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QUESTION 1
Which of the following replication methods is MOST appropriate when integrating data from multiple
remote offices?
A. Server to client
B. Server to server
C. Site to site
D. Disk to disk
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A user is unabletosave a newpresentation to the network U:\ drive. The error message indicates that there
is no available space. Other users in the department arenotexperiencinganyproblems saving to the U:\
drive.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. The user does not have permissions to use the U:\ drive.
B. The user’s disk quota has been exceeded on the U:\drive.
C. The user’s local drive is out of space.
D. The user does not have the U:\ drive mapped.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Clients cannot connect to the network. A technician determines that port 68 is not open. Which of the
following protocols is being blocked?
A. POP3
B. DNS
C. LDAP
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician receives an error messagewhentrying to boot the server stating the operating system was not
found. Change management logs indicateanew hard drive backplane was installed in the server last night.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST when troubleshooting the issue?
A. Check system board cables
B. Rebuild RAID array
C. Reinstall server OS
D. Remove newly installed hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes an alternate site where only the infrastructure (building, power, cooling)
has been established?
A. Mirror site
B. Warm site
C. Hot site
D. Cold site
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A system administrator has a database server that crashes at random times. No changes have been made
to either the server’s software or hardware. Which of the following is the FIRST step the administrator
should take towards resolving this issue?
A. Establish an action plan.
B. Perform a root cause analysis.
C. Document the findings.
D. Identify the problem and scope.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an example of the principle of least privilege and is the MOST secure when
granting access to a shared network drive used by the Accounting department?
A. Grant appropriate permissions to only users in the Accounting department for both the share and NTFS
B. Grant all users full control permissions for the share only
C. Grant the Accounting department full control for the share and appropriate NTFS permissions
D. Grant modify permissions to the Accounting department and deny NTFS permissions to all other users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
The logs on a server in a datacenter indicate that the server unexpectedly shut down minutes after the
night cleaning crew started their shift. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the shut down?
A. A hard disk on the server failed.
B. A power surge occurred.
C. The CPU on the server overheated.
D. A memory module on the server failed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A server administrator has been asked to make recommendations for purchase of a new database server
that will be processing all of the company accounts. One area of concern from prior experience is the
storage type used by the database server. The server is expected to have a large number of transactions
that occur, but will not require a large amount of capacity for the data storage. Given these requirements,
which of the following storage criteria are MOST important? (Select TWO).
A. Capacity
B. RPM
C. IOPS
D. Seek time and latency
E. Form factor
F. Bus width
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
A technician is troubleshooting a Linux server and wants to inspect the free disk space on the /dev/sda
partition of the system. Which of the following command line tools should the administrator run to view
available disk space on the partition?
A.ddB. du
C. ls
D. df
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A company has 700 servers installed in 50 server racks in the datacenter. The Chief Technology Officer
issued a memorandum to the IT department with a directive to reduce power and cooling consumptions by
50% in the datacenters. Which of the following should thesystemadministrators recommend?
A. Implement 208V 3-phase servers
B. Implement hot aisle / cold aisle
C. Virtualize the servers in the datacenter
D. Replace each server with a blade server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator purchases a new server, which contains only one Xeon processor. This server is also
known as a:
A. load balancing server.
B. multicore server.
C. redundant server.
D. single-core server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A user changed departments from sales to accounting. The user is unable to access the shared network
drive containing the accounting department’s files. Which of the following should a technician check?
A. File permissions
B. Folder redirections
C. Local group policy
D. Encryption type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A server administrator is configuring access control on a file server for an organization. The Human
Resources manager is taking a leave of absence for three months, during which time an interim Human
Resources manager will take over the duties of the position. Which of the following types of access control
should be configured on the file server?
A. MAC
B. CBAC
C. DAC
D. RBAC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
An administrator is asked to change a configuration using a GUI on a Windows server, but does not have
access to a KVM. Which of the following is BEST to make the change?
A. SSHB. SCP
C. RDP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A blade server indicates it has a failed hard disk in Slot 0. This is the third instance of Slot 0 disk failure in
three months. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the failed hard disk in Slot 0?
A. Host bus adapter
B. Backplane
C. Network interface card
D. Central Processing Unit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
An administrator is securing a secure web server by disabling ports. After completing this process, clients
cannot access the secure web server. The administrator should now go back and verify whether which of
the following ports is enabled?
A. 23
B. 389
C. 443
D. 445
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the height of 1U of space in a server rack?
A. 1.5 inches (3.8 cm)
B. 1.75 inches (4.4 cm)
C. 2 inches (5.1 cm)
D. 3 inches (7.6 cm)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
When looking at an organization’s file server configuration, an IT manager determines that several outages
are tied to a lack of redundancy in the disk controller configuration. Which of the following features would
the IT manager look for in a new configuration to correct this?
A. Disk shadowing
B. RAID 0
C. Remote journaling
D. Electronic vaulting
E. Disk duplexing
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
A line-of-business software patch notification is received. The notification indicates that version 5.0 of the
software has new features that the accounting department has been expecting.The update requires a new
version of the OS and new version of SQL on the server. Which of the following should the administrator
performFIRST?A. Schedule downtime to update the OS and SQL on the server.
B. Download and test the new version.
C. Develop a plan to build a test server.
D. Request feedback from the accounting department.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
A technician wants to implement a grandfather-father-son tape rotation policy. Which of the following
implements this backup strategy?
A. Assign a different set of tapes for daily, weekly, and monthly backups.
B. Use a different set of tapes for every two, four, and eight days.
C. Designate a different set of tapes for odd-day and even-day backups.
D. Use a queue to rotate tapes based on the age and usage of the tape.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A system administrator is given a server with an existing OS installed and four empty SAS bays. The
system administrator is asked to set up a new data drive for testing with 100GB of data. For the best
possible performance, which of the following should the system administrator select for the data storage?
A. SCSI
B. SATA
C. Solid state drive
D. Flash drive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a benefit of utilizing a type 2 hypervisor to manage guests?
A. The administration of the guest OS is significantly less complex.
B. There is reduced resource overhead since there is no OS layer.
C. A type 2 hypervisor offers increased performance over a type 1 hypervisor.
D. There is increased hardware support since there is an OS layer.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following protocols is used primarily for monitoring and managing network devices?
A. SNMP
B. SMTP
C. FTPS
D. NTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A user accidentally deleted a critical file. A technician tries to restore it from tape backup but receives an
error that thefile does not exist on the tape. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Verify that the correct tape is in the tape drive.
