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What is the default action of authentication when AAA is enabled but authentication is not set?
A. Allow a user to access all resources after login.
B. Disallow a user from access to all resources after login.
C. Record all access of resources and who long the user accessed each resources.
D. Not to record any access of resources the users accessed after login.
E. Allow any user to login without checking the authentication database.
F. Disallow any user from logging in with or without a valid username and password.

Correct Answer: F
The NAT/PAT translation and access-list configurations that are created by the CiscoEasy VPN Remote feature are not written to either the startup-configuration or running-configuration files. Which two commands can you use to display these configurations? (Choose two.)
A. Show access-lists
B. Show IP NAT Statistics
C. Show IP NAT Translations
D. Show access-lists configuration

Correct Answer: AB
Which two commands could you use to view a new entry to the modem capability database on a fixed chassis 8-port asynchronous access server? (Choose two.)
A. modem entry
B. show modemcap
C. show modem entry www.certifyme .com
D. show running-config
E. show entry modemcap

Correct Answer: BD
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following guidelines is not necessary when configuring dynamic VLAN membership?
A. configure VMPS server
B. turn off trunking on the port
C. turn off 802.1x port security
D. configure the spanning-tree PortFast feature

Correct Answer: D
Which statement best describes V3PN?
A. enables triple AES encryption
B. allows customers to divide a router into multiple independent address spaces and routing tables using Multi-VRF functionality
C. enables dynamic mesh tunnels between sites
D. relies on NHRP
E. enables concurrent IPSec, QoS, and IP telephony www.certifyme .com
Correct Answer: E
Which statement best describes 802.3af?
A. provides QoS tagging for voice packets
B. enables call accounting and billing
C. provides inline power to IP phones
D. enables separate broadcast domains (voice VLANs) for IP phones
E. enables VLAN tagging
Correct Answer: C
Which command must be used in order for PPP authentication to work with a dialer profile?
A. dialer string
B. dialer remote-name
C. dialer pool-member
D. dialer map
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 131
What is a primary difference between PPPoA and either PPPoE or RFC 1483 Bridge encapsulation methods?
www.certifyme .com

A. PPPoA requires host-based client software to provide connectivity and authentication.
B. PPPoA does not support session authentication with the aggregation router.
C. PPPoA is routed end-to-end from the user’s PC (or local router) over ATM to the aggregation router.
D. PPPoA provides simple bridged connections for an unlimited amount of hosts.

Correct Answer: C
Which two of the following interfaces support both Cisco in-line power and 802.3af? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: CE
Which Cisco router is the highest performing 1 RU high router in the industry?
A. 1760
B. 2621 www.certifyme .com

C. 3620
D. 7400
Correct Answer: D
Drag Drop question A.

Correct Answer:
Which three benefits do both dial-up and broadband solutions provide? (Choose three.)
A. flexibility
B. affordable cost
C. easy setup and administration
D. easy access from retail shopping areas www.certifyme .com

Correct Answer: ABC
The Unity Protocol supports only ISAKMP policies that use _____ IKE negotiation, so the IPSec server being used with the Cisco EZ VPN Remote must be configured for this group.
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 7

Correct Answer: B
You have used CRWS to set up an auto EZ VPN connection using Client mode with PAT. Which statement is true about the connection?
A. The connection uses the IP address of the outside interface to base the PAT address on and uses all other physical interface configurations.
B. The connection ignores the physical outside address and uses addresses from the server for the both the inside and the outside addresses.
C. The connection uses the IP address of the outside interface to base the PAT address on and uses server-supplied addresses for the inside interface and workstations.
D. The connection ignores the outside IP address and uses one supplied by the server, while the inside addresses are used from the physical DHCP configuration of the client router.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 138
Which three protocols can be used by the NAC solution to implement its functions? (Choose three.)
B. 802.1x

F. WEP www.certifyme .com
Correct Answer: BDE
Which two statements are true about VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Messages sent over VPNs require a 56-bit encryption key.
B. VPNs use a certification authority (CA) to digitally sign each transmitted message.
C. VPNs use public and private-key technology to establish a secure tunnel for each client connection.
D. Both clients needing a secure connection and network devices providing the service must be VPN enabled.

