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Exam 070-461
SQL Server
Published: June 11, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
Credit towards certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE

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Up to the immediate present 070-461 exam cram(1-28)

QUESTION 1
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers=CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012.
An application that uses a database begins to run slowly.
Your investigation shows the root cause is a query against a read-only table that has a clustered index.
The query returns the following six columns:
One column in its WHERE clause contained in a non-clustered index Four additional columns One COUNT (*) column based on a grouping of the four additional columns
You need to optimize the statement.
What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. Add a FORCESEEK hint to the query.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. Include a SET STATISTICS PROFILE ON statement before you run the query.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 3
You generate a daily report according to the following query:

You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate] FROM Sales.SalesOrder GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (
SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder s
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE()) AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD (DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID, 90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate FROM Sales.SalesOrder s
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are maintaining a Microsoft SQL Server database that stores order information for an online store website. The database contains a table that is defined by the following Transact-SQL statement:

You need to ensure that purchase order numbers are used only for a single order.
What should you do?
A. Create a new CLUSTERED constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
B. Create a new UNIQUE constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
C. Create a new PRIMARY constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
D. Create a new FOREIGN KEY constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You use a contained database named ContosoDb within a domain. You need to create a user who can log on to the ContosoDb database. You also need to ensure that you can port the database to different database servers within the
domain without additional user account configurations.
Which type of user should you create?
A. SQL user without login
B. SQL user with a custom SID
C. SQL user with login
D. Domain user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee.
Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables.
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you create a Foreign Key constraint that references a different table in the database?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to write a query that displays the following details:
Total sales made by sales people, year, city, and country Sub totals only at the city level and country level A grand total of the sales amount
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY GROUPING SETS ((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart
(yyyy, SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City,
Country)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You plan to write a query for a new business report that will contain several nested queries.
You need to ensure that a nested query can call a table-valued function for each row in the main query.
Which query operator should you use in the nested query?
A. CROSS APPLY
B. INNER JOIN
C. OUTER JOIN
D. PIVOT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Smallmoney
B. Numeric
C. Money
D. Varchar
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application.
The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory (
ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
The new column is expected to be queried heavily, and you need to be able to index the column. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemslnStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse PERSISTED
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse) PERSISTED
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
<CUSTOMERS Name=”Customer A” Country=”Australia”>
<ORDERS OrderID=”1″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01″ Amount=”3400.00″ />
<ORDERS OrderID=”2″ OrderDate=”2002-01-01″ Amount=”4300.00″ />
</CUSTOMERS>
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH
(‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR
XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are a database developer for an application hosted on a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server.
The database contains two tables that have the following definitions:

Global customers place orders from several countries.
You need to view the country from which each customer has placed the most orders.
Which Transact-SQL query do you use?
A. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY COUNT(OrderAmount) DESC) AS Rnk
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
WHERE o.Rnk = 1
B. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM (SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry, RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY COUNT(o.OrderAmount) ASC) AS Rnk
FROM Customer c
INNER JOIN Orders o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
GROUP BY c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry) cs WHERE Rnk = 1
C. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY OrderAmount DESC) AS Rnk
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
WHERE o.Rnk = 1
D. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
COUNT(OrderAmount) DESC) AS OrderAmount
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
ORDER BY OrderAmount DESC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are maintaining a Microsoft SQL Server database. You run the following query:

