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QUESTION 100
What statement is true with regard to VSANs and pWWWN zones?
A. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic
B. Routing, naming, and zoning protocols are not available on a per VSAN basis
C. Zones enforce membership only at the source and destination ports
D. Zones enforce membership at each E port, source port, and destination port
E. None of these statements are true

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
What is the User-specified VSAN IDs range?
A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
Click the Exhibit button. What is the maximum rate at which a host with a 2Gb/s HBA can write to a disk with a 2Gb/s fibre channel adapter if it must traverse a three port, 1Gb/s per link portchannel if srcID/dstID load balancing is configured?

A. 1Gb/s
B. 2Gb/s
C. 3Gb/s
D. 3.2Gb/s
E. 4Gb/s

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 103
What zoning option is valid in interop mode 2 and 3 with a mixed vendor fabric?
A. domain / port
B. nWWN
C. fcid
D. lun zoning
E. sWWN

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
What Switch Fabric Internal Link services (SW_ILS) command indicates if the FCIP connection is a E-Port or a B-Port?
A. ESC
B. EFP
C. ELP
D. LSU
E. EPP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
The MDS FICON portaddress “prohibit” subcommand:
A. Does not prohibit symmetrically; if you prohibit Port 0 from talking to Port 15. You must also explicitly prohibit Port 15 from talking to Port 0
B. Causes the port to start transmitting the OLS primitive sequence
C. Is VSAN-specific
D. Can be applied to the CUP
E. Cannot be applied to a FCIP interface
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 106
What is the general timer for missing events within a sequence?
A. Connection Request Time-out
B. Error Detect Time-out
C. Resource Allocation Time-out
D. Receiver-Transmitter Time-out
E. Missing Events Time-out
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
In iSCSI proxy mode, host iSCSI initiators can be differentiated by:
A. Static PWWN assigned by MDS
B. Static PWWN assigned by administrator
C. IQN name of the iSCSI initiator
D. IP address of the iSCSI initiator
E.
F. 164 address of the iSCSI initiator

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 108
What statement is NOT correct for FCIP compression?
A. FCIP compression uses LZS compression algorithm.
B. FCIP compression is dependent on the type of data compressed.
C. By default FCIP compression is disabled.
D. High-throughput and high-comp-ratio mode may be configured simultaneously.
E. FCIP compression has to be configured under FCIP interface.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
What settings would be required on a MDS9000 switch for proper use of a PAA?
A. PAA requires a TE port to connect and must be in its own VSAN.
B. PAA requires an SD port and must be it its own VSAN.
C. PAA requires an ethernet connection to the MDS supervisor.
D. PAA requires an SD port connection.
E. PAA requires ST and SD ports.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
You have a storage array connected to interface fc1/5 that has LUN masking enabled. You want to be able to see all the LUNs configured behind this port using the MDS “discover scsi-target local os linux lun” command. What command will give you the PWWN you need to use to configure the storage array so that the “show scsi-target lun” command will display the LUNs?
A. show wwn switch
B. show interface fc1/5
C. show scsi-target internal driver
D. sho flogi database interface fc1/5
E. show scsi-target pwwn
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 111
What statement is NOT correct for Inter Vsan Routing?
A. When using the IVR feature, all border switches in a given fabric must be Cisco MDS switches.
B. Non-MDS switches may be present in the transit VSAN(s) if the interop mode 1 option is enabled.
C. IVR is not supported in any interop modes.
D. Inter-VSAN control traffic that is allowed includes Switch-to-Switch FSPF routing information.
E. On Cisco MDS 9000 switches you can configure up to 200 IVZs and 2000 IVZ members.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A. The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
B. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
C. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
D. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
E. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
What statement regarding LUN zoning is accurate?
A. LUN zoning is a standards based feature that can be used to connect to another switch while in interop mode.
B. The MDS LUN zoning feature cannot be used when the LUN masking feature is used on a storage subsystem.
C. When LUN 0 is not included within a zone, control traffic to LUN 0 (for example, REPORT_LUNS, INQUIRY) is still supported.
D. When LUN 0 is not included within a zone, data traffic to LUN 0 (for example, READ, WRITE) is still supported.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
A vty terminal type can be changed to vt100 by what method or command?
A. From EXEC level enter “terminal terminal-type vt100
B. From configuration mode enter “terminal vty 0-4 type vt100”
C. From configuration mode enter “line 0-4 type vt100”
D. From EXEC level enter “line mode terminal-type vt100”
E. None – the vty terminal type cannot be changed.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 115
On the 9120 an additional ISL is required and ports 1-4 and 6 are already occupied. What additional port can be used?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. None – the 9120 can only use ports 1-4 for ISLs.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 116
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only. User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
B. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
C. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
D. Show, debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
E. Show, debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
Read only zones on MDS switches are implemented using:
A. SCSI I/O operation type
B. LUN masking
C. LUN mapping
D. LUN binding
E. LUN trespass