Correct Answer: CD
Instead of purchasing dedicated router ports, a company wants to reduce costs by allowing any one of the available physical BRI interfaces on a central site router to dial out to remote branch offices.Which two commands provide this capability? (Choose two.)
A. dialer-group
B. multilink ppp
C. interface dialer
D. dialer hunt-group
E. dialer rotary-group

Correct Answer: CE
Which Cisco IOS command displays active Layer 3 sessions on an ISDN PRI connection, showing the call-type and B channel used?
A. debug dialer
B. show isdn status
C. show dialer-group
D. show dialer interface
Correct Answer: B
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How can Cisco NetFlow be used to aid in the operation and troubleshooting of QoS issues?
A. NetFlow can report on the number of traffic matches for each class map in a configured QoS policy configuration.
B. NetFlow records can be used to understand traffic profiles per class of service for data, voice, and video traffic.
C. NetFlow can discover the protocols in use and automatically adjust QoS traffic classes to meet policy-map requirements.
D. NetFlow can be configured to identify voice and video traffic flows and place them into a low-latency queue for expedited processing.

Correct Answer: B
When BGP is used as the PE-CE routing protocol, which of these statements is correct?
A. On PE routers, the CE EBGP neighbors are configured in the VRF context.
B. On the CE router, PE neighbors must be configured in the VRF context on the CE router.
C. On PE routers, the CE IBGP neighbors are configured in the global BGP configuration.
D. When using BGP as the PE-CE routing protocol, only public AS numbers can be used when configuring the BGP neighbor relationships.
E. A separate BGP process must be used on the PE routers for CE routers so that they do not use the same BGP routing process as that used for the PE router’s other provider neighbors.

Correct Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit. Analyze the two traceroutes that are displayed. Which of these statements is correct in describing what most likely caused the traceroute differences?

A. Do not fragment has been configured on PE11.
B. MPLS has been disabled on routers P11 and P12.
C. An access list has been created on P11 to block traceroutes from PE11.
D. The no mpls ip propgate-ttl local command has been configured on PE11.
E. ICMP has been disabled on the intermediary routers between PE11 and PE12.

Correct Answer: D
You have just reinstalled a VIP 6-80 in a Cisco 7500 Series router. What must you do to bring up the port adapter interfaces?
A. Any interfaces not previously configured must be manually configured and brought online.
B. All interfaces must be manually brought online, even those previously configured.
C. The previous VIP configuration must be reloaded to bring interfaces online.
D. All interfaces are online by default once the VIP is up and running normally.

Correct Answer: A
When you enter the interface command auto qos voip cisco-phone on a port at the edge of a network, how does the Cisco Catalyst switch detect if a Cisco IP Phone is connected to the port?
A. by snooping the CoS marking on the incoming frames
B. by using RTP hello messages between the switch port and the Cisco IP Phone
C. by using CDP
D. by using DHCP snooping
E. by snooping the incoming 802.1Q VLAN tag

Correct Answer: C
In a high-availability network, which command, when placed on ports that have connected end stations, will allow you to prevent delays in service for end stations by placing a port in blocking mode?
A. enable backbone fast
B. enable uplink fast
C. disable portfast
D. enable portfast
E. disable uplink fast

Correct Answer: D
Referring to the partial Cisco Catalyst switch configuration shown, which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A router connected to the fastethernet 1/4 interface will be able to communicate with hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1, 1/2, and 1/3.
B. A router connected to the fastethernet 1/4 interface will not be able to communicate with the host connected to interface fastethernet 1/3.
C. Hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1 and 1/2 can communicate with each other.
D. Hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1, 1/2, and 1/3 can communicate with each other.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 73
Which one of these class maps was configured to match traffic for CS5?
A. router#show class-map passClass Map match-all real-time (id 2)Match ip dscp 40
B. router#show class-map forwardClass Map match-all forward (id 3)Match ip dscp 18
C. router#show class-map blockClass Map match-all block (id 4)Match ip dscp 43
D. router#show class-map real-timeClass Map match-all block (id 5)Match ip dscp 16

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
What is the purpose of IP Event Dampening?
A. to introduce a nonconfigurable exponential delay mechanism
B. to suppress the effects of excessive interface flapping events on routing protocols and routing tables in the network
C. to allow the network operator to configure a router to automatically dampen and selectively identify a local interface that is failing
D. to configure a subinterface so that it can be applied to the primary interface in order to prevent exponential selective dampening

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch configuration would protect a customer network from possible disruption in the case in which an unauthorized switch is added to the network?