You need to ensure that the query performs returns the results as quickly as possible.
Which action should you perform?
A. Add a new index to the ID column of the Person table.
B. Add a new index to the EndDate column of the History table.
C. Create a materialized view that is based on joining data from the ActiveEmployee and History tables.
D. Create a computed column that concatenates the GivenName and SurName columns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH
(‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR
XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 16
You are developing a database in SQL Server 2012 to store information about current employee project assignments.
You are creating a view that uses data from the project assignment table.
You need to ensure that the view does not become invalid if the schema of the project assignment table changes.
What should you do?
A. Create the view by using an account in the sysadmin role.
B. Add a DDL trigger to the project assignment table to re-create the view after any schema change.
C. Create the view in a new schema.
D. Add a DDL trigger to the view to block any changes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has two tables named SavingAccounts and LoanAccounts. Both tables have a column named AccountNumber of the nvarchar data type.
You use a third table named Transactions that has columns named TransactionId AccountNumber, Amount, and TransactionDate.
You need to ensure that when multiple records are inserted in the Transactions table, only the records that have a valid AccountNumber in the SavingAccounts or LoanAccounts are inserted.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Transactions
SELECT TransactionID,AccountNumber,Amount,TransactionDate FROM inserted WHERE AccountNumber IN
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts) END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Transactions
SELECT TransactionID,AccountNumber,Amount,TransactionDate FROM inserted WHERE AccountNumber IN
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts) END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
IF EXISTS (
SELECT AccountNumber FROM inserted EXCEPT
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts)) BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRAN
END
END
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgValidateAccountNumber
ON Transactions
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
IF EXISTS (
SELECT AccountNumber FROM inserted EXCEPT
(SELECT AccountNumber FROM LoanAccounts
UNION SELECT AccountNumber FROM SavingAccounts)) BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRAN
END
END
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the Sales schema. You need to manage users who are
prevented from deleting records in the Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the users to the db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
You have a vendor application that uses a scalar function.
You discover that the queries for the application run slower than expected.
You need to gather the runtime information of the scalar function.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Enable the Include Actual Execution Plan option.
B. Enable the Display Estimated Execution Planoption.
C. Create and then enable a profiler trace.
D. Create and then enable an extended events trace.
E. Run the Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Your application contains a stored procedure for each country. Each stored procedure accepts an employee identification number through the @EmpID parameter.
You need to build a single process for each employee that will execute the appropriate stored procedure based on the country of residence.
Which approach should you use?
A. A SELECT statement that includes CASE
B. Cursor
C. BULK INSERT
D. View
E. A user-defined function
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
You have a database named Sales that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to create a query that returns a list of products from Sales.ProductCatalog. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Return rows ordered by descending values in the UnitPrice column.
Use the Rank function to calculate the results based on the UnitPrice column.
Return the ranking of rows in a column that uses the alias PriceRank.
Use two-part names to reference tables.
Display the columns in the order that they are defined in the table. The PriceRank column must appear last.
Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Provide the complete code.

Correct Answer: Explanation

QUESTION 23
You have an XML schema collection named Sales.InvoiceSchema.
You need to declare a variable of the XML type named XML1. The solution must ensure that XML1 is validated by using Sales.InvoiceSchema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Correct Answer: DECLARE @XML1 XML(Sales.InvoiceSchema)

QUESTION 24
You generate a daily report according to the following query:

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
You develop a SQL Server database for a large multinational company.
You must develop a stored procedure to loop through employee information and return data for one employee at a time.
How should you complete the stored procedure? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segment to the correct locations in the answer area. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 26
You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Correct Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer

QUESTION 27
You use Microsoft SQL Server to develop a database application.
You create a stored procedure named usp_calculategrowth. The stored procedure modifies rows and can result in several different exceptions.
You need to ensure that when the stored procedure is executed, the following requirements are met:

Which six Transact-SQL statements should you use? (To answer, move the appropriate SQL statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 28
You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Correct Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answe

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QUESTION: 55
How would you designate a “go to” destination for a flow to continue processing, providing an alternative to the normal, sequential processing of the flow? (Choose One)
A. Use a fork to branch the flow
B. Use a decision to branch the flow