B. Re-index the tape library.
C. Schedule a differential backup to run now.D. Update the tape drive firmware.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the MOST energy efficient way of powering equipment within a datacenter with a
large UPS battery bank?
A. 48V DC
B. 120V single-phase
C. 240VAC 3-phase
D. 480V 3-phase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A server administrator is creating a design for a new datacenter. The servers should be configured for
maximum availability and also provide caching for user information requests. Which of the following
techniques should be used?
A. Active/Passive
B. Round robin
C. Heartbeat
D. Active/Active
E. Passive/Passive
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A datacenter technician encounters a power receptacle labeled NEMA L5-30. Which of the following
powers is this socket rated for?
A. 115v 30 amp
B. 208v 30 amp
C. 220v 1 phase
D. 440v 3 phase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
A technician has connected a previously formatted ext4 eSATA drive to a Linux server.
Given the following output:
Disk /dev/sdb: 1000.2 GB, 1000204886016 bytes
255 heads, 63 sectors/track, 382818 cylinders, total 1953525168 sectors
Units = sectors of 1 * 512 ?512 bytes
Sector size (logical/physical): 512 bytes / 512 bytes
I/O size (minimum/optimal): 512 bytes / 512 bytes
Disk identifier: 0x0009f31a
Device Boot Start End Blocks Id System
/dev/sdb1 * 20481 953525168 976761560 83 Linux
Which of the following commands should the technician use to make the partition available under /data/drive0?
A. fdformat -type Linux /dev/sdbl -d /data/drive0
B. ext2 0x0009f31a /data/drive0
C. net use /data/drive0 /dev/sdb
D. mount /dev/sdbl /data/drive0
E. fdisk -l /data/drive0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
A server administrator is researching the purchase of SSD for a server. The administrator receives a report
from the datacenter technician detailing current storage requirements and future growth planning
estimates as follows:
ServerA: Current-15TB-Future-50% growth
ServerB: Current-20TB-Future-80% growth
Based on this report, which of the following represents the MINIMUM storage requirements needed?
A. ServerA-18TB, ServerB-24TB
B. ServerA-22TB, ServerB-22TB
C. ServerA-23TB, ServerB-36TB
D. ServerA-25TB, ServerB-40TB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
When using multifactor authentication, which of the following represents “something you have”?
A. A password
B. A PIN
C. A fingerprint
D. An ID card
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
An administrator is validating disaster recovery mechanisms and wants to ensure backup data is usable
and accurate. Which of the following should the administrator do?
A. Backup verification and test restorability
B. Label media for all backups
C. Secure backup in safe location
D. Keep all backups onsite close to the server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
A server technician is investigating a potential data breach. It is believed that the breach occurred via
telnet access. Which of the following could validate this hypothesis?
A. Port scanner
B. Cipher tools
C. Checksum analyzer
D. TDR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A technician is tasked with building a test server. Which of the following hard drive types will provide the
highest performance?
A. SCSI
B. SAS
C. SATA
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
A technician is configuring switcheswith SFPports on multiple floors in a building. A switch on the first floor
must be connected to a switch on the second floor for trunking VLAN traffic. Which of the following would
be the MOST appropriate cable type for the technician to use?
A. Multimode fiber
B. Coaxial cable
C. CAT5e rollover
D. CAT6 straight through
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A technician needs to install additional memory in a server to help resolve performance issues. Which of
the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Perform an impact analysis.
B. Follow change management procedures.
C. Install the additional memory.
D. Update system firmware.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
A server technician is connecting a server to a switch in the server room. Both the server and the switch
are equipped with 10 Gigabit Ethernet adapters. Which of the following cable choices would produce the
BEST throughput?
A. CAT6 rollover cable
B. CAT5e straight-through cable
C. CAT6 straight-through cable
D. CAT5e crossover cable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
A server repeatedly crashes with a BSOD when running an application that uses a high amount of system
resources. Which of the following hardware components MOST likely needs to be checked by a
technician?
A. Memory
B. Hard drive
C. RAID controller
D. CPU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which of the following methods should a technician perform to properly clear a hard drive before disposal?
A. Delete the FAT
B. Zero all block sectors
C. Delete the partition
D. Zero the NTFS journal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which of the following troubleshooting methods would be performed after resolving an issue?
A. Verify system connectivity
B. Implement the solution
C. Document findings
D. Establish theory
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
A technician is tasked by an administrator to patch a virtual machine. The technician needs to ensure that
in case of failure, recovery of the virtual machine will be possible. Which of the following recovery
principles should the technician employ?
A. Incremental
B. Snapshot
C. Bare metal
D. Selective
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
An administrator would like to determine what port and services are running locally on a server. Which of
the following Windows command lines and shell tools should the administrator use? (Select THREE).
A. get-services
B. show ports
C. sc query
D. netstat
E. vmstat
F. show services
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 43
A technician would like to restrict when internal hardware components on the server are accessed. Which
of the following server hardening techniques should the technician implement?
A. Intrusion detection
B. BIOS password
C. Chassis lock
D. Disable WOL
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
A technician is called upon to add storage to a database server. The database administrator needs the
maximum performance for accessing many small files. Which of the following specifications should the
technician focus on when selecting the drive to add to the server?
A. Form factor
B. Capacity
C. Bus bandwidth
D. Seek time
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
A hardware failure affects a server in adatacenter. The server is critical to company operation, and the
hardware vendor is out of stock on the parts needed to repairthe server. A network technician suggests
replacing it with a server from the warm site.Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Outsource a hardware-certified courier to move the server to the datacenter.
B. Check the DRP and BCP and talk to the company stakeholders before making the decision.
C. Unrack the server from the warm site and move it to the datacenter.
D. Order the parts from the hardware vendor and notify affected users that the server will be down.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
A datacenter audit finds that a number ofpersonnel are not using accesscards when entering a secured
area with a coworker. Which of the following security methods could be implemented to help prevent this
behavior?
A. Mantrap
B. Keypad
C. Smart card
D. Security camera
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
A system administrator notices that there is a low level of available storage space on a file server. Which of
the following should be implemented to limit the amount of storage space users can utilize on the file
server?
A. Disk shadowing
B. Disk compression
C. Disk quota
D. Disk indexing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
A network administrator is tasked to block all outbound SSH connections on the default port from a
network subnet of 10.152.8.0/21 on aLinux based firewall. Which of the following rule sets would
accomplish this task?
A. iptables -i OUTPUT -d 10.152.8.0/21 -p TCP –dport 22 -j REJECT
B. iptables -i OUTPUT -d 10.152.8.0/21 -p TCP –dport 23 -j REJECT
C. iptables -i OUTPUT -d 10.152.8.0/21 -p TCP –dport 22 -j ACCEPT
D. iptables -i OUTPUT -d 10.152.8.0/21 -p TCP –dport 23 -j ACCEPT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
An older server has performance problems writing files to a RAID array. After checking for failed drives, no
problems are found. Which of the following should be checked NEXT?
A. The cooling system
B. The cache battery
C. The hard drive tray
D. The hard drive cables
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
Which of the following authentication protocols could be used to authenticate network administrators at a
datacenter to manage switches overaremote SSH connection? (SelectTWO).
A. LDAP
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. SNMP
E. IPSec
F. MSCHAP
Correct Answer: BC