A. Switch0#show running-configuration!hostname Switch0!no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmissionspanning-tree extend system-id!interface FastEthernet0/1switchport protected!
B. Switch0#show running-configuration!hostname Switch0!spanning-tree portfast bpduguard defaultno spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmissionspanning-tree extend system-id!interface FastEthernet0/1spanning-tree guard root!
C. Switch0#show running-configuration!hostname Switch0!no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmissionspanning-tree extend system-id!interface FastEthernet0/1switchport mode access!
D. Switch0#show running-configuration!hostname Switch0!no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmissionspanning-tree extend system-id!interface FastEthernet0/1switchport port-security violation restrict!

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
When HSRP is configured on a network, which two of these items are provided, which are shared between the routers that run HSRP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP-based hello packets
B. the impact of flapping links if timers are too low
C. a shared single interface
D. the ability to track serial interfaces
E. UDP-based hello packets

Correct Answer: BD
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these events will be the result of issuing the above command? (Choose two.)
A. A 64-bit IPv4 prefix will be created.
B. The route distinguisher will be used to indicate VPN membership.
C. Extended BGP communities will be used to encode route distinguishers.
D. A 96-bit VPNv4 prefix will be created and propagated across the IP network.
E. The route distinguisher is 64 bits and will be prepended to an existing IPv4 route to make it globally unique.

Correct Answer: DE
Refer to the exhibit. For the given configuration, on packets leaving the router on interface FastEthernet0/0 that matches the high traffic class, what will the MPLS experimental bit be set to?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Correct Answer: D

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Your client has a pair of single-processor Cisco 7500 routers connecting its enterprise to an ISP. It has deployed HSRP between these routers, but it also needs to provide high availability on each router to support its internal and external customers. What would you recommend to your client to resolve this issue?
A. Deploy SSO on the current routers.
B. Install redundant route processors in each of the routers and deploy NSF/SSO.
C. Install redundant route processors in each router and deploy RPR+.
D. Configure a virtual third router as a redundant fallback for operation with NSF/SSO.

Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of campus network design would be concerned with these requirements?
A. Layer 2 core
B. server farm
C. enterprise campus
D. Layer 3 backbone

Correct Answer: C
To improve performance on the ISR platforms when supporting concurrent integrated services, the network modules, HWICs, AIMs, and DSPs connect directly into which hardware component?
A. custom ASIC
B. SCSI bus
C. PCI bus
D. crossbar bus
Correct Answer: A
Acme Jet Sleds wants to enable a percentage of its workforce, about 500 people, to work from home. It wants employees to have the same access from home as they do on the corporate network, including the ability to have their Cisco 7960 IP Phones and to participate in videoconferences in their home offices. Which two of these products should be deployed to enable this solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco VPN client
B. Cisco 830 Series routers
C. Catalyst 500 switches
D. Cisco 3000 Series concentrators
E. Cisco uBR7100 Series broadband routers

Correct Answer: BD
Your customer is deploying a server cluster using Cisco InfiniBand Server Switches. The customer wishes to connect the server cluster to its existing Ethernet campus. Which product should be used?
A. Catalyst 6500
B. SFS 3000
C. SFS 7000
D. ASA 5500

Correct Answer: B
Drag Drop question


Correct Answer:
What are three important characteristics of the Cisco Catalyst C3750G-48PS switch? (Choose three.)
A. provides a maximum forwarding bandwidth of 32 Gbps
B. supports class 2, 802.3af PoE up to a maximum of 24 ports C. provides GBIC support for a single 10 Gigabit Ethernet interface
D. contains 48 Ethernet 10/100/1000 ports and 4 dual-purpose slots
E. can group up to nine switches into a single stack using Cisco StackWise

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. To which type of network does this design principle most likely apply?

A. small
B. medium
C. large
D. service provider

Correct Answer: C
What three network applications are enabled via Cisco NetFlow? (Choose three.)
A. application profiling
B. user profiling
C. security analysis
D. quality of service
E. topology mapping
F. network modeling

Correct Answer: ABC
Drag Drop question A.


Correct Answer:
Refer to the exhibit. Based on this network diagram and output from a show cdp neighbors Cisco IOS command, on which network device is the command being executed?