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
What is true about MDS FCIP Profiles?
A. The Profile IDs must match the FCIP interface ID.
B. Only one FCIP Interface per profile.
C. FCIP profile contains the assigned IP address to which it is bound.
D. FCIP profile is not required if only one FCIP interface is used.
E. FCIP Profile is assigned to a GiGE interface.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
What selection below lists the architectural levels of the Fibre Channel protocol in order from the lowest level to highest level?
A. Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Common Services, Upper Layer Protocol
B. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Device Control, Network, Transport, Upper Layer Protocol
C. Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Transport, Presentation
D. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Upper Layer Protocol
E. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Fibre Channel Protocol

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
What standard association is working in the definition of the iSCSI and Fibre Channel protocols respectively?
A. SNIA, IETF
B. FCIA, IETF
C. IETF, ANSI
D. FCIA, SNIA
E. SNIA, T11
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 121
Which steps are required to downgrade Fabric Manager Server to an earlier or previous release?
A. In FM use the “Revert” tab under “Server Admin” to initiate downgrade to previous release
B. Delete the “.cisco_mds9000” and restore earlier version from automatically created “mds_backup” directory
C. Fabric Manager Server cannot be downgraded to an earlier release
D. Close all instances of FM/DM, run the “Uninstall” program, then re-install the previous release
E. Downgrade the MDS switch to the correct version of code; when Fabric Manger is opened it will automatically downgrade to the earlier version located on the MDS

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Brocade 12000 core PID mode 1
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Inrange FC/9000
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
Which are functions of the Domain Identifier Assigned (DIA) ILS?
A. It indicates that a Principal Switch has been selected, and that the upstream neighbor Switch has been assigned a Domain Identifier.
B. It indicates that the receiving Switch can proceed requesting a Domain Identifier.
C. It indicates that the principal switch selection and address assignment phase is completed and the fabric is operational.
D. It indicates that the principal switch selection is started, but a principal switch has not been identified yet.
E. It indicates that a Request Domain Identifier ILS has been received by principal switch.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 124
To ensure FCID persistency is persistent , what needs to be configured?
A. Static VSAN ID
B. Static port ID
C. Static FC_ID
D. Static port map
E. Static Domain ID
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 125
With FC-SP, when an “Initiator” sends a “AUTH Negotiate” the “Responder” replies with?
A. DHCHAP Success
B. DHCHAP Negotiate
C. AUTH Negotiate
D. DHCHAP Challenge
E. AUTH Access Request
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
Which are true statements about the Receiver_Transmitter timeout value (R_T_TOV)?
A. It is a timer, by default 100ms, used by the receiver logic to detect Loss-of-Synchronization.
B. It is a timer, by default 100ms, used for detecting a protocol error condition.
C. It is a timer equal to 2 X E_D_TOV that is used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery_Qualifier.
D. It is a value for the R_T_TOV is negotiated between the N_Port and the Fabric, during the Fabric Login as one of the Common Service Parameters exchanged.
E. It is used to time events occurring on a single link.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 127
What is NOT a capability of RBAC in the MDS?
A. Define roles with specific allowed commands to be executed by users within these roles
B. Allowed to synchronize to a RADIUS server for user access and authentication
C. To define roles on a per VSAN basis
D. Have three define roles and operations access created (Security Administrator, SAN Administrator and SAN Operator)
E. Create rules for commands on a physical port level

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 128
Which conditions must exist for a FICON-enabled VSAN with a CUP device on an MDS 9509 switch, assuming that fibre channel zones are not used to control access to FICON-attached devices?
A. Fabric binding
B. Default zone permit
C. In-order delivery of frames
D. CUP resides in a zone in the active zoneset.
E. Source_ID/Destination_ID/Exchange_ID load balancing

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 129
What are the 3 types of Ordered Sets defined in Fibre Channel?
A. Offline sequence, online sequence, and link reset
B. Start of frame, end of frame, and idle
C. Frame delimiters, primitive signals, and primitive sequences
D. K28.5, D16.0, and D31.2
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 130
A customer has an existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding an MDS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required? (Topology: McData 6400 – (ISL)

Brocade12000 – (ISL) — MDS)