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Exam 070-461
SQL Server
Published: June 11, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
Credit towards certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE

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Up to the immediate present 070-461 exam cram(1-28)

QUESTION 1
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers=CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012.
An application that uses a database begins to run slowly.
Your investigation shows the root cause is a query against a read-only table that has a clustered index.
The query returns the following six columns:
One column in its WHERE clause contained in a non-clustered index Four additional columns One COUNT (*) column based on a grouping of the four additional columns
You need to optimize the statement.
What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. Add a FORCESEEK hint to the query.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. Include a SET STATISTICS PROFILE ON statement before you run the query.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 3
You generate a daily report according to the following query:

You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate] FROM Sales.SalesOrder GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (
SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder s
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE()) AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD (DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID, 90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate FROM Sales.SalesOrder s
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are maintaining a Microsoft SQL Server database that stores order information for an online store website. The database contains a table that is defined by the following Transact-SQL statement:

You need to ensure that purchase order numbers are used only for a single order.
What should you do?
A. Create a new CLUSTERED constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
B. Create a new UNIQUE constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
C. Create a new PRIMARY constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
D. Create a new FOREIGN KEY constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You use a contained database named ContosoDb within a domain. You need to create a user who can log on to the ContosoDb database. You also need to ensure that you can port the database to different database servers within the
domain without additional user account configurations.
Which type of user should you create?
A. SQL user without login
B. SQL user with a custom SID
C. SQL user with login
D. Domain user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee.
Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables.
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you create a Foreign Key constraint that references a different table in the database?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to write a query that displays the following details:
Total sales made by sales people, year, city, and country Sub totals only at the city level and country level A grand total of the sales amount
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY GROUPING SETS ((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart
(yyyy, SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City,
Country)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You plan to write a query for a new business report that will contain several nested queries.
You need to ensure that a nested query can call a table-valued function for each row in the main query.
Which query operator should you use in the nested query?
A. CROSS APPLY
B. INNER JOIN
C. OUTER JOIN
D. PIVOT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Smallmoney
B. Numeric
C. Money
D. Varchar
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application.
The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory (
ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
The new column is expected to be queried heavily, and you need to be able to index the column. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemslnStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse PERSISTED
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse) PERSISTED
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
<CUSTOMERS Name=”Customer A” Country=”Australia”>
<ORDERS OrderID=”1″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01″ Amount=”3400.00″ />
<ORDERS OrderID=”2″ OrderDate=”2002-01-01″ Amount=”4300.00″ />
</CUSTOMERS>
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH
(‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR
XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are a database developer for an application hosted on a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server.
The database contains two tables that have the following definitions:

Global customers place orders from several countries.
You need to view the country from which each customer has placed the most orders.
Which Transact-SQL query do you use?
A. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY COUNT(OrderAmount) DESC) AS Rnk
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
WHERE o.Rnk = 1
B. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM (SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry, RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY COUNT(o.OrderAmount) ASC) AS Rnk
FROM Customer c
INNER JOIN Orders o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
GROUP BY c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry) cs WHERE Rnk = 1
C. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY OrderAmount DESC) AS Rnk
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
WHERE o.Rnk = 1
D. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
COUNT(OrderAmount) DESC) AS OrderAmount
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
ORDER BY OrderAmount DESC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are maintaining a Microsoft SQL Server database. You run the following query:

You need to ensure that the query performs returns the results as quickly as possible.
Which action should you perform?
A. Add a new index to the ID column of the Person table.
B. Add a new index to the EndDate column of the History table.
C. Create a materialized view that is based on joining data from the ActiveEmployee and History tables.
D. Create a computed column that concatenates the GivenName and SurName columns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH
(‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR
XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 16
You are developing a database in SQL Server 2012 to store information about current employee project assignments.
You are creating a view that uses data from the project assignment table.
You need to ensure that the view does not become invalid if the schema of the project assignment table changes.
What should you do?
A. Create the view by using an account in the sysadmin role.
B. Add a DDL trigger to the project assignment table to re-create the view after any schema change.
C. Create the view in a new schema.
D. Add a DDL trigger to the view to block any changes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has two tables named SavingAccounts and LoanAccounts. Both tables have a column named AccountNumber of the nvarchar data type.
You use a third table named Transactions that has columns named TransactionId AccountNumber, Amount, and TransactionDate.
You need to ensure that when multiple records are inserted in the Transactions table, only the records that have a valid AccountNumber in the SavingAccounts or LoanAccounts are inserted.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Transactions
SELECT TransactionID,AccountNumber,Amount,TransactionDate FROM inserted WHERE AccountNumber IN
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts) END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Transactions
SELECT TransactionID,AccountNumber,Amount,TransactionDate FROM inserted WHERE AccountNumber IN
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts) END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
IF EXISTS (
SELECT AccountNumber FROM inserted EXCEPT
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts)) BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRAN
END
END
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
IF EXISTS (
SELECT AccountNumber FROM inserted EXCEPT
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts)) BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRAN
END
END
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the Sales schema. You need to manage users who are
prevented from deleting records in the Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the users to the db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
You have a vendor application that uses a scalar function.
You discover that the queries for the application run slower than expected.
You need to gather the runtime information of the scalar function.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Enable the Include Actual Execution Plan option.
B. Enable the Display Estimated Execution Planoption.
C. Create and then enable a profiler trace.
D. Create and then enable an extended events trace.
E. Run the Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Your application contains a stored procedure for each country. Each stored procedure accepts an employee identification number through the @EmpID parameter.
You need to build a single process for each employee that will execute the appropriate stored procedure based on the country of residence.
Which approach should you use?
A. A SELECT statement that includes CASE
B. Cursor
C. BULK INSERT
D. View
E. A user-defined function
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
You have a database named Sales that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to create a query that returns a list of products from Sales.ProductCatalog. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Return rows ordered by descending values in the UnitPrice column.
Use the Rank function to calculate the results based on the UnitPrice column.
Return the ranking of rows in a column that uses the alias PriceRank.
Use two-part names to reference tables.
Display the columns in the order that they are defined in the table. The PriceRank column must appear last.
Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Provide the complete code.

Correct Answer: Explanation

QUESTION 23
You have an XML schema collection named Sales.InvoiceSchema.
You need to declare a variable of the XML type named XML1. The solution must ensure that XML1 is validated by using Sales.InvoiceSchema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Correct Answer: DECLARE @XML1 XML(Sales.InvoiceSchema)

QUESTION 24
You generate a daily report according to the following query:

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
You develop a SQL Server database for a large multinational company.
You must develop a stored procedure to loop through employee information and return data for one employee at a time.
How should you complete the stored procedure? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segment to the correct locations in the answer area. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 26
You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Correct Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer

QUESTION 27
You use Microsoft SQL Server to develop a database application.
You create a stored procedure named usp_calculategrowth. The stored procedure modifies rows and can result in several different exceptions.
You need to ensure that when the stored procedure is executed, the following requirements are met:

Which six Transact-SQL statements should you use? (To answer, move the appropriate SQL statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 28
You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Correct Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answe

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QUESTION 1
In Cisco Unity Express, which two Call Handling options can you configure on the Voice Mail tab of the GUI? (Choose two.)
A. distribution list
B. application parameter settings script
C. business schedule
D. voice mail operator number
E. calling search space
300-085 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
When using Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service in a federated network configuration, which statement about Message Archiver is true?
A. The sender cluster sends the message to the remote cluster before archiving it.
B. Message Archiver is not supported in a federated network configuration.
C. The sender cluster archives the message before sending it to the remote cluster.
D. The message is archived on the remote cluster only.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which three system components are needed to provision a new endpoint in Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. SNMP community name
D. configuration template
E. enable remote access
F. persistent settings
G. E164 alias
H. gatekeeper
300-085 dumps Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry?
A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Unity Express
C. Cisco Unity
D. Cisco Unity Mobile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Convert the incoming messages to G.729a.
B. Keep the incoming messages as G.711.
C. Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a.
D. Convert the outgoing messages to G.726.
E. Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format.
F. Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing.
300-085 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
A user that is logged into Cisco Jabber reports that their availability status is incorrect for most of the contacts in their contact list. Which four service traces give a correct indication of the issue? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
B. Cisco XCP Router
C. Cisco Presence Engine
D. Cisco SIP Proxy
E. Cisco Text Conferencing Manager
F. Cisco Client Profile Agent
G. Cisco XCP Web Connection Manager
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 7
Which four pieces of information does the Cisco TMS Provisioning Extension service provide the VCS? (Choose four.)
A. user
B. device
C. dial plan
D. routing rules
E. zone information
F. phone book
G. FindMe
H. gateway
300-085 vce Correct Answer: ABFG