B. DSW11
C. ASW11
D. ASW12

Correct Answer: B
Your customer is opening a branch office housing 30 employees. It is beginning to implement IP Phones and plans on deploying a centralized Cisco CallManager cluster. Which two Cisco products should be deployed at the branch office to support IP Phones immediately while allowing migration to the centralized cluster when it is available? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: BC
Which three are benefits of using the Cisco Cluster Management Suite Software to manage multiple switches? (Choose three.)
A. can be accessed through any standard Web browser
B. manages up to 16 geographically dispersed switches simultaneously
C. manages up to 24 geographically dispersed switches simultaneously
D. provides Web-based interface for configuring and managing Catalyst OS functions
E. provides Web-based interface for configuring and managing Cisco IOS functions
Correct Answer: ABE

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You have been asked by a client to help company employees connect with an ISP so that they can gain access to the Internet. The employees will use VPN software on their PCs to access the corporate network through the Internet. No cable or DSL is available so you must use ISDN.The telco does NOT supply NT1s, there will be two PCs connecting and a printer at each location, and each location will have an analog fax machine. Which Cisco 800 series router should you recommend?
A. Cisco 801
B. Cisco 802
C. Cisco 803
D. Cisco 804

Correct Answer: D
How many PVDM slots are available on the Cisco 2800 Series Integrated Services Routers?
A. one to two
B. two to three
C. three to four
D. four to five

Correct Answer: B
Which statement about configuring NAT for TCP load distribution is true?
A. It is enabled by mapping multiple outside addresses to an inside address.
B. It is enabled with the type rotary parameter on the ip nat pool command.
C. It is configured with the overload parameter on the ip nat inside command.
D. It requires an access list that permits an outside address to a group of inside local addresses.

Correct Answer: B
Which two statements best describe DMVPN? (Choose two.)
A. enables AES encryption
B. enables dynamic mesh IPSec/GRE tunnels between spoke sites
C. relies on NHRP
D. uses the Tunnel Endpoint Discovery protocol
E. allows the customer edge (CE) routers to implement Multi-VRF functionality
Correct Answer: BC
Which statement describes a feature of a Switch Port Analyzer (SPAN) session?
A. affects switching traffic on source ports
B. associates a source interface with multiple destination interfaces
C. eliminates multiple copies of packets www.certifyme .com
D. associates multiple source interfaces with a single destination interface
Correct Answer: D
Which configuration command defines a rotary group?
A. dialer pool
B. rotary-group
C. interface rotary
D. interface dialer
E. dialer rotary-group

Correct Answer: D
Which protocol uses UDP to exchange information between the client and server?
Correct Answer: B
What are two characteristics of the HWICs? (Choose two.)
A. supports inline power including 802.3af
B. provides up to 8 Mbps of performance
C. is not backward compatible with the WICs
D. supports OIR (Online Insertion and Removal)
E. can be single or double wide

Correct Answer: AE
What Cisco switch command will map VLANs 10 to 20 to MST instance 1?
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A. Switch(config)#vlan 10-20 instance 1
B. Switch(config-mst)#vlan 10-20 instance 1
C. Switch(config)#instance 1 vlan 10-20
D. Switch(config-mst)#instance 1 vlan 10-20
Correct Answer: D
What are three new features of SDM 2.0? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS Easy VPN Remote with Client Mode Release 2.0
B. QoS policy configuration
C. firewall (CBAC)
D. router and network resource monitoring
E. Role-based Access Control
F. traffic flow analysis

Correct Answer: BDE
EZ VPN is configured in Client mode with auto connection. What is the behavior of the router when the VPN connection is down but the router is still operational and attached to the Internet?
A. The router has no connection since the VPN is down.
B. The router will permit Internet access but continues to attempt to attach to the VPN.
C. The user cannot get out to the Internet because the router continues to attempt to attach to the VPN.
D. The router works normally and the VPN connection is dormant until the user initiates the VPN again.

Correct Answer: C
Which of the following technologies uses a Root Link Query BPDU?
A. BackboneFast
B. PortFast
C. UplinkFast www.certifyme .com
D. STP standard

Correct Answer: A
You have been asked by customer to put in a router in a branch location. The router must have an Ethernet connection to a local LAN switch for the office and two T1s installed. The first T1 is connected to the corporate headquarters and the second T1 delivers access to another downstream branch to save transport costs with the telephone company.What is the lowest cost Cisco router solution that will support this application?
A. Cisco 805
B. Cisco 1710
C. Cisco 1721
D. Cisco 1751

Correct Answer: C
Which two WAN connections provide a single pre-established switched circuit reserved for the private use of the customer? (Choose two.)
A. digital cable
B. T1 leased line
D. asynchronous dial-in
E. 56K dedicated line
Correct Answer: BE
A customer requires a device that can connect 26 users in one building and can connect to their main campus via EIGRP. Which device supports this capability?
A. 4000 with SUP 1
B. 6500 with SUP 1a
C. 2950 with SI software
D. 3550 with EMI software www.certifyme .com
Correct Answer: D
You have been asked to provide a router with thirty 10/100 Ethernet interfaces and room for more for future growth. The router must also provide security in the form of firewalls for each Ethernet interface.Which router should you install?
A. Cisco 7206
B. Cisco 7304
C. Cisco 7513
D. Cisco 7603