A.
Open Fabric Mode

B.
Native

C.
Interop 1

D.
Interop 2

E.
Interop 3
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 131
Which are effects of a Build Fabric (BF) ILS?
A. The BF causes a disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
B. The BF causes a non-disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
C. The BF causes a new principal switch selection to happen.
D. The BF causes the change of all the addresses assigned in the fabric while holding data traffic, to avoid traffic loss.
E. The BF helps to resolve overlapping domain identifiers.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 132
FCanalyzer is recommended for use with which types of captures?
A. FC frames from initiator to target
B. FC frames from initiator to FC switch
C. Class F frames from FC switch to FC switch
D. Used with SPAN function to capture FC Frames
E. Can be used to send captured frames remotely out the management 10/100 interface for ethereal.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 133
When using IVR traversing a FCIP link, what is not required?
A. Transit VSAN over FCIP link
B. Two or more VSANs in configuration
C. InterVSAN zoneset active for host to access storage
D. Border switch will be member of at least two VSANs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
What type of ordered set is sent to indicate a condition or state exists in Fibre Channel protocol?
A. Arbitrate Signals
B. K28.5
C. Primitive Signals
D. Primitive Sequence
E. Fill words

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
When adding a iSCSI initiator, what is the minimum that must be configured when using iSCSI proxy initiator mode?
A. Zone changes must be done to add new iSCSI initiator’s pWWN.
B. A new VSAN must be created to add iSCSI initiator.
C. The iSCSI initiator must be added with the ip address of the new iSCSI initiator.
D. The iSCSI virtual target must be created to permit access for the new iSCSI initiator.
E. LUN masking on the storage array must be changed to allow the new iSCSI initiator pWWN to access LUN.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 136
A switch boot failure can be caused by a corrupted image or corrupted bootflash file system. In the event of a corrupted bootflash filesystem which steps could be used to access BIOS so the system could be booted via TFTP?
A. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl ]” or ESC to enter BIOS setup.
B. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl X” to enter BIOS setup
C. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl C” to enter BIOS setup
D. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl C” to access switch(boot)# prompt
E. Supervisor cannot recover from corrupted bootflash. The card must be replaced.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 137
What is FALSE about traffic shaping implemented by the MDS 9000 FCIP TCP stack?
A. It uses variable rate, per-flow shaping when sending data.
B. Traffic shaping is particularly useful in conjunction with compression because it paces the flow of compressed data on the wire reacting to different per-packet compression rates.
C. If the FCIP path has a Gigabit or more of dedicated bandwidth available, then shaping is not required.
D. Traffic shaping is always required, regardless of the bandwidth available on the FCIP path.
E. The shaper works by sending packets at a rate that is consumable by the downstream network, based on the configured minimum and maximum bandwidth parameters.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Initializing
B. Up
C. Suspended
D. Active
E. Down

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 139
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FB
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FD
E. FF.FF.FE
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 140
A reason for persistent binding to be enabled on an HBA is to provide what benefit?
A. To prevent other hosts from accessing a specific target
B. To configure a user specified PWWN to the HBA
C. To assign the same SCSI target ID to a storage device’s PWWN
D. To allocate the same FCID to a fibre channel device
E. To allocate the same domain ID to a switch in a VSAN

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
Hosts and storage are connected to 2 MDS units interconnected by ISLs in the following manner: FCID Initiator/Target MDS VSAN Zone 0x01000a Initiator 1 A 0x01000b Target 1 B 0x01000c Initiator 2 A 0x02000a Target 2 1 A 0x02000b Initiator 2 1 B 0x02000c Target 1 2 A All default zones are set to deny and IVR is not enabled. Trunking is disabled on all of the ISLs, which reside in VSAN 1. How many pairs of source-destination flows are possible over the ISLs in this configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 142
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology?
A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hop (ie: traversing 2 switches) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be dedicated to FICON traffic .
D. Two-byte link addressing is mandatory.
E. Persistent FCIDs must be enabled.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 143
What method is used to assign a pWWN to a dynamically assigned iSCSI initiator in a MDS?
A. Assigned by system
B. Assigned by user in the configuration of the iSCSI Target
C. Assigned by iSCSI host
D. Created with iSCSI host name, iSCSI driver and Connection ID
E. Assigned by Fibre Channel attached Storage System
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 144
A “system initialization” is used to perform what function on the MDS switch?
A. Recover lost “admin” password
B. Restart supervisor module after maintenance testing.
C. Format the bootflash and erases configuration files
D. Prepare standby supervisor module for system upgrade.
E. Compress existing files and restart the bootflash file system

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 145
FICON-enabled hosts send a Query Security Attribute (QSA) extended link service command to the well known Fibre Channel Service address of:
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FD
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FE
E. FF.FF.F7

Correct Answer: B

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