SLA responder? (Choose two.)
A. required at the destination to implement Cisco IOS IP SLA services
B. improves measurement accuracy
C. required for VoIP jitter measurements
D. provides security on Cisco IOS IP SLA messages via LEAP or EAP-FAST authentication
E. responds to one Cisco IOS IP SLA operation per port
F. stores the resulting test statistics

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 31 Cisco 642-813 Exam
QUESTION 70
Which two characteristics apply to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch supervisor redundancy using NSF? (Choose two.)
A. supported by RIPv2, OSPF, IS-IS, and EIGRP
B. uses the FIB table
C. supports IPv4 and IPv6 multicast
D. prevents route flapping
E. independent of SSO
F. NSF combined with SSO enables supervisor engine load balancing

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 71
You are tasked with designing a security solution for your network. What information should be gathered before you design the solution?
A. IP addressing design plans, so that the network can be appropriately segmented to mitigate potential network threats
B. a list of the customer requirements
C. detailed security device specifications
D. results from pilot network testing

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 72
What are three results of issuing the “switchport host” command? (Choose three.)
A. disables EtherChannel
B. enables port security
C. disables Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. enables PortFast
E. disables trunking
F. enables loopguard

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 73
Which statement about the EIGRP routing being performed by the switch is true?

A. The EIGRP neighbor table contains 20 neighbors.
B. EIGRP is running normally and receiving IPv4 routing updates.
C. EIGRP status cannot be determined. The command show ip eigrp topology would determine the routing protocol status.
D. The switch has not established any neighbor relationships. Further network testing and troubleshooting must be performed to determine the cause of the problem. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 32 Cisco 642-813 Exam

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 74
What is the result of entering the command “spanning-tree loopguard default” ?
A. The command enables loop guard and root guard.
B. The command changes the status of loop guard from the default of disabled to enabled.
C. The command activates loop guard on point-to-multipoint links in the switched network.
D. The command disables EtherChannel guard.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about VLANs 200 and 202?

A. VLAN 202 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 200 carries traffic between community ports and to promiscuous ports.
B. VLAN 202 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 200 carries traffic from isolated ports to a promiscuous port.
C. VLAN 200 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 202 carries traffic between community ports and to promiscuous ports.
D. VLAN 200 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same VLAN. VLAN 202 carries traffic from isolated ports to a promiscuous port.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 76
A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default gateway be configured?
A. isolated
B. promiscuous
C. community
D. primary
E. trunk

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 33 Cisco 642-813 Exam
QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are configured for the GLBP. Which statement is true?

A. The default gateway addresses of both hosts should be set to the IP addresses of both routers.
B. The default gateway address of each host should be set to the virtual IP address.
C. The hosts learn the proper default gateway IP address from router A.
D. The hosts have different default gateway IP addresses and different MAC addresses for each router.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
In the MAC address 0000.0c07.ac03, what does the “03” represent?
A. HSRP router number 3
B. Type of encapsulation
C. HSRP group number
D. VRRP group number
E. GLBP group number

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 79
A network is deployed using recommended practices of the enterprise campus network model, including users with desktop computers connected via IP phones. Given that all components are QoS-capable, where are the two optimal locations for trust boundaries to be configured by the network administrator? (Choose two.)
A. host
B. IP phone
C. access layer switch
D. distribution layer switch
E. core layer switch

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
What is needed to verify that a newly implemented security solution is performing as expected?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 34 Cisco 642-813 Exam
A. a detailed physical and logical topology
B. a cost analysis of the implemented solution
C. detailed logs from the AAA and SNMP servers
D. results from audit testing of the implemented solution

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
When configuring port security on a Cisco Catalyst switch port, what is the default action taken by the switch if a violation occurs?
A. protect (drop packets with unknown source addresses)
B. restrict (increment SecurityViolation counter)
C. shut down (access or trunk port)
D. transition (the access port to a trunking port)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 82
hostname Switch1 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.32 255.255.255.0no ip redirectsstandby 1 ip 172.16.10.110standby 1 timers 1 5standby 1 priority 130
hostname Switch2 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.0
no ip redirectsstandby 1 ip 172.16.10.110standby 1 timers 1 5standby 1 priority 120
Refer to the above. HSRP was implemented and configured on two switches while scheduled network
maintenance was performed.
After the two switches have finished rebooting, you notice via show commands that Switch2 is the HSRP
active router. Which two items are the most likely cause of Switch1 not becoming the active router?
(Choose two.)