Correct Answer: D
You have just been asked by a customer to install a 160 branch Frame Relay network. You cannot put more than 8 Frame Relay connections in one port due to bandwidth requirements. You must use T1 interfaces because the connections span multiple carriers.Which two routers are most appropriately used for this application? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 7200
B. Cisco 7300
C. Cisco 7400
D. Cisco 7500

Correct Answer: AD
The Cisco 7400 uses the same processor as which 7200 engine?
A. NSE 1
B. NSE 3
C. NPE 225
D. NPE 300
E. NPE 400
Correct Answer: A
Which protocol is an open standard for transporting traffic from multiple VLANs between connected Layer 2 devices?
A. 802.11B
B. spanning-tree

C. 802.1Q
F. Q.921
Correct Answer: C
Which two routers can act as an EZ VPN Remote server? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 801
B. Cisco 804
C. Cisco 1710
D. Cisco 2610
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 121
Which IOS configuration command is used to define interesting packets to trigger a DDR call?
A. dialer-list
B. dialer-group
C. dialer in-band
D. dialer rotary-group
Correct Answer: A
What is the default IP address for the CRWS tool as accessed from the inside port of the Cisco SOHO or Cisco 800 series routers?
A. www.certifyme .com
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Which of these commands can you use to show if an operational Catalyst switch port is set for autonegotiation of speed and duplex when running Cisco IOS software?
A. show running-config
B. show interfaces <interface>
C. show port network <interface>
D. show controllers Ethernet-controller <interface>

Correct Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco IOS show command would produce output showing that the FastEthernet 0/1 interface correctly trusts the DSCP values of the endpoint to which it is connected?

A. show mls qos maps
B. show mls qos interface fastethernet0/1
C. show mls qos interface fastethernet0/1 queueing
D. show mls qos interface fastethernet0/1 statistics

Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit. Two switches connected to each other are having serious performance issues on the link. Which command(s) can you issue at switch B to correct this problem?

A. set port duplex 1/1 full
B. no set port duplex 1/1 auto
C. set port speed 1/1 10set port duplex 1/1 full
D. no set port duplex 1/1 autoset port duplex 1/1 full

Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. MPLS has been enabled on router PE11. Which of these statements is correct regarding the output display shown in the exhibit?

A. CEF switching is not needed for MPLS operation.
B. CEF switching is only needed to forward labeled packets.
C. CEF switching is needed on both ingress and egress interfaces on which MPLS is enabled.
D. Interface-level CEF switching is needed only on egress interfaces that are sending IP packets on which the egress LSR performs the label imposition process.
E. Interface-level CEF switching is needed only on ingress interfaces that are receiving IP packets on which the ingress LSR performs the label imposition process.

Correct Answer: E
What are four advantages to using tunnel brokers in an IPv6 transition environment? (Choose four.)
A. Tunnel broker configuration is automated in Cisco IOS.
B. IPv6 enabling a node looks automatic to the end user.
C. Tunnel brokers make it simpler for nontechnical users to deploy manual tunnels.
D. Tunnel information is sent via IPv4.
E. Tunnel brokers automatically provide configuration parameters to peer routers.

Correct Answer: BCDE
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements is correct regarding the output display shown in the exhibit?

A. Label 19 has been advertised by PE11 and is assigned to prefix
B. For destination, label 19 will be on the incoming packet and PE11 will impose label 21.
C. For destination, label 19 will be on the incoming packet and PE11 will impose label 17.
D. For destination, PE11 has sent information to its neighbor that it will impose label 21 on packets for that destination.

Correct Answer: C
Which three of these items are found within the router advertisement message of IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration? (Choose three.)
A. /64 prefix that can be used on the link and the lifetime of the prefix
B. IPv6 DHCP server address information
C. flags indicating the kind of autoconfiguration that can be done by hosts
D. default router information
E. IPv6 DNS server address information

Correct Answer: ACD
Refer to the exhibit. As shown in the configuration, RIP is being used as the PE-CE routing protocol. Which of these statements is correct?

A. Though preferred, it is not necessary that the RIP parameters be specified in the VRF.
B. Though RIPv2 is specified in the configuration, any version of RIP supports VRFs.
C. On the receiving end, the RIP hop count is copied into a BGP extended community attribute.
D. On the sending end, the RIP hop count is copied into the BGP multi-exit discriminator attribute.
E. Because RIP is being used as the PE-CE routing protocol, the redistribution commands in the configuration are not necessary because redistribution occurs automatically between RIP and BGP.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
Which command retrieves and displays information about each Cisco product in the form of a UDI?
A. show status
B. show hardware
C. show inventory
D. show environment

Correct Answer: C
What are three pieces of information that the Cisco IOS show inventory command displays on a Cisco ISR router? (Choose three.)
A. installed hardware
B. Unique Device Identifier
C. system internal temperature
D. main power supply condition
E. the status of installed hardware
F. installed hardware serial numbers

Correct Answer: ABF
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they intermittently lose data and connections to important servers. After investigation, you discover that the 802.1Q trunk between DSW111 and ASW1 is down. Even though the HSRP group 11 is being serviced by DSW112, you discover that the SVI for VLAN 11 is in the up state on DSW111. Which three Cisco Catalyst IOS commands should you use on DSW111 to find the source of this problem? (Choose three.)

A. show vtp status
B. show interfaces vlan 11
C. show standby vlan 11 brief
D. show spanning-tree vlan 11
E. show interfaces <fast | gig> mod/port trunk

Correct Answer: BDE

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Refer to the exhibit. You are required to upgrade the network of a two-story branch office building to support wireless LAN access throughout the building. What three configuration tasks should be completed on the building switches to maximize the efficiency of the wireless design? (Choose three.)
A. limit broadcast traffic to the access point by enabling VLAN filtering
B. limit multicast traffic to the access point by enabling IGMP snooping
C. enable VTP on the access point to allow VLAN support over the wireless network
D. extend ISL VLAN trunks to the access points for VLAN transport
E. limit the number of VLANs connecting to any access point to a maximum of 16
Correct Answer: ABE
Refer to the exhibit. Your client has merged with another company and has decided to deploy an MPLS VPN to connect that company with its network. Which situation will be the result of implementing an MPLS VPN network?
A. The P and PE routers will share a common IGP.
B. The PE routers will have been configured to run MPLS with the CE routers.
C. The PE routers will install the routes learned from the P routers in the appropriate VRF.
D. The PE routers will not install the backbone IGP routes in the global routing table, but rather in the MPLS backbone VRF.
E. The MPLS backbone, the P routers, will require BGP to be implemented to be able to label-switch packets from PE1 to PE2.

Correct Answer: A
Which design takes maximum advantage of many Layer 3 services, including segmentation, load balancing, and failure recovery?
A. backbone design
B. multilayer campus design
C. building design
D. multicast design

Correct Answer: B
Which of these is a deployment focus of the Cisco Catalyst 4900 Series Switches?
A. network core
B. limited-space server rack
C. high-density wiring closet
D. medium to large branch offices

Correct Answer: B
Which three statements are correct regarding SDMv2.0? (Choose three.)
A. supports smart wizards with built-in intelligence about recommended Cisco IOS configurations for different use scenarios
B. extends its scope to other functions besides security, such as QoS policy configuration
C. provides industry-leading security management tool available for all Cisco router and Catalyst switch platforms
D. supports only HTTPS access, and not HTTP
E. supports role-based access
Correct Answer: ABE
Which three features are supported by the Cisco 7600 Series router? (Choose three.)
A. high performance, with a 720-Gbps capacity per slot
B. IP/MPLS provider edge router
C. Metro Ethernet connectivity
D. all models are NEBS compliant
E. 3-, 6-, 9-, 13-slot chassis
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 60
A client organization is investigating deploying IP communications. It has a traditional hub-and-spoke Frame Relay WAN. It has five remote sites, and the WAN link speed for each location is 512 kbps. The WAN supports typical IP-based applications, but the client will also be rolling out a new ERP application that will be considered mission critical. Which three QoS mechanisms will be useful in redesigning the WAN to support the mission-critical application and IP communications? (Choose three.)
C. 5 to 11 class model

Correct Answer: ADE
Which is a reliable network auditing methodology for discovering applications on the network and their usage characteristics?
A. Interview system administrators regarding the networked applications.
B. Conduct a network usage study over a given period of time.
C. Place a sniffer device on the network to grasp a snapshot of traffic on the network.
D. Conduct a network inventory of servers and applications installed on them.