QUESTION 8
Which two options are types of directory handlers? (Choose two.)
A. voice-enabled
B. phone keypad
C. forwarded rules
D. direct rules
E. standard hours
F. closed hours
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco TMS extension integrates Cisco TMS with IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0.x, 8.0.x, 8.5.x?
A. TMSXE
B. TMSXN
C. TMSBA
D. TMSPE
300-085 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about integrating Cisco Unity Connection with an LDAP directory and creating users by importing data from Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unity Connection users will not automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
B. Cisco Unity Connection users will automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
C. Separate passwords must be maintained for Cisco Unity Connection web applications and Cisco Unified Communications Manager web applications.
D. Automatic synchronization updates the Cisco Unity Connection database with new data for new and existing users when you add users to the LDAP directory.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
The administrator of a Cisco Unity Connection system would like to set up a new employee and assign him a password of 123. The system gives him an error when he attempts to save the user. Which two of the following settings sections and features of Cisco Unity Connection should the administrator change to set up the user? (Choose two.)
A. User Template > Maximum Credential Length
B. Authentication Rules > Minimum Credential Length
C. User Template > Check for Trivial Passwords
D. Restriction Tables > Minimum Credential Length
E. Restriction Tables > Check for Trivial Passwords
F. Authentication Rules > Check for Trivial Passwords
300-085 dumps Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 12
What are two types of integration between Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. SCCP integration
B. TIMG integration
C. SIP integration
D. PIMG integration
E. H.323 integration
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B. Associate the end device with the user.
C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D. Associate the directory number with the user.
E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.
300-085 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which three are valid system connectivity statuses for systems that are automatically added to Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. Inaccessible
B. Failed
C. Connected
D. Reachable on Public Internet
E. Behind Firewall
F. Online
G. Remote Site
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for directed calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? (Choose two.)
A. Log in to their mailbox with their PIN.
B. Listen to the opening greeting.
C. Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox.
D. Enter user ID and PIN.
E. Log in to remote mailbox.
300-085 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
Which three functions are executed using the Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint system upgrades
B. edit call control
C. manage phone books
D. provision Jabber Instant Messaging
E. create voicemail account
F. create new conference
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 17
Which service must you restart, in order to enable file transfers on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence server?
A. Cisco SIP Proxy
B. Cisco Presence Engine
C. Cisco XCP Router
D. Cisco Sync Agent
300-085 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which troubleshooting tool is used to check and verify the individual modules in the Cisco Unified Presence server?
A. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool
B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter
C. Cisco Unified Presence Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are presented? (Choose three.)
A. endpoints
B. users
C. Cisco MCUs
D. multiway address
E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
G. video AutoAttendant numbers
300-085 dumps Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 20
Which service parameter must be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to enable SIP PUBLISH on a SIP trunk as the mechanism for presence interaction with Cisco Unified Presence?
A. IM and Presence publish trunk
B. route class trunk
C. processing on QSIG trunk
D. fail call over SIP trunk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What is the maximum number of users that can be imported into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express at one time?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 500
D. 50
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A company that wants to deploy Cisco Jabber is deciding whether to use UDS or EDI for contact resolution. Which three pieces of information should the company consider? (Choose three.)
A. SSO cannot be used with UDS.
B. With EDI, Active Directory is the only LDAP server that can be used.
C. Cisco Unified Communication Manager needs to be integrated with the LDAP server through both UDS and EDI.
D. Queries to the LDAP server can be offloaded by using UDS.
E. EDI uses native Windows APIs to retrieve contact data from the directory service.
F. EDI is the contact source that is used for Cisco Expressway Mobile and Remote Access.
300-085 pdf Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 23
Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP integration with Cisco Unity Connection requires which configuration component to connect to voicemail?
A. Route Pattern
B. Hunt Group
C. Route Group
D. Hunt Pilot
E. Trunk Group
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Under System Settings in Cisco Unity Connection, where do you assign the cluster ID?
A. general configuration
B. cluster
C. enterprise parameters
D. service parameters
E. licenses
F. schedules
G. roles
H. authentication rules
300-085 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
When troubleshooting a single Cisco Unified Presence user complaint, which is the Cisco recommended tool to start the troubleshooting process?
A. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool
B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter
C. Cisco Unified Presence Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which set is a list of valid functions in Cisco TelePresence Management Suite?
A. registration, reporting, provisioning, and remote control
B. reporting, registration, provisioning, and asset management
C. provisioning, reporting, asset management, and call control
D. call control, asset management, reporting, and registration
E. reporting and phonebook
300-085 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which three components are the minimum needed to enable the FindMe feature for the users of an enterprise? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite Provisioning Extension
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager with Extension Mobility Service
D. Video Communication Server
E. Cisco IM and Presence
F. CiscoWebex On Premises deployment
G. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 28
What is the maximum number of custom auto-attendant applications that you can set up in Cisco Unity Express?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
300-085 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which type of video service does Cisco Unity Connection use to provide video services?
A. multipoint control unit
B. video control services
C. conductor
D. Cisco Presence Service
E. MediaSense
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
Which two types of mailboxes are supported by Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)
A. personal
B. general delivery
C. group
D. mailing list
E. voice
F. temporary
300-085 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
In Cisco Unity Connection, which two elements are used to provide call management? (Choose two.)
A. Call Handlers
B. Directory Handlers
C. Route Patterns
D. Hunt Lists
E. Translation patterns
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 32
In Cisco Unity Connection, which two methods can you use to segregate the global dial and message addressing space? (Choose two.)
A. SIP trunk
B. search spaces
C. route patterns
D. translation patterns
E. partitions
F. hunt pilot
300-085 vce Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 33
Which two parameters are required when you configure the Voice Profile for Internet Mail location on Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)
A. domain name or IP address
B. destination type
C. display name
D. location ID
E. dial ID
F. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol domain name
Correct Answer: AD

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[2018-5-NEW] New Updated Cisco 352-001 Dumps Vce CCDE Exam With New Discount Youtube Training Q1-Q2

Preparing your 352-001 dumps? 352-001, Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam is consists of different types of multiple choice questions and answers. In the pass4itsure 352-001 dumps vce exam resources, It will be the hot test associated with Cisco 352-001 dumps practice exam qualification and you will cover every field and category in Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam helping to ready you for your successful CCDE certification.

