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QUESTION 75
Select the description of how the trespass feature works:
A. Trespass permits multiple hosts to access the same lun.
B. Trespass is used to bypass traditional lun masking, and permit access to masked luns within the storage array.
C. Trespass is used to trigger an array to make a lun available out a secondary port in the event there is a failure on the primary port.
D. Trespass is used to permit the iscsi virtual target to reside in multiple zones at the same time.
E. Trespass is used to suppress available luns from being seen by initiators that do not need to see them.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 76
Based on the following output from show hardware internal fc-mac port gbic-info module command what is the possible cause of an interface not coming up? Module-3# ———–GBIC info for user port 03——–Present No Module-3# sh hardware internal fc-mac port 6 gbic-info ——-GBIC info for user port 06————–Present:Yes Tx fault:No Rx Loss: Yes Tx Enable: Yes Read State :read cc_base:passed cc_ex: passed
A. The end device is a private device but the port is not configured as a TL port.
B. There is a physical layer issue
C. The port is connected to another switch but the port is not configured for an E_port.
D. There should not be an issue. Yjis is the output of an operational link.
E. There is a speed mismatch on the link.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
The committee/association responsible for the production and overseeing of SCSI I/O interface standards is:
A. IETF
B. ANSI
C. T11
D. T10
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
The FICON configuration files maintained on the switch enable which features to be configured? Select two.
A. Block FICON traffic from particular ports on the switch
B. Enable and disable ports in FICON VSANS
C. Prevent certain ports from accessing other ports
D. Perform a port swap
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 79
When does a FCIP interface need to be configured as B-Port?
A. There are no practical reasons to configure the FCIP interface as a B-Port instead of an E-port.
B. B-port does not apply to FCIP interfaces because it is a mode that needs to be configured if an interface is connected to a Brocade switch.
C. When the other end of the FCIP link is a PA-FC-1G module on a 7200/7400 series.
D. A FCIP link, as defined in the FC-BB (Fiber Channel Backbone) standard, is always configured as B-Port and consequently this is the default configuration on the MDS 9000 as well.
E. B-Port is the way the FCIP interface needs to be configured if the source GigEthernet interface is connected to a Cat6k with MSFC for backward compatibility.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
Which statements are true about TCP/IP flow control mechanism? Select three.
A. TCP uses a sliding window to control the flow of data end-to-end.
B. The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum amount of frames the sender will allow to be outstanding without acknowledgment at one time.
C. The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum amount of bytes the sender will allow to be outstanding without acknowledgment at one time.
D. The maximum allowed window size is 1GB
E. The maximum allowed window size is 1024 frames.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 81
LIP not capable of:
A. Reinitialize a loop
B. Passive attachment to loop
C. Indicate loop receiver failure
D. Indicate what port to reset on loop
E. Acquire an AL_PA

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
The function of the SFP consists in which FC protocol layer/layers?
A. FC-1
B. Encode/Decode Layer
C. FC-0
D. Framing and Control Layer
E. FC-4

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
What is the best method to view the PLOGI of a FC host to a FC target on the same MDS switch?
A. Run debug plogi on both the Host interface and the storage interface
B. Run fcanalyzer local
C. Span the host port and the target port to the mgmt interface and use Ethereal to analyze
D. Use an external FC analyzer on the target port and debug tools on the host system
E. Span the host port and the target port to a SD port and use a PAA or FC analyzer

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
Which are possible ways to provide access control on MDS with Iscsi PROXY-INITIATOR MODE? Select two.
A. Zoning with pwwn
B. Specify the virtual target with an allowed IP address of the Iscsi INITIATOR
C. Zoning with an IQN name of the iscsi initiator
D. Zoning with an IP address of the iscsi initiator
E. Configuring an IP access list
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 85
Which are true statements about the Receiver_Transmitter timeout value (R_T_TOV)? Select two.
A. It is timer, by default 100ms, used by the receiver logic to detect Loss-of Synchronization.
B. It is a timer by default 100ms used for detecting a protocol error condition
C. It is a timer equal to 2 XE_D_TOV that is used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery_Qualifier
D. It is a value for the R_T_TOV is negotiated between the N_Port and the Fabric, during the Fabric Login as one of the Common Serveice Parameters exchanged.
E. An action should be taken in less than the R_T_TOV period after the transmission of consecutive Data frames within a single Sequence.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 86
You have a host that you connect to a switch port on a mds switch. The switch port does not come up and
a ‘show interface” indicates that the port is initializing and eventually goes offline. You configure the port as
a TL port and the port comes up.
What type of device is the host?

A. Public device
B. Private device
C. Non Fiber Channel device
D. The host has a DB-9 copper connector
E. The port should not come up after being configured as TL port because TL ports are used to connect to other switches.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
Node is logged into port fc1/1 and fc1/1 is in VSAN 4000.If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?
A. Invalid – VSAN 4000 is not available
B. Node will move to VSAN 1
C. Node will move to VSAN 4094
D. Node will move to VSAN 4095
E. Invalid – VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
The Call Home feature can provide event notification and detail information on what type of automated parsing application?
A. GUPTA to SQL Windows
B. XML-based parsing
C. POPT parsing
D. Name Parsing via E-Mail
E. AMT parsing

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
Ip access-llst acl1 permit ip any any Ip access-llst acl1 deny tcp 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.0 eq port telnet any Ip access-llst acl1 permit tcp
10.0.0.0.0.0.255.255 eq port telnet any Ip access-llst acl1 deny icmp any 10.1.1.1. Ip access-llst acl1 permit imp 10.0.0.0.0.0.255.255.any Ip access-llst acl1 deny udp any any Interface mgmto Ipaccess-group aci1 Ip address 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.0 Given the above IP access list configured on MDS. Which are true? Select two.
A. MDS can not telnet to host 10.0.1.1
B. Host 10.0.0.0 can telnet to MDS 10.1.1.1
C. Host 10.0.0.0 can not ping with ICMP to MDS mgmt0
D. MDS mgmt0 can not access tftp server using UDP
E. MDS mgmt 0 can ping host 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 90
What command would be entered to restart VSAN 100?
A. no vsan 100 start vsan 100 start
B. no vsan 100 resume vsan 100 resume
C. vsan 100 restart non-disruptive
D. vsan 100 restart disruptive
E. vsan 100 suspend no vsan 100 suspend

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 91
Persistent binding is:
A. binding an IP address to a NIC card and target ID number
B. Binding WWN of an initiator to a target port and target ID
C. Binding PWWN of an initiator to a target port Pwwn AND A TARGET id NUMBER
D. Binding target WWPNpWWN to an initiator instance and target ID number
E. Binding target Nwwn TO AN INITIATOR INSTANCE AND TARGET id NUMBER

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
What is used for in-band management of MDS switches?
A. FCIP
B. IP over Ethernet
C. IPFC
D. DNS
E. VRRP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
AAA(TACACS+Radius) protocols can be used to authentication and/or authorize what on MDS?
A. Telnet and Console access
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. Dhchap for fabric security
E. All the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 94
Network Data Management Protocol is used primarily for:
A. Coordinating hierachical storage management B. Mirroring file systems between disk subsystems over an IP network
C. Backing up Network Attached Storage devices
D. Synchronizing databases between multiple vendors
E. A common protocol and API to provision storage for different subsystem vendors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Exhibit:

In the above picture, switch 3 and switch 5 are not IVR capable switches. All the ISLs are 1 GB links. Switches 2,4 and 6 are IVR-capable switches. What is the FSPF costs from Switch 1 to reach Points 1,2, and 3?
A. 501.1502.2502
B. 1001.30025002
C. 501.1503.2505
D. 1000.3000.5000
E. 500.1500.2500

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
During an E-port initialization, what internal link service is used to exchange Link Parameters and the operating environment of the two interconnecting ports as well as the capabilities of the switches connected by them?
A. EFP
B. FLOGI
C. PLOGI
D. ELP
E. SW_RSCN