A. Booting has been delayed.
B. The standby group number does not match the VLAN number.
C. IP addressing is incorrect.
D. Preemption is disabled.
E. Standby timers are incorrect.
F. IP redirect is disabled.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 35 Cisco 642-813 Exam
QUESTION 83
Private VLANs can be configured as which three port types? (Choose three.)
A. isolated
B. protected
C. private
D. associated
E. promiscuous
F. community

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the private VLAN configuration is true?

A. Only VLAN 503 will be the community PVLAN, because multiple community PVLANs are not allowed.
B. Users of VLANs 501 and 503 will be able to communicate.
C. VLAN 502 is a secondary VLAN.
D. VLAN 502 will be a standalone VLAN, because it is not associated with any other VLANs.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 85
When configuring a routed port on a Cisco multilayer switch, which configuration task is needed to enable that port to function as a routed port?
A. Enable the switch to participate in routing updates from external devices with the router command in global configuration mode.
B. Enter the no switchport command to disable Layer 2 functionality at the interface level.
C. Each port participating in routing of Layer 3 packets must have an IP routing protocol assigned on “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 36 Cisco 642-813 Exam a per-interface level.
D. Routing is enabled by default on a multilayer switch, so the port can become a Layer 3 routing interface by assigning the appropriate IP address and subnet information.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Regarding the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SA and SB. STP is configured on all switches in the network. SB receives this error message on the console port:
00:06:34: %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half duplex), with SA FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex), with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).
What would be the possible outcome of the problem?

A. The root port on switch P4S-SB will fall back to full-duplex mode.
B. The interfaces between switches P4S-SA and P4S-SB will transition to a blocking state.
C. The root port on switch P4S-SA will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.
D. Interface Fa0/6 on switch SB will transit to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop.

Correct Answer: D Section: VLAN VTP STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From the output, we learned that the interfaces on two switches are operating in different duplex modes: Fa0/4 of SA in half-duplex mode & Fa0/5 of SB in full-duplex mode. In this case, because SB is operating in full duplex mode, it does not check the carrier sense before sending frames (CSMA/CD is not used in full-duplex mode). Therefore, SB can start to send frames even if SA is using the link and a collision will occur. The result of this is SA will wait a random time before attempting to transmit another frame. If B sends enough frames to A to make every frame sent from A (which includes the BPDUs) get dropped then SB can think it has lost root bridge (B does not receive BPDUs from A anymore). Therefore SB will unblock its Fa0/6 interface for transmitting and cause a bridging loop.

QUESTION 2
On a multilayer Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport access vlan vlan-id
B. switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. no switchport
Correct Answer: B Section: VLAN Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit and the show interfaces fastethernet0/1 switchport outputs. Users in VLAN 5 on switch SW_A complain that they do not have connectivity to the users in VLAN 5 on switch SW_B. What should be done to fix the problem?

A. Configure the same number of VLANs on both switches.
B. Create switch virtual interfaces (SVI) on both switches to route the traffic.
C. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_A.
D. Disable pruning for all VLANs in both switches.
E. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_B.
Correct Answer: C Section: VLAN Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SW_A is missing VLAN 5 in the ※Trunking VLANs Enabled§, that means the trunk link currently does not accept traffic from VLAN 5 to be sent on the link.
QUESTION 4
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two)

A. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN 7.
E. This interface is a member of VLAN 1.
Correct Answer: BD Section: VLAN Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
In the three-layer hierarchical network design model; what*s associated with the access layer? (Choose two)
A. optimized transport structure
B. high port density
C. boundary definition
D. data encryption
E. local VLANs
F. route summaries
Correct Answer: BE Section: VLAN Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Main characteristics of three layers in the three-layer hierarchical network design model:
* Access layer:
+
Low cost per switch port

+
High port density

+
Scalable uplinks to higher layers

+
User access functions such as VLAN membership, traffic and protocol filtering, and quality of service (QoS)

+
Resiliency through multiple uplinks
* Distribution Layer:
+
Aggregation of multiple access-layer devices

+
High Layer 3 throughput for packet handling

+
Security and policy-based connectivity functions through access lists or packet filters

+
QoS features

+
Scalable and resilient high-speed links to the core and access layers
* Core layer:
+
Very high throughput at Layer 3

+
No costly or unnecessary packet manipulations (access lists, packet filtering)

+
Redundancy and resilience for high availability

+
Advanced QoS functions
Also, end-to-end VLANs and local VLANs belong to access layer.
QUESTION 6
Refer to the following exhibits:
Exhibit #1

Exhibit #2

Study the exhibits carefully. The switchport output in Exhibit #1 displays the default settings of interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch Sw1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Exhibit #2?
A. Sw1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Sw1 (config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto Sw1 (config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA Sw1 (config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
B. Sw1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Sw1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable Sw1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA Sw1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
C. Sw1 (config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Sw1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk Sw1 (config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA Sw1 (config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. Sw1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Sw1(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable Sw1(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 10
E. Sw1 (config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Sw1 (config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable Sw1 (config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 Sw1 (config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20

Correct Answer: E Section: VLAN Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which configuration option will cause the link between two Cisco 3600 Series Multiservice Platforms to become a functional trunk?
A. switchport dynamic auto switchport dynamic auto
B. switchport access vlan 10 switchport mode dynamic desirable
C. switchport mode trunk switchport nonegotiate
D. Leave both ports with the default trunk settings.
Correct Answer: D Section: VLAN Trunking Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
If you were to set up a VLAN trunk over a Fast Ethernet link on switch R1, which trunk mode would you set the local port to on R1 if you wanted it to respond to requests from its link partner (R2) and become a trunk?
A. Auto
B. Negotiate
C. Designate
D. Nonegotiate
Correct Answer: A Section: VLAN Trunking Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about best practices in VLAN design? (Choose two)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing may be performed at all layers but is most commonly done at the core and distribution layers.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be local to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: VLAN Trunking Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
You need to configure a new Company switch to support DTP. Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. Access
B. Nonegotiate
C. Trunk
D. Dynamic desirable
E. Dynamic auto
Correct Answer: D Section: VLAN Trunking Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?

A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From the first lines of the ※show§ commands and the BPDU sent and received we can conclude:

CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly (BPDU: sent 237, received 1) but it is not receiving
BPDUs.
CAT2 is blocking and receiving BPDUs correctly (BPDU: sent 1, received 242) but it is not sending
BPDUs.
CAT3 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly (BPDU: sent 24, received 0) but it is not receiving
BPDUs.

-> only answer A is correct.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following specifications is a companion to the IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) algorithm, and warrants the use multiple spanning-trees?
A. IEEE 802.1s (MST)
B. IEEE 802.1Q (CST)
C. Cisco PVST+
D. IEEE 802.1d (STP)

Correct Answer: A Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MST maps multiple VLANs into a spanning tree instance, with each instance having a spanning tree topology independent of other spanning tree instances. This architecture provides multiple forwarding paths for data traffic, enables load balancing, and reduces the number of STP instances required to support a large number of VLANs. MST improves the fault tolerance of the network because a failure in one instance (forwarding path) does not affect other instances (forwarding paths).
Note: RSTP is automatically turned on along with MST (the ※spanning-tree mode mst§ in global configuration mode will turn on both RSTP & MST)
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/ cli_rel_4_0_1a/MST.html)
QUESTION 13
What two things will occur when an edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two)
A. The port immediately transitions to the Forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification (TCN) BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.
Correct Answer: BD Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The concept of edge port basically corresponds to the PortFast feature. An edge port directly transitions to the forwarding state, and skips the listening and learning stages. An edge port that receives a BPDU immediately loses edge port status and becomes a normal spanning tree port.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/ technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml#edge)
QUESTION 14
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?
A. Only nonedge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
B. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.
C. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.
D. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
E. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated.
Correct Answer: D Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When a Switch (Bridge) discovers topology change, it generates a TCN (Topology Change Notification) BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) and sends the TCN BPDU on its root port. The upstream Switch (Bridge) responds back the sender with TCA (Topology Change Acknowledgment) BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) and TCA (Topology Change Acknowledgment) BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) The upstream Switch (Bridge) (bridge which received the TCN BPDU) generates another TCN BPDU and sends out via its Root Port. The process continues until the Root Switch (Bridge) receives the TCN BPDU. When the Root Switch (Bridge) is aware that there is a topology change in the network, it starts to send out its Configuration BPDUs with the topology change (TC) bit set. Configuration BPDUs are received by every Switch (Bridge) in the network and all bridges become aware of the network topology change.
The switch never generates a TCN when a port configured for PortFast goes up or down -> it means no TC will be created for PortFast (or Edge Port) -> D is correct.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080094797.shtml)
QUESTION 15
Which of the following conditions guarantees that a broadcast storm cannot occur?
A. a native VLAN mismatch on either side of an 802.1Q link
B. BPDU filter configured on a link to another switch
C. Spanning Tree Protocol enabled on both Layer 2 and multilayer switches
D. PortFast enabled on all access and trunk ports
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which two statements are true about port BPDU Guard and BPDU filtering? (Choose two)
A. BPDU guard can be enabled globally, whereas BPDU filtering must be enabled on a per-interface basis.
B. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to PortFast enabled ports.
C. When globally enabled. BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to trunking-enabled ports.
D. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU port-guard enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
E. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
F. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the STP blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which of the following will generate an RSTP topology change notification?
A. an edge port that transitions to the forwarding state
B. a non-edge port that transitions to the blocking state
C. a non-edge port that transitions to the forwarding state
D. an edge port that transitions to the blocking state
E. any port that transitions to the blocking state
F. any port that transitions to the forwarding state

Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch?

A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, the port will transition to forwarding state.
D. The command will enable BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.
Correct Answer: A Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the show spanning-tree mst configuration output shown in the exhibit. What should be changed in the configuration of the switch SW_2 in order for it to participate in the same MST region?

A. Switch SW_2 must be configured with the revision number of 2.
B. Switch SW_2 must be configured with a different VLAN range.
C. Switch SW_2 must be configured with the revision number of 1.
D. Switch SW_2 must be configured with a different MST name.
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20
Switch R1 has been configured with the root guard feature. What statement is true if the spanning tree enhancement Root Guard is enabled?
A. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, the port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocked state
B. If BPDUs are received on a PortFast enabled port, the port is disabled.
C. If superior BPDUs are received on a designated port, the interface is placed into the root-inconsistent blocked state.
D. If inferior BPDUs are received on a root port, all blocked ports become alternate paths to the root bride.
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A: Quick 1
QUESTION 1
Which two steps are necessary to configure inter-VLAN routing between multilayer switches? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol.
B. Configure SVI interfaces with IP addresses and subnet masks.
C. Configure access ports with network addresses.
D. Configure switch ports with the autostate exclude command.
E. Document the MAC addresses of the switch ports.
Correct Answer: AB Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Which statement correctly describes enabling BPDU guard on an access port that is also enabled for PortFast?
A. Upon startup, the port transmits 10 BPDUs. If the port receives a BPDU, PortFast and BPDU guard are disabled on that port and it assumes normal STP operation.
B. The access port ignores any received BPDU.
C. If the port receives a BPDU, it is placed into the error-disable state.
D. BPDU guard is configured only globally and the BPDU filter is required for port-level configuration.
Correct Answer: C Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Which statement about the Port Aggregation Protocol is true?
A. Configuration changes made on the port-channel interface apply to all physical ports assigned to the port-channel interface.
B. Configuration changes made on a physical port that is a member of a port-channel interface apply to the port-channel interface.
C. Configuration changes are not permitted with Port Aggregation Protocol. Instead, the standardized Link Aggregation Control Protocol should be used if configuration changes are required.
D. The physical port must first be disassociated from the port-channel interface before any configuration changes can be made.
Correct Answer: A Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak
E. active
Correct Answer: ADE Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
Which statement about 802.1Q trunking is true?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: D Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 6
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: C Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To provide a virtual router, multiple switches (routers) are assigned to a common GLBP group. Rather than having just one active router performing forwarding for the virtual router address, all routers in the group can participate and offer load balancing by forwarding a portion of the overall traffic. The advantage is that none of the clients have to be pointed toward a specific gateway address–they can all have the same default gateway set to the virtual router IP address. The load balancing is provided completely through the use of virtual router MAC addresses in ARP replies returned to the clients. As a client sends an ARP request looking for the virtual router address, GLBP sends back an ARP reply with the virtual MAC address of a selected router in the group. The result is that all clients use the same gateway address but have differing MAC addresses for it.
QUESTION 7
When you create a network implementation for a VLAN solution, what is one procedure that you should include in your plan?
A. Perform an incremental implementation of components.
B. Implement the entire solution and then test end-to-end to make sure that it is performing as designed.
C. Implement trunking of all VLANs to ensure that traffic is crossing the network as needed before performing any pruning of VLANs.
D. Test the solution on the production network in off hours.
Correct Answer: A Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
You have just created a new VLAN on your network. What is one step that you should include in your VLAN-based implementation and verification plan?
A. Verify that different native VLANs exist between two switches for security purposes.
B. Verify that the VLAN was added on all switches with the use of the show vlan command.
C. Verify that the switch is configured to allow for trunking on the switch ports.
D. Verify that each switch port has the correct IP address space assigned to it for the new VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
Which two statements describe a routed switch port on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 switching and Layer 3 routing are mutually supported.
B. The port is not associated with any VLAN.
C. The routed switch port supports VLAN subinterfaces.
D. The routed switch port is used when a switch has only one port per VLAN or subnet.
E. The routed switch port ensures that STP remains in the forwarding state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
Which two statements correctly describe VTP? (Choose two.)
A. Transparent mode always has a configuration revision number of 0.
B. Transparent mode cannot modify a VLAN database.
C. Client mode cannot forward received VTP advertisements.
D. Client mode synchronizes its VLAN database from VTP advertisements.
E. Server mode can synchronize across VTP domains.
Correct Answer: AD Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Which two DTP modes permit trunking between directly connected switches? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic desirable (VTP domain A) to dynamic desirable (VTP domain A)
B. dynamic desirable (VTP domain A) to dynamic desirable (VTP domain B)
C. dynamic auto (VTP domain A) to dynamic auto (VTP domain A)
D. dynamic auto (VTP domain A) to dynamic auto (VTP domain B)
E. dynamic auto (VTP domain A) to nonegotiate (VTP domain A)
F. nonegotiate (VTP domain A) to nonegotiate (VTP domain B)

Correct Answer: AF Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Which two RSTP port roles include the port as part of the active topology? (Choose two.)
A. root
B. designated
C. alternate
D. backup
E. forwarding
F. learning
Correct Answer: AB Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
Which two statements correctly describe characteristics of the PortFast feature? (Choose two.)
A. STP is disabled on the port.
B. PortFast can also be configured on trunk ports.
C. PortFast is needed to enable port-based BPDU guard.
D. PortFast is used for STP and RSTP host ports.
E. PortFast is used for STP-only host ports.
Correct Answer: BD Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Which statement correctly describes the Cisco implementation of RSTP?
A. PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast specific configurations are ignored in Rapid PVST mode.
B. RSTP is enabled globally and uses existing STP configuration.
C. Root and alternative ports transition immediately to the forwarding state.
D. Convergence is improved by using subsecond timers for the blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding port states.
Correct Answer: B Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
What is the effect of applying the “switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q” command to a port on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. By default, native VLAN packets going out this port are tagged.
B. Without an encapsulation command, 802.1Q is the default encapsulation if DTP fails to negotiate a trunking protocol.
C. The interface supports the reception of tagged and untagged traffic.
D. If the device connected to this port is not 802.1Q-enabled, it is unable to handle 802.1Q packets.
Correct Answer: C Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
You are the administrator of a switch and currently all host-connected ports are configured with the portfast command. You have received a new directive from your manager that states that, in the future, any host-connected port that receives a BPDU should automatically disable PortFast and begin transmitting BPDUs. Which command will support this new requirement?
A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard enable
C. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
Correct Answer: D Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
A port in a redundant topology is currently in the blocking state and is not receiving BPDUs. To ensure that this port does not erroneously transition to the forwarding state, which command should be configured?
A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree loopguard default
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bdpufilter
C. Switch(config)#udld aggressive
D. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard
Correct Answer: A Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
Which command can be issued without interfering with the operation of loop guard?
A. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree guard root
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

Correct Answer: C Section: Exam A: Quick 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Exam B: Quick 2
QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?
A. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.
B. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
C. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated.
D. Only edge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
E. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.
Correct Answer: B Section: Exam B: Quick 2 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol was designed to keep a switched or bridged network loop free,
with adjustments made to the network topology dynamically. A topology change typically takes 30
seconds, where a port moves from the Blocking state to the Forwarding state after two intervals of the
Forward Delay timer. As technology has improved, 30 seconds has become an unbearable length of time
to wait for a production network to failover or “heal” itself during a problem.

Topology Changes and RSTP
Recall that when an 802.1D switch detects a port state change (either up or down), it signals the Root
Bridge by sending topology change notification (TCN) BPDUs. The Root Bridge must then signal a
topology change by sending out a TCN message that is relayed to all switches in the STP domain. RSTP
detects a topology change only when a nonedge port transitions to the Forwarding state. This might seem
odd because a link failure is not used as a trigger. RSTP uses all of its rapid convergence mechanisms to
prevent bridging loops from forming.

Therefore, topology changes are detected only so that bridging tables can be updated and corrected as
hosts appear first on a failed port and then on a different functioning port. When a topology change is
detected, a switch must propagate news of the change to other switches in the network so they can correct
their bridging tables, too. This process is similar to the convergence and synchronization mechanism-
topology change (TC) messages propagate through the network in an everexpanding wave.

 

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