Correct Answer: B
When using the ISR to implement a NAC solution, the ISR is configured to act as which NAC component?
A. 802.1x supplicant
C. posture agent
E. AAA server

Correct Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer has the network shown. The shortest path has indicated that all traffic must go from R2 – R3 – R4 – R5. Due to congestion at R3, you have recommended MPLS TE; as a result, a TE tunnel has been built from R2 to R4 via R6 – R7. As a result of this tunnel being built, which two conditions exist? (Choose two.)
A. The TE tunnel is bidirectional.
B. In order to implement MPLS TE the IGP must be either ISIS or OSPF.
C. The TE tunnel must be explicitly configured by the network administrator.
D. The Resource Reservation Protocol will be used to setup the TE Label Switch Path.
E. QoS must also be configured to ensure that the required bandwidth will be available for all traffic that uses the tunnel.

Correct Answer: BD
In the Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch, which slots support the Supervisor Engine 720 and Supervisor Engine 32?
A. any slot
B. slots 1 and 2
C. slots 5 and 6
D. slots 7 and 8
E. slots 12 and 13

Correct Answer: D
An administrator wishes to connect two Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switches in a back-to-back configuration. A straight-through Category 5e cable is used. What is the result of making this connection?
A. The connection will fail as the TX and RX pins are not properly aligned.
B. The connection will fail because the connection requires a Category 6 or higher cable.
C. The connection will fail; a back-to-back connection requires a crossover cable.
D. The connection will succeed after manually configuring one of the interfaces as a crossover port.
E. The connection will succeed as the switches will automatically adjust to the cable type.

Correct Answer: E

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Which three statements are true about SPAN? (Choose three.)
A. A destination port can be a source port.
B. A destination port can participate in only one SPAN session at a time.
C. A destination port can be an EtherChannel group.
D. A source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
E. A source port can be an EtherChannel group.
F. A source port can be a destination port.

Correct Answer: BDE
What are two closely related standards specifically designed for data transmission over fiber optic networks? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BC
You are using the CRWS tool to set up EZ VPN. Which type of connection type for the VPN will be created?
www.certifyme .com
A. manual
B. automatic
C. temporary
D. permanent

Correct Answer: B
You need a router that can provide WAN broadband Ethernet connectivity at 10baseT and a LAN connection at 10/100 including 802.1q trunking. It must provide an ADSL connection for backup should the Ethernet WAN interface fail.Which Cisco router is the lowest cost solution?
A. Cisco 1721
B. Cisco 1760
C. Cisco 2611XM
D. Cisco 2621XM

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
Instead of purchasing dedicated router ports, a company wants to reduce costs by allowing any one of the available physical BRI interfaces on a central site router to dial out to remote branch offices.Which two commands provide this capability? (Choose two.)
A. dialer-group
B. multilink ppp
C. interface dialer
D. dialer hunt-group
E. dialer rotary-group

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 75
You need the flexibility to move routers around in a large enterprise. You also need to spend as little as possible as you grow, but you must have more power than a 3700.Which router makes the most economic sense for this type of growth?
www.certifyme .com
A. Cisco 7200
B. Cisco 7300
C. Cisco 7400
D. Cisco 7500

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 76
Drag Drop question


Correct Answer:
IEEE 802.1w RSTP defines which port states?
A. Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Blocking, Disabled
B. Learning, Forwarding, Discarding www.certifyme .com
C. Learning, Active, Block
D. Listening, Forwarding, Active, Blocking

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 78
Which command displays the number of successful and failed calls?
A. show dialer
B. show interface
C. show isdn q931
D. show isdn active call

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 79
Which command will change the specified Frame Relay encapsulation for a specific PVC on an interface?
A. no frame-relay encapsulation ietf
B. no frame-relay encapsulation cisco
C. encapsulation frame-relay ietf
D. frame-relay map ip 100 broadcast ietf

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 80
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. PDU header rewrite
C. NetFlow switching
D. hello packet exchange

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
Which three are reasons that support the use of telecommuting? (Choose three.) www.certifyme .com
A. to increase productivity
B. to reduce the cost of WAN connectivity
C. to retain and recruit talented employees
D. to meet government policies to reduce traffic and increase air quality

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 82
Which three of the following router IOS commands defines “interesting” traffic for only one host using dial on demand routing (DDR)? (Choose three.)
A. RTA(config)#dialer-list 1 protocol ip permit
B. RTA(config)#access-list 2 permit host
C. RTA(config-if)#dialer-group 1
D. RTA(config)#dialer-group 2
E. RTA(config)#dialer-list 1 protocol ip list 2
F. RTA(config-if)#dialer-list 2 protocol ip permit

Correct Answer: BCE
In a DDR environment, how can you hold packets that accumulate while waiting for the line to come up?
A. use the hold-queue command
B. use the no fair-queue command
C. use the dialer hold-queue command
D. use the dialer wait-for-carrier-time command

Correct Answer: C
What does the acronym VIP mean?
A. Versatile Input Processor
B. Virtual Interface Processor
C. Variable Interface Processor www.certifyme .com
D. Versatile Interface Processor

Correct Answer: D
In an EZ VPN Remote client configuration it is often necessary to configure a DHCP pool on the client router. Within this pool, what DHCP pool sub-command is used to pull DNS information for the pool from an outside source when this information will not be known prior to use?
A. Import DNS
B. Import all
C. Extract DNS
D. Extract all
Correct Answer: B
Which two routers can act as an EZ VPN Remote client? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 801
B. Cisco 806
C. Cisco 1710
D. Cisco 2610

Correct Answer: CD
As a contractor, you have been asked by a local telco to assist in the install of CPE for their ADSL network. They are using Cisco DSLAMs in their core network and want to use Cisco CPE for their customers.They inform you that they want you to select from several routers depending on customer needs as they have several levels of service. At your first customer location, the customer informs you that they want to use the router to make a direct, continuous, encrypted connection to their corporate headquarters with no split tunneling.Which Cisco ADSL router should you install?
A. Cisco 831
B. Cisco 837
C. Cisco SOHO 91
D. Cisco SOHO 97 www.certifyme .com

Correct Answer: B
Which implementation of SPAN is designed to support source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports across different switches?
Correct Answer: D
Which three are responsibilities of IKE in the IPsec protocol? (Choose three)
A. negotiating protocol parameters
B. packet encryption
C. exchanging public keys
D. integrity checking using hashes
E. authenticating both sides of a connection
F. implementing tunnel mode

Correct Answer: ACE
Which two protocols does the Cisco 7600 FlexWAN module support? (Choose two.)
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: AD
What is the maximum number of T1/E1 ports that a Cisco Integrated Services Router can support?
A. 6
B. 12

C. 24
D. 48
Correct Answer: C
Which routing protocol helps the 7200 achieve high reliability?

Correct Answer: B
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answer: D
What would the following command set on a router? router(config)#interface group-async 1 router(config) #group-range 1 7
A. assigns asynchronous interfaces 1 through 7 to a single master interface
B. assigns dialer privileges to interfaces async 1 through 7
C. creates virtual asynchronous interfaces 1 through 7 www.certifyme .com
D. creates virtual TTY interfaces 1 through 7
E. trunks asynchronous interfaces to increase modem bandwidth
F. creates a modem pool on interfaces 1 through 7

Correct Answer: A
Cisco DPT rings start and scale to what speed?
A. start at OC6 and scale to OC48
B. start at OC1 and scale to OC768
C. start at OC12 and scale to OC192
D. start at OC12 and scale to OC128

Correct Answer: C
What protocol specified by RFC 1256 will allow an enabled IP host to find a new router when a router becomes unavailable?
Correct Answer: A
What is the purpose of the Autodetect function of the CRWS tool?
A. to detect the encapsulation of the line, whether it is PPPoE, PPPoA, or bridged
B. to detect if the connection is over cable or DSL and to set up the router appropriately
C. to detect if there is a connection, and if there is a connection to acquire the DHCP information from the carrier
D. to detect if there is a connection, and if there is a connection to acquire the DHCP information from the carrier and then import that information to the DHCP server for the inside network
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
The telecommunications sector is now highly competitive. New carriers are _____.
A. using cable to compete with DSL
B. creating applications and reporting capabilities to compete with incumbent carriers
C. using wireless to provide speed and are creating new applications they believe will satisfy user demand
D. creating enhanced services to compete with incumbents, and new carriers are creating infrastructure so they do not need to outsource to existing operators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 99
What are two features of the Cisco EtherSwitch 4- or 9-Port HWIC? (Choose two.)
A. low-density Layer 3 switching
B. 802.1x authentication
C. 802.1Q up to 32 VLANs
D. PoE
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 100
Drag Drop question www.certifyme .com


Correct Answer: QUESTION 101

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