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
What load balancing option should best utilize all available ISLs on port Channel?
A. Flow Based
B. Source FCID based
C. Frame based
D. Source/Destination FCID Exchange based
E. Source and Destination FCID based
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
When using IVR traversing a FCIP link, what is not required?
A. Transit VSAN over FCIP link
B. Two or more VSANs in configuration
C. IVZ active for host to access storage
D. Border switch will be member of at least two VSANs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
What does MDS FC-SP functionality mode “auto-active” represent?
A. Port will initiate FC-SP authentication after ESC.
B. Port will actively listen, but will not initiate authentication
C. Port will successfully complete FC-SP authentication only if remote end is in passive mode
D. Port will initiate FC-SP authentication with TACACS server as default
E. Port will use default of no authentication.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 100
A correct network topology in Fiber Channel that describes a point to point is:
A. A host connected to a storage array
B. A host connected directly to a Fiber Channel hub
C. A host connected to a host
D. A Fiber Channel Hub connected to a Fiber Channel Switch.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 101
When transporting full 2148-byte Fibre Channel frames over long distances, which are true? (Choose two)
A. One buffer-to-buffer credit is required for every 2 km of distance to support 1 Gbps
B. Two buffer-Io-buffer credits are required for every 2 km of distance to support 1 Gbps
C. One buffer-to-buffer credit is required for every 1 km of distance to support 2 Gbps
D. Two buffer-Io-buffer credits are required for every 1 km of distance to support 2 Gbps
E. Three buffer-to-buffer credits are required for every 1 km of distance to support 2 Gbps
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 102
Which are required for a correctly configured iSCSI initiator to log in to a MDS IPS Module?
A. iSCSI License
B. No shut on iSCSI interface
C. iSCSl enabled
D. IP address on GigE interface and no shut
E. IP address on iSCSI interface
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 103
What technique is used in Fibre Channel to provide reliable clocking?
A. B8ZS
B. Running Disparity C. Encoding
D. Ordered Sets
E. Frame Delimiters

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
What is the correct FCID for the CUP device, given a fabric domain ID of 20 and all other options set to default?
A. 0x20FE00
B. 0x20FEFE
C. 0x200000
D. 0x14FFFF
E. 0x14FE00

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 105
What statement is true about the zone configuration, below? zone name test vsan 1 member pwwn11:11:11:11:11:11:11:11 lun 0002 member symbolic_nodename iqnnameofiscsihost member ip_address 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0
A. Invalid configuration due to unavailable zone options
B. Invalid configuration due to mismatched zone options
C. SAN extension license required after grace period
D. Enterprise license required after grace period
E. iSCSI license required after grace period

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Which are guaranteed to be unique on a given MDS switch about a VSAN?
A. Domain ID
B. Port membership
C. VSAN name
D. Allocated FCIDs
E. Active Zoneset
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 107
What is a valid SCSI opcode for a “Write” operation on direct access devices?
A. 0x08
B. 0x0A
C. 0x25
D. 0x00
E. 0x12

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
One of the primary differences between backings up to tape vs. disk is that tape is what type of access device?
A. Differential
B. Cumulative
C. Random
D. Sequential
E. Incremental

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. McData 3900
B. Inrange FC/9000
C. Brocade 12000 core PID mode 1
D. Qlogic Sanbox
E. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 110
What control traffic is NOT prohibited from crossing Inter-VSAN boundaries?
A. Fabric Configuration Service (FCS) traffic
B. RSCN and SW-RSCN for devices within the affected IVR zone(s)/active zoneset
C. Build Fabric (BF) and Reconfigure Fabric (RCF) frames
D. Full zoneset distribution traffic
E. ELS frames involved in Principal Switch Selection

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
What is the best option if a customer wants load balancing of data traffic between two MDS switches across two FCIP links?
A. Configure each FCIP profile using separate TCP ports
B. Configure each FCIP interface for B-port
C. Combine two Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single Ether-channel with one FCIP interface
D. Combine two FCIP interfaces into a single FC Port-channel; one FCIP interface per Gigabit Ethernet
E. Configure SJO and OJO load balancing across FCIP interface

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
The main differences between Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) and Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) are:
A. The spacing between the wavelengths being multiplexed
B. The number of channels
C. The mode of fiber used for transport
D. Cost
E. Ability to multiplex various services onto different wavelengths
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 113
You are connecting 2 existing Fabrics Fabric 1 has Domains 97,100 Fabric 2 has Domains l00 and 101 When an ISL is connected between the 2 Fabrics, the new Domain IDs for the newly merged Fabric are 97, 100, 101,102. What SW_ILS command is generated to allow for the switches to accept a new domain ID?
A. BF
B. RCF
C. ELP
D. EFP
E. ESC.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
Why might an RCF be disruptive?
A. A change in principle switch is always disruptive
B. Domain IDs are re-assigned possibly resulting in new FCIDs being assigned
C. An RCF is not disruptive; a BF is disruptive and results in at least 1 change in Domain ID
D. Fabric Zoning must be applied whenever an RCF occurs
E. Some older style HBAs are not able to tolerate an RCF, and will logout of the fabric

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
What selection below lists the architectural levels of the Fibre Channel protocol in order from the lowest level to highest level?
A. Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Common Services, Upper Layer Protocol
B. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Device Control, Network, Transport, Upper Layer Protocol
C. Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Transport, Presentation
D. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Upper Layer Protocol
E. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Fibre Channel Protocol

Correct Answer: D

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