Pass4itsure 352-001 Dumps Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam
Exam Number: 352-001
Associated Certification: CCDE
Duration: 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions)
Available Languages: English

Up to the immediate present 352-001 exam cram(1-24)

QUESTION 1
A multinational enterprise company has many branches in the Americas, Europe, and Asia Pacific with headquarters in London. Branch offices use Ethernet (bandwidth range from 1 Mb/s to 10 Mb/s) as access technology to connect to the headquarters and the regional hubs. The company is currently implementing VolP and QoS in all their locations, and they are worried about jitter between their branches and the headquarters. Which option reduces the effect of jitter?
A. buffering at endpoints
B. Call Admission Control
C. increase the bandwidth of the links
D. WRED
352-001 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option described a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible is client-server based and puppet is not
B. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not
C. Ansible is python and puppet is ruby based
D. Ansible automates repetetive tasks and puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes “contracts”?
A. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
B. a Layer 3 forwarding domain
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. named groups of related endpoints
352-001 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are designing a network solution to connect a primary data center to a disaster recovery site. The applications hosted on the site will be mainly web and email servers that are provided through a virtualized environment. A third data center facility may also be added in the next sixth months. for this Which connectivity type is appropriate design?
A. point-to-point GRE tunnels
B. L2TPv3
C. VPWS
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which workflow-based software solution provides automation and orchestration processes for compute, network, and storage with support for these features? single-pane infrastructure management, support for multiple hypervisors, storage provisioning with EMC and NetApp, abstraction of hardware and software elements into more than 1000 programmable workflows, self provisioning of virtual machines using catalogs.
A. OpenStack
B. Ansible
C. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
D. Cisco UCS Director
352-001 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A company wants to prioritize voice traffic at their network edge and ensure that it has reserved some minimum bandwidth and treated with priority in the core. QoS is not currently implemented in the core, but MPLS with RSVP as the signaling protocol is already enabled. Which three actions do you recommend to optimize the voice traffic in the core with minimal changes? (Choose 3)
A. Configure PHB queueing policies on every core node based on the DSCP value.
B. Create GRE tunnels through the core and configure PBR to forward the voice traffic into those tunnels.
C. Create RSVP tunnels through the core, reserving a minimum bandwidth for voice traffic.
D. Perform class-based tunnel selection to forward voice packets through MPLS tunnels in the core based on DSCP value.
E. Enable LDP throughout the core and configure PHB queueing policies based on the MPLS EXP field.
F. Mark the voice traffic at the network edge with a specific DSCP value.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 7
Which two functions are performed at the core layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2)
A. QoS classification and marking boundary
B. fast transport
C. reliability
D. fault isolation
E. load balancing
352-001 vce Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You are assisting in convergence optimization for an MPLS network. Which option should you recommend to prevent microloops in the core backbone of the service provider?
A. RSVP-TE
B. RLFA
C. LFA
D. prefix suppression
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
As the new network designer for a manufacturing company, you are designing this resilient Ethernet ring for the plant Ethernet network that is connected to the core, which does not use STP. Both edge ports are on the same switch in a ring segment. There is connectivity between the edge ports throughout the segment, so you can create a redundant connection between any two switches in the ring. Which three options are characteristics of this design? (Choose 3)
A. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a logically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
B. If all ports in the segment are operational, then two ports are in the blocked state for each VLAN.
C. If VLAN load balancing is configured, then one port in the segment controls the blocked state of VLANs.
D. If all ports in the segment are operational, then one port is in the blocked state for each VLAN.
E. If one or more ports in a segment are not operational, thereby causing a link failure, then all ports forward traffic on all VLANs to ensure connectivity.
F. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a physically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
352-001 exam Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10
Which are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose 2)
A. OVSDB is an application database management protocol.
B. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
C. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
D. Southbound interface are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
E. The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which two benefits can be obtained by protecting the control plane of a network device? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains remote management access to the router
B. Preserves the confidentiality of traffic encrypted by IPsec
C. Prevents the delivery of packets from spoof sources
D. Maintains routing protocol adjacencies with local neighbors
352-001 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
The service provider that you work for wants to offer IPv6 internet service to its customers without upgrading all of its access equipment to support IPv6. Which transition technology do you recommend?
A. CGN
B. NAT64
C. dual-stack CPE
D. 6RD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How should you compensate for jitter on an IP network so it carries real-time VolP traffic with acceptable voice transmission quality?
A. Set up VAD to replace gaps on speech with comfort noise.
B. Set up a playout buffer to play back the voice stream.
C. Deploy RSVP for dynamic VolP packet classification.
D. Change CODEC from G.729 to G.711.
352-001 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities?
A. Layered security approach
B. Place security above functionality
C. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
D. Privacy impact Assessment
E. Change passwords every 90 days
F. Implement intrusion detection systems on IoT Devices
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
You must design this network for IP Fast Reroute by enabling the OSPF Loop-Free Alternates feature (not
Remote Loop-Free Alternates). Which two options are concerns about the proposed solution? (Choose 2)
A. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is not supported on ring topologies.
B. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates on ring topologies are prone to routing loops.
C. Fast Reroute requires MPLS TE.
D. The solution is prone to microloops in case of congestion
E. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is transport dependent.
352-001 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
You are asked to design an RSVP-TE LSP protection solution for a large service provider network. Which traffic protection mechanism is highly scalable and ensures that multiple LSPs always terminate at the same merge point?
A. detour LSPs
B. 1:1 protection
C. 1:N protection
D. shared-explicit reservation style
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In Layer 2 access campus design, which mechanism should be enabled on access ports to protect the campus network from undesired access switches and looped ports?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. BPDU guard
D. loop guard
352-001 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes a design benefit of root guard?
A. It makes the port go immediately into the forwarding state after being connected.
B. It does not generate a spanning-tree topology change upon connecting and disconnecting a station on a port.
C. It allows small, unmanaged switches to be plugged into ports of access switches without the risk of switch loops.
D. It prevents switch loops by detecting one-way communications on the physical port.
E. It prevents switch loops caused by unidirectional point-to-point link condition on Rapid PVST+ and MST.
F. It prevents switched traffic from traversing suboptimal paths on the network.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 19
A network is designed to use OSPF to reach eBGP peers. Which condition should be avoided so that the eBGP peers do not flap continuously in case of link failure?
A. Advertise via a non-backbone OSPF area IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
B. Advertise via eBGP IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
C. Disable BGP synchronization.
D. Use an ACL to block BGP in one direction.
352-001 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two IEEE standards are commonly used at the data link layer for an access network, in an loT environment? (Choose 2)
A. 802.11
B. 802.16
C. 802.15.4
D. 1901.2 NB-PLC
E. 802.22
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 21
Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.)
A. Delay an attack from reaching its target
B. Redirect an attack away from its target
C. Monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity
D. Reverse the direction of an attack
352-001 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 22
What is a correct design consideration of IPv6 MLD snooping?
A. MLD snooping requires IGMP snooping to be implemented.
B. MLD snooping conserves CPU by sharing IPv4 and IPv6 multicast topology.
C. MLD snooping is used to filter all MLD queries.
D. MLD snooping conserves bandwidth on switches.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
The Middle East-based cloud service provider, CSP, is planning to launch five data centers in Egypt, United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and Turkey. CSP is looking for VLAN extension and DCIs between these five data centers to allow for software replication, where original and backup VMs must be on the same subnet. Which tunneling technology must they use?
A. VPWS
B. L2TPv3
C. IPsec VPN
D. VPLS
352-001 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A service provider wants to use a controller to automate the provisioning of service function chaining. Which two overlay technologies can be used with EVPN MP-BGP to create the service chains in the data center? (Choose 2)
A. MPLS L2VPN
B. 802.1Q
C. MPLSoGRE
D. VXLAN
E. Provider Backbone Bridging EVPN
Correct Answer: DE

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[2018-5-NEW] Recenty Updated Cisco 300-370 Dumps CCNP Wireless Exam Youtube Study Guides Download Are The Best Materials Q1-Q30

Preparing your 300-370 dumps? 300-370, Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks is a proctored exam offered by pass4itsure Cisco. This exam is specially linked with pass4itsure (WITSHOOT) Cisco certified solutionse expert. This exam is available in English. Candidates connected with IT field can apply for pass4itsure 300-370 dumps pdf Cisco certification exams, and this is a CCNP Wireless certification technology. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Exam Number: 300-370 WITSHOOT
Associated Certifications: CCNP Wireless
Duration: 90 Minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages: English

Up to the immediate present 300-370 exam cram(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network According to the output, which network information should be verified?
A. the Failed Attempts log on the authentication server
B. that the AP has IP connectivity to the authentication server
C. that the user has an account on the authentication server
D. that the authentication and accounting configuration are correct
300-370 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An engineer must open a support case with Cisco TAC. Which two commands verify the model and serial number of a controller?(Choose two)
A. show sysinfo
B. show udi
C. show inventory
D. show boot
E. show tech-support
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
While reviewing Clean Air data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default seventy level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the seventy level to its factory setting?
A. informational
B. major
C. minor
D. warning
E. critical
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the engineer consider legal ramifications?
A. rogue AP containment
B. RF detection
C. switch port tracing
D. wire detection
E. Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the CAPWAP messages?
A. debug pm pki enable
B. debug cert events enable
C. debug capwap events enable
D. debug capwap packet enable
E. debug capwap errors enable
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Scenario
The Big Engineering IT team has been working in the lab to do some testing of some new features the existing network won’t support. They are AP Croups, AP Failover, and Local Web Auth. They have been having problems with all three features. In this test environment the controllers only support the Composite and Structural Engineering and Aerodynamic Engineering groups. All SSIDs should omit the department name. Refer to the exhibit. This is a diagram of the floor plan for the Big Engineering office and the distribution of the departments. The tables below show how the controllers have been configured. Note, not all menu items, text boxes, or radio buttons are active.
300-370 dumps
300-370 dumps
When you review the configuration of the test network controller what needs to be changed to resolve the problems? (Choose four.)
A. Change the High Availability Primary Controller Management Interface IP address.
B. Remove the current WLANs and replace them with WLANs that have the same SSID names as on the AE-2504A controller.
C. Add the Local Net User names and passwords
D. Change the Layer 2 security to none and Layer 3 Security to Web Policy for the CSE-Contractors WLAN
E. Remove me current WLAN from the CSE-WLAN AP Group and add all three of the WLANs configured in the CSE- 2504A
F. Add the CSE APs to the CSE-WLANs AP-Group.
Correct Answer: BCDF

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about the WLAN are true? (Choose two)
300-370 dumps
Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. The client has a 5 GHz connection.
B. The client has authenticated.
C. The client is 802.11n capable.
D. The Cisco device is a 3600 series AP.
E. 802 11b data rates are disabled in this WLAN
300-370 vce Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join.
B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware.
C. AP model % not compatible with the controller code version.
D. The AP is riot conjured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2- Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer do 10 resolve the issue? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset the network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled
300-370 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An engineer is troubleshooting non-802 11 interference and observes this output. Which type of interference signaturescanbeidentified? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. one frequency hopping Bluetooth
B. two healthy CCK and one malformed OFDM
C. three broadband jammers
D. two strong microwave ovens and one moderate
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A new wireless deployment with high AP density is experiencing high latency and connectivity issues on the 24 GHz band, despite an initial site survey done by a certified partner. Which option is the most impactful change a wireless consultant recommends? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. Increase the fragmentation threshold to allow larger packets over the air.
B. Reduce the beacon period because it reduces the RF interference.
C. Disable lower data rate, such as 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps.
D. Disable the short preamble.
E. Disable 80211g support to reduce interference.
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A wireless user is experiencing connectivity issues with their Mac OS laptop. If the Mac is exhibiting the behavior of a “sticky client” how can the tech verity which AP the user is currently connected to?
A. Hold shift while clicking the wireless icon.
B. Hold option while clicking the wireless icon.
C. Hold control while clicking the wireless icon.
D. Hold command while clicking the wireless icon.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer has configured 802 1x for the network and all but one of the APs are passing authentication. Which configurationiscausing the failure?
A. The AP has override global credentials checked.
B. The switch AAA credentials do not match what is configured on ISE.
C. The controller 802 1x supplicant credentials do not match what is configured on ISE
D. EAP-FAST is configured on ISE for this AP.
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command causes this to occur?
A. debug capwap detail enable
B. debug capwap errors enable
C. debug capwap info enable
D. debug capwap events enable
E. debug capwap packet enable
F. debug capwap payload enable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is troubleshooting why EAP authentication with a client is failing. Which two commands should be used to resolve the issue? (Choose two)
A. debug dot1x notifications enable
B. debug dot1x events enable
C. debug arp
D. debug aaa detail enable
E. debug aaa events detail enable
300-370 vce Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 16
Which channel width is the maximum that can be obtained by bonding two 802.11 ac subchannels according to US regulations?
A. 160 MHz
B. 120 MHz
C. 84 MHz
D. 240 MHz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
You have successfully configured HA and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. You are able to access the Active Primary WLC but are unable to access the Secondary Standby WLC. Which two methods will allow you to access the standby unit? (Choose two.)
A. Via SSH to the Redundancy Management Interface.
B. Via Service Port Interface.
C. Via SSH to the Management Interface.
D. Via console connection.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which ports require unrestricted port access for CleanAir RF spectrum analysis between the AP and Cisco Spectrum Expert?
A. UDP 5246 and 5247
B. UDP 37540 and 37550
C. TCP 16113 and 16114
D. TCP 37540 and 37550
E. TCP 5246 and 5247
F. UDP 16113and 16114
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A recently acquired Cisco Aironet 1550 series AP is unable to join the WLC. This message is observed on the AP console:
AAA Authentication Failure for UserName:CC93.1981.0035 User Type: WLAN USER Which action must be taken for the AP to associate with the controller?
A. Add MAC address CC93.1981.0035 to the Security AAA AP policy Authorization List.
B. Authenticate the AP to the WLC from the console using an admin account on the WLC.
C. Add MAC address CC93.1981.035 to the Security AAA MAC Filtering tab.
D. Import the self-signed certificate of the AP to the Security:Certificate:LSC tab.
E. Import the self-signed certificate of the AP to the Security:Certificate:SSC tab.
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contacts the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. chaddr
D. yiaddr
E. giaddr
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout the building when browsing the Internet. Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences?
A. low RSSI check
B. 802.11r
C. RX-SOP
D. optimized roaming
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A network engineer has identified clients who are experiencing delays white roaming. The network is configured with WPA2-Enterpnse. AES encryption, 802 1X authentication, and Cisco Centralized Key Management. Which change resolves the roaming delays?
A. Utilize a supplicant that supports Cisco Centralized Key Management.”
B. Enable AES and TKIP encryption
C. Disable client session timeout
D. Install wireless device drivers from Cisco
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
An engineer is deploying a wireless infrastructure and must use Layer 2 discovery for access point association. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. Configure the Access Points and WLC management interface on the same VLAN.
B. Configure a DNS A RECORD to point to the controller.
C. Configure option 43 on The APs DHCP scope.
D. Configure the AP using a serial connection to indicate its controller.
300-370 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A wireless engineer is unable to join lightweight access points to the Cisco Wireless Controller. The access points receive ip addresses from a DHCP pool configured on the core switch.
Which action must be taken to resolve the issue?
A. Upgrade the Wireless Controller to a newer IOS release.
B. Configure option 43 on the DHCP pool.
C. Configure option 82 on the Wireless controller.
D. Change the management ip address on the Wireless Controller.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A mobile station in a factory contains an AP configured as a work group bridge that authenticates to a root AP using EAP-FAST. To be able to use the mobile station in further parts of the factory, another root AP is installed and also configured for EAP-FAST When the mobile station is attempting to roam to the other AP, it loses connection yet can still authenticate to the first one. What is the cause for the failed authentication on RAP2?
Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps
A. RAP1 is using a different authentication protocol than RAP2.
B. RAP2 has a different SSID than RAP1.
C. RAP1 is using a different encryption than RAP2.
D. The authentication use name and password is different.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
In a cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type n und between the access point and the mass LAW controller?
A. DTLS
B. TIS
C. STIS
D. OpenSSL
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A Cisco WLC v7.0 is not seeing an AP join. Which starting prefix debug command can help determine a combination of discovery/join and DHCP process status?
A. debug capwap events – from Cisco WLC
B. debug capwap events – from the AP
C. debug ip udp – from Cisco WLC
D. debug ip udp – from the AP
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Layer 3 WLAN controller mutual authentication join process events on the left into the order in which they occur on the right Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
300-370 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-370 dumps

QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
300-370 dumps
300-370 pdf Correct Answer:
300-370 dumps

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[2018-4-NEW] Best New Cisco 200-125 Dumps Real CCNA Exam Video Questions Answers (Question 1 – Question 50)

Preparing your 200-125 dumps? 200-125, CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0) is a proctored exam offered by pass4itsure Cisco. This exam is specially linked with pass4itsure (CCNA) Cisco certified solutionse expert. This exam is available in English, Japanese. Candidates connected with IT field can apply for pass4itsure 200-125 dumps pdf Cisco certification exams, and this is a CCNA Routing and Switching certification technology. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
Exam Number: 200-125 CCNA
Associated Certifications: CCNA Routing and Switching
Duration: 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese

Up to the immediate present 200-125 exam cram(1-50)

QUESTION 1
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given cisco switch? (choose two)
A. show interfaces interface
B. show interfaces trunk
C. show interfaces switch port
D. show ip interface brief
E. show interfaces vlan
200-125 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
A. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201
B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1
C. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default
D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)
A. 802.2 Protocol
B. 802.3 Protocol
C. 10BaseT half duplex
D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
E. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)
A. Enable RIP
B. Connect RIP to WAN interface
C. Enable no auto-summary
D. Enable authentication
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?
A. Forwarding
B. Enabled
C. Disabled
D. Err disabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)
A. Layer 2 protocol
B. Layer 3 protocol
C. Proprietary protocol
D. enabled by default
E. disabled by default
200-125 vce Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 8
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. switchport trunk native vlan 20
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?
A. Tos Field
B. DSCP
C. IP Precedence
D. Cos
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?
A. Routing
B. Hair pinning
C. Encapsulation
D. Switching
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What does split horizon prevent?
A. routing loops, link state
B. routing loops, distance vector
C. switching loops, STP
D. switching loops, VTP
200-125 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?
A. interface
B. virtual IP address
C. priority
D. router ID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?
A. preempt
B. priority
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 15
D. Level 16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which range represents the standard access list?
A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What to do when the router password was forgotten?
A. use default password cisco to reset
B. access router physically
C. use ssl/vpn
D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?
A. telnet
B. ssh
C. vtp
D. vpn
E. dmvpn
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
How do you configure a hostname?
A. Router(config)#hostname R1
B. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
C. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
D. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which technology you will choose to connect multiple sites with secure connections?
A. Point-to-point
B. DMVPN
C. vpn
200-125 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp neighbors detail
B. Show cdp neighbor
C. Show cdp interface
D. Show cdp traffic
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?(choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
D. Route summarization iscompued automatically by the router.
E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables,using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 28
Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse two)
A. 50
B. 1550
C. 150
D. 1250
E. 2050
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
What does split-horizon do?
A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol
B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which statement about vlan operation on cisco catalyst switches is true?
A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk,the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table.
B. unkown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
200-125 dumps
A. router# show protocols
B. router#show startup-config
C. router#show line
D. router#show interface gig0/1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.
B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected
C. When you have gathered all information about an issue
D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min
200-125 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which two authentic methods are compatible with MLPPP on a serial Interface?(choose two)
A. PEAP
B. CHAP
C. TACACS+
D. PAP
E. LEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 34
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.9.0
B. 172.16.8.0
C. 172.16.31.0
D. 172.16.20.0
200-125 exam Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 35
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
A. The designated port
B. The backup port
C. The alternate port
D. The root port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? (Choose two)
A. uses process number
B. neighbor configured directly
C. configured driectly on interface
D. configured globally interface
E. have shutdown feature
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 39
interface fa0/0
ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp XXX
neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x
You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.
A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224
B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224
C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31
D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which two statements about LLDP are true?(choose two)
A. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices
B. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
C. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
D. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
E. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer
200-125 vce Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 41
Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHCP services to an enterprise?
A. IaaS
B. DaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 42
Which two protocol can detect native vlan mismatch errors? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. STP
E. PAGP
200-125 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 43
Router R1 has a static route that is configured to destination network.A directly connected interface is configured with an IP address in the same destination network.Which statement about R1 is true?
A. R1 refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
B. R1 prefers the static route
C. R1 prefers the directly connected interface
D. R1 sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 45
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
200-125 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 46
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
200-125 dumps
200-125 pdf Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 47
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
200-125 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 48
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
200-125 dumps
200-125 exam Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 49
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
200-125 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

QUESTION 50
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps Correct Answer:
200-125 dumps

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[2018-4-NEW] Best Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Exam Actual Test Youtube Will Be More Popular (Question 21 – Question 33)

Preparing your 200-105 dumps? 200-105, Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0) is a proctored exam offered by pass4itsure Cisco. This exam is specially linked with pass4itsure (ICND2) Cisco certified solutions expert. This exam is available in English, Japanese. Candidates connected with IT field can apply for pass4itsure 200-105 dumps pdf Cisco certification exams, and this is a CCNA Routing & Switching certification technology. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
Exam Number: 200-105 ICND2
Associated Certifications: CCNA Routing & Switching
Duration: 90 Minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese

Up to the immediate present 200-105 exam cram(21-33)

QUESTION 21
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security
What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
200-105 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Reliability
D. Load
E. MTU
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
EIGRP adds together weighted values of different network link characteristics in order to calculate a metric for
evaluating path selection.

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3, what is the TTL value for that ping?
A. 253
B. 252
C. 255
D. 254
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: andquot;Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a packet; if a router decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from rota

QUESTION 24
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Netflow can be used to diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs and bandwidth utilization quickly with command line interface or reporting tools. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/prod

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on interfaces and the local VLANs are up?
A. show ip interface brief
B. show ip nat statistics
C. show ip statistics
D. show ip route
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Initiate a ping from an end device in one VLAN to the interface VLAN on another VLAN in order to verify that the switch routes between VLANs. In this example, ping from VLAN 2 (10.1.2.1) to Interface

QUESTION 27
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: BG
Explanation/Reference:
When reading (or being lectured about) all the glorious details of dynamic routing protocols, it\’s hard not to come away with the impression that dynamic routing is always better than static routing

QUESTION 28
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5. The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.
Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Router R6 does not form an EIGRP neighbor relationship correctly with router R1. What is the cause for this misconfiguration?
A. The K values mismatch.
B. The AS does not match.
C. The network command is missing.
D. The passive-interface command is enabled.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
200-105 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to
either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elec

Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
200-105 dumps Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are correct. The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don’t know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct. The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority 32768 -> C is correct. All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to point environment – not a shared media -> D is not correct. The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not
guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.

Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example
Reference 1:
Reference 2:
a.shtml
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.
100-105 dumps

Background Information
802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such
as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such
as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features: Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the 802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0. All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs.
Port Roles—Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port.
Port States—Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.
Port Types—Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port.
Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4. Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of
Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)

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Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
Exam Number: 100-105 ICND1
Associated Certifications: CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless
Duration: 90 Minutes (45-55 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese

Up to the immediate present 100-105 exam cram(1-13)

Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
100-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address. Those two are not going to change. For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches… they don’t change anything) Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1. Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC address.
Then the same will happen… Router2 is going to change the source/destination info to the

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
100-105 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP server

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established-
-the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered– before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 pdf Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. The target’s MAC address is
set to all 0s. ARP Request
Reference:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
100-105 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: E
Explanation:
For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however, place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are layer 1 devices.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.

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Exam Number: 300-070 CIPTV1
Associated Certifications :CCNP Collaboration
Duration: 75 Minutes (65 – 75 questions)
Available Languages: English

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Up to the immediate present 300-070 exam cram(1-28)

Question No : 1
Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C. a route list with no route groups configured
D. a route list with one or more route groups configured
300-070 exam Answer: A,D
Reference:

Question No : 2
What are two benefits of using the DiffServ QoS model? (Choose two)
A. It offers an absolute guarantee of service quality.
B. It is highly scalable.
C. RTCP is scalable.
D. It provides many different levels of quality.
E. RSVP is not scalable.
Answer: B,D

Question No : 3
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
300-070 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 4
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN. To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented. How should CAC be implemented?
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Answer: E

Question No : 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
An engineer is trying to determine the status of the ISDN D Channel on a new PRI circuit, types in the show isdn status command, and sees this output. Which two pieces of information can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)
A. The provider is using the 5ESS protocol.
B. There are four channels.
C. The connection to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been established.
D. The D channel is working correctly.
E. No active calls are established.
300-070 pdf Answer: D,E

Question No : 6
What is the default option for framing when you configure T1 controller?
A. Super Frame
B. alternate mark inversion
C. C.Extended Super Frame
D. D.cyclic redundancy check 4
E. E.high-density bipolar 3
F. F.No-CRC4
G. G.binary 8-zero substitution
H. Australia
Answer: C,D
Reference:

Question No : 7
Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?
A. $
B. !
C. #
D. .
300-070  vce Answer: C

Question No : 8
Which two algorithms are valid to distribute calls in a route group? (Choose two.)
A. broadcast
B. circular
C. top-down
D. bottom-up
E. round-robin
Answer: B,C
Reference:

Question No : 9
Where do you configure the region for a group of devices?
A. Common device profile.
B. Device defaults.
C. Common device configuration.
D. Common phone profile.
E. Device pool.
300-070 exam Answer: E

Question No : 10
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Answer: A

Question No : 11
What are two characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager dial plan? (Choose two.)
A. partitions and calling search spaces
B. COR
C. dial peers
D. voice translation rules
E. route patterns
300-070 dumps Answer: A,E

Question No : 12
An engineer is setting up a system with voice and video endpoints using auto-QoS policy on the switches. Which DSCP values are expected for interactive voice and video?
A. F and AF-41
B. EF and CS6
C. EF and CS3
D. EF and AF21
Answer: A

Question No : 13
Which two options are IOS conference bridge types in CUCM? (Choose two)
A. CiscoIOS Enhanced Conference Bridge
B. CiscoIOS Standard Conference Bridge
C. CiscoIOS Software Conference Bridge
D. CiscoIOS Hardware Conference Bridge
E. Cisco IOS Conference Bridge
300-070 pdf Answer: A,E

Question No : 14
When implementing a global dial plan, which digit manipulation feature in CUCM does Cisco recommend for adding +1 to all outbound calls?
A. Called party transformation.
B. Calling party transformation.
C. Translation pattern.
D. External phone mask.
Answer: A

Question No : 15
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-555-1212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
300-070  vce Answer: E

Question No : 16
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. Shared line appearances
B. CentralizedDSP resources
C. Extension mobility within the cluster
D. Scalability up to 20 sites, if thereis sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
E. Failover to co-resident Cisco UnifiedCall Manager Express platforms
Answer: A,C

Question No : 17
The Cisco IP Phone of your company operator is on extension 7000. However, users normally dial 0 to get the operator. Which action sends calls that were made to 0 to the operator?
A. Create a route pattern of 0 and use a called party transform mask of 7XXX.
B. Create a translation pattern for 7000 and a called party transform mask of 0.
C. Create a translation pattern for 0 and a called party transform mask of 7000.
D. Create the IP phone overlay feature so the operator’s line has 0 and 7000 assigned to it.
E. Create a translation pattern for 0 and a calling party transform mask of 7000.
300-070 exam Answer: C

Question No : 18
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey’s Gateway and CUCM.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey’s Gateway.
C. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey’s Gateway and CUCM.
D. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey’s Gateway and CUCM.
Answer: C,D

Question No : 19
Which three options can be used to configure digit manipulation for dial peers? (Choose three.)
A. digit translation rules
B. called party transformations
C. route partitions
D. forward digits
E. route patterns
F. digit stripping and prefixes
G. calling party transformations
300-070 dumps Answer: A,D,F

Question No : 20
When creating a route pattern, which two of these options should you avoid? (Choose two)
A. Lowercase characters, such as a, b, c
B. Wildcards.
C. Numbers.
D. Uppercase characters, such as A, B, C.
E. Spaces.
F. Special characters andescape sequences, such as @ and \+.
Answer: A,E

Question No : 21
Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?
A. Cisco Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Telepresence MCU
C. Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
D. Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
E. Cisco Telepresence Conductor
300-070 pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 22
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which pattern does the route pattern \+61278[^-5]59 match?
A. \+61278359001
B. +61278459001
C. 278259001
D. +61278259001
E. +612783559001
300-070  vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
By default, what value is voice traffic marked as on a Cisco Catalyst Switch?
A. DSCP CAS6 value 21, Cos 3
B. DSCP AF21 value 46, Cos 5
C. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 7
D. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which party has a SIP B2BUA role in the call?
A. 172.17.4.100
B. 10.100.4.65 and 172.17.4.100
C. 10.100.4.65
D. None of the parties has a B2BUA role in the call.
E. 10.100.4.68 and 10.100.4.65
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN. To optimize the utilization of
the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented.
How should CAC be implemented?
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which groups will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers that are set to use the andlt;Noneandgt; partition?
A. Only users that have the andlt;Noneandgt; partition assigned in their calling search space will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
B. All users will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
C. The andlt;Noneandgt; partition will prevent all users from accessing the Meet-Me conference numbers.
D. Any IP phones with their lines configured in the andlt;Noneandgt; partition will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
Correct Answer: C
300-070 dumps

300-070, Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 is a proctored exam offered by Cisco. This exam is specially linked with (CIPTV1) Cisco CCNP Collaboration Expert. This exam is available in English. Candidates connected with IT field can apply for 300-070 dumps Cisco certification exams, and this is a CCNP Collaboration certification technology. If you are planning to have a successful career in any field, then you should always consider taking these exams as they can work as a backbone in your life. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

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300-070 dumps

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