C. Create an activity to branch the flow as needed
D. Set a ticket on the destination shape, and then call the ticket as needed
70-695 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 56
Which shape should be used to call a decision tree to evaluate work object properties? (Choose One)
A. Shape 1
B. Shape 2
C. Shape 3
D. Shape 4
Answer: B
QUESTION: 57
Review the following diagram:
If the WithinLimit shape references a Decision Tree rule, which type of connector is OverLimit? (Choose One)
A. When
B. Status
C. Always
D. Flow Action
70-695 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 58
If a flow is placed in Draft mode, which of the following two statements are true? (Choose Two)
A. Additional shapes cannot be added
B. Rules may be referenced that do not yet exist
C. The flow can be executed
D. The flow rule is not subject to rule resolution
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 59
Which of the following three shapes are available in a screen flow? (Choose Three)
A. Utility
B. Integrator
C. Subprocess
D. Assignment Service
E. Split Join
F. Decision
70-695 pdf Answer: A, C, F
QUESTION: 60
Which shape should be used to call a connector in a flow? (Choose One)
A. Shape 1
B. Shape 2
C. Shape 3
D. Shape 4
Answer: C
QUESTION: 61
What is the result of clicking the Where-am-I? ( ) button on a work item form? (Choose One)
A. The harness rule currently in use is displayed in the Designer Studio
B. The user’s worklist is displayed
C. The flow diagram of the current flow rule is displayed in a separate window with an arrow marking the current assignment
D. The user’s Organization, Division and Unit information from the clipboard is displayed within a separate XML window
70-695 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 62
(True or False) Embedded pages cannot be nested in other embedded pages.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
QUESTION: 63
Which property mode may use a non-numeric subscript? (Choose One)
A. Java Object
B. Single Value
C. Page Group
D. Page List
70-695 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 64
Review the following clipboard page:
If pyWorkPage is considered the primary page of an activity, what is the correct way to identify the property reference to ClaimAmount in the PastClaims page? (Choose One)
A. .PastClaims.ClaimAmount(1)
B. pyWorkPage.PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
C. .PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
D. .ClaimAmount
Answer: C
QUESTION: 65
Review the following screenshot:
In the Miscellaneous Items section, the user can enter several item names. The entered values are stored in the Items property. Which type of property is this? (Choose One)
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Single Value
D. Value List
70-695 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 66
Page List properties typically reference a class derived – directly or indirectly – from which superclass? (Choose One)
A. Data
B.Work
C.Embed
D.Index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 67
Validate rules may be specified in which one of the following rule types to validate the properties displayed on the user interface? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Section
C. Harness
D. Flow
70-695 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 68
By default, where in the database is the data collected by a property you create as part of your data model is stored? (Choose One)
A. The BLOB column
B. A dedicated column
C. A lookup table
D. A declarative index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 69
Which of the following statements is false? (Choose One)
A. Page properties can consist of an ordered list of unique property names
B. Threads contain information about a requestor’s sessions and associated thread(s), the application they are accessing, its context, the operator and their organization
C. The name of a page may not derive from system-created pages with reserved names and purposes

D. pyWorkPage page is a common clipboard page that contains information created during the processing of a work item
70-695 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 70
When creating a data transform, what should you do if the number of rows exceeds 25 rows? (Choose One)
A. In the final row, call an activity to perform the remaining actions
B. Move all of the Set actions rows to the pyDefault data transform rule to reduce the number of rows
C. In the final row, use the Apply Data Transform action to invoke another data transform that defines the additional actions
D. Use the <APPEND> keyword in actions instead of adding rows for the Append action
Answer: C
QUESTION: 71
A data transform in the PurchaseOrder-Work class uses the Set action to set a value for the property BillingState on the Customer page. The value is MA. The Customer page is specified on the Pages & Classes tab of the data transform rule form. Which one of the following describes how to specify the row in the rule form for accomplishing this Set action without any errors or warnings upon saving the rule form? (Choose One)
A. Select Set in the Action column, enter Customer.BillingState in the Target column, and enter MA in the Source column
B. Select Set in the Action column, enter Primary.BillingState in the Target column, and enter MA in the Source column
C. Select Set in the Action column, enter Primary.BillingState in the Target column, and enter “MA” in the Source column
D. Select Set in the Action column, enter Customer.BillingState in the Target column, and enter “MA” in the Source column
70-695 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 72
When creating a work item, which of the following rules can be used to set the initial value of a property? (Choose Two)

A. Property
B. Declare Expressions
C. Data Transform
D. Declare Pages
Answer: B, C

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Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 28
Administrative Closure should occur ___________.
A. At the end of each phase of the project
B. At the end of the whole project
C. At the end of 50% of the project
D. At the end of 100% of the project
70-694 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Administrative Closure should occur at the end of each phase, not only at the end of the overall project
QUESTION 29
In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?
A. During the initiation stage

B. During the planning stage
C. After approval of budget
D. After the project is proven feasible
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions Project manager is
assigned to a project During the initiation stage.
QUESTION 30
Who gives project acceptance?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. Team Lead
70-694 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Customer gives project acceptance. Customer may be person or organization.
QUESTION 31
A requirement document is an input of __________ process?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A requirement document request is an input to Define Sco
QUESTION 32
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?
A. Direct ar|d Indirect
B. Tactical and Strategic
C. Management and Project
D. 0n|y Tactical
70-694 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. When doing this analysis, it should include both
direct and indirect costs so that the final decision is based on comparisons that are equal.
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?
A. Requirements document created in collect requirements process
B. Project files from previous projects
C. Project Charter
D. Al1 of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Define Scope – Inputs Requirements document created in collect requirements process, Project Charter
and Organizational Process Assets (Project files from previous projects, lesson learned)
QUESTION 34
Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a project?
A. RACI mAl,x
B. sow
C. Staffing management plan D)0 CPI
70-694 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The RACI matrix lists responsibilities of all resources. The staffing management plan only lists types of
resources and timing.
QUESTION 35
_________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
A. ISO
B. CAPM
C. pMI
D. iscn
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ISO is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
QUESTION 36
The work breakdown structure is ________.
A. Used to break down the project into manageable pieces
B. Set and does not change throughout the project
C. Needed as part of the project charter
D. [Needed as part of the project scope statement

70-694 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): A deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements which organizes
and defines the total scope of the project. It sub divide the major tasks to minor details.
QUESTION 37
If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule
B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.
QUESTION 38
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have assigned
the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?
A. Pi’ojectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional
70-694 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full authority to
assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project. Strong Matrix: The project
manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff. Project manager has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix: Power reset with Functional Manager. Functional: In this organization
Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager like marketing
engineer, sales engineer.
QUESTION 39
At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?
A. The beginning of the project
B. ^ust before the end of the project
C. QA Phase
D. Execution phase
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk and uncertainty are the highest at the beginning or a project.
QUESTION 40
From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure?
A. The customer
B. The qualify director
C. Project management office
D. Project manager
70-694 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
need to gain this formal acceptance at project closure from the customer and sponsor.

QUESTION 41
Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?
A. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total.
B. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
C. Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.
D. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total. It is more accurate.

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Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
The company has two corporate ofces. Customers will access the websites from datacenters around the
world.

70-534 dumps
You need to architect the global website strategy to meet the business 70-534 exam requirements. Use the drop-down
menus to select the answer choice that answers each queston.
Hot Area:

70-534 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps

QUESTION 6
You need to confgure the deployment of the storage analysis applicaton.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Mobile Service.
B. Confgure the deployment from source control.
C. Add a new deployment slot.
D. Turn on contnuous integraton.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to design the notfcaton service for the customer-facing mobile app.
Which three actons should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actons from the list
of actons to the 70-534 dumps answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 8
You are designing an Azure application that will use a worker role. The worker role will create temporary
files.You need to minimize storage transaction charges.
Where should you create the files?
A. In Azure local storage
B. In Azure Storage page blobs
C. On an Azure Drive
D. In Azure Storage block blobs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
When reading videos from a resource, which is the recommended Android storage location for
video files?
A. /res/anim
B. /res/raw
C. /res/movie
D. /res/values
70-534 pdf 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of these is the correct processing necessary for data update notification at the time of
creating an individual ContentProvider and using it?
A. In the update method of the ContentProvider class, notify by calling the
ContentResolver.setNotificationUri method.
B. In the update method of ContentProvider class, notify by calling the Cursor.notifyChange
QUESTION NO: 11
When reading videos from a resource, which is the recommended Android storage location for
video files?
A. /res/anim
B. /res/raw
C. /res/movie
D. /res/values
70-534 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of these is the correct processing necessary for data update notification at the time of
creating an individual ContentProvider and using it?
A. In the update method of the ContentProvider class, notify by calling the
ContentResolver.setNotificationUri method.
B. In the update method of ContentProvider class, notify by calling the Cursor.notifyChange
A. Option a
B. Option b
C. Option c
D. Option d
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which is the processing that cannot be executed by using the emulator during development?
A. Displaying information of the heap and threads.
B. Emulation of outgoing calls
C. Ending a process
D. Receiving E-mail
70-534 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of these is the correct explanation of the Android license form?
A. It is necessary to register with Android Market and pay a license fee in order to develop a paid
for application on Android.
B. There is no special provision regarding application license operation on Android.
C. If an application is developed using Android, it is not a licensing violation if the source code is
not made public.
D. Since Android uses libraries licensed in various ways such as GPL, BSD, and LGPL,
applications developed under Android are subject to the severest license, GPL.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
For playing an audio file, where does the Android Developer’s Guide recommend placing the file?
A. res/raw
B. res/values
C. data/data
D. system/data
70-534 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of these URI schemes is not supported by Android?
A. android://
B. content://
C. http://
D. market://search?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which function is not provided by the Android Development Tools Plugin?
A. Creating an Android project
B. Creating supporting resource files
C. Executing an Android application
D. Supporting creation of a View
70-534 pdf 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
The following program uses an Intent to open a Web page designated by a Web browser. Which is
the correct code that goes into (1)?
A. android.intent.VIEW
B. android.intent.action.VIEW
C. android.intent.View
D. androidJntent.action.View
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which code acquires a MediaPlayer class instance?
A. MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.music);
B. newMediaPlayer(this, R.raw.music);
C. MediaPlayer.getSource(this, R.raw.music);
D. MediaPlayer.newInstancefthis, R.raw.music),
70-534 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Access management
B. Request Fulfillment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: B
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 21
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
70-534 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the
following items need to be identified?
A. Business Objectives, IT Objectives, Process Metrics
B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
70-534 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Resources and Capabilities
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Utility and Warranty
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 14, 2017
Q&As: 206

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QUESTION 1
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.

D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
070-413 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only
supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical 070-413 dumps requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The
Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications
as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and
flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses
innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management
and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and
management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance
customers.
Reference: Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
QUESTION 3
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The
solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
070-413 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to
contoso.com.
Reference: Delegation of Control Wizard
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the
users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to
contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to
the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the
contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com.
On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
070-413 vce 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION NO: 5
In the SmartBPM methodology, when should project enablement training (role based training)
begin? (Choose one)
A. Project Initiation
B. Elaboration
C. Inception
D. None of the above
070-413 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
The full scope of the Directly Capturing Objectives (DCO) session is defined as running the
Application Profiler during the Inception phase. True or False
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
From a flow rule you can see links to what elements of the flow? (Choose four)
A. Various shapes in the flow
B. Requirements
C. Starting models
D. Flow-wide Local Actions
E. Entire flows
070-413 dumps Answer: A,B,D,E
QUESTION NO: 8
The following action occurs during all phases of the SmartBPM® Methodology: (Choose one)
A. Quality checks
B. Governance
C. Directly Capturing Objectives
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
Use case rules can reference or be referenced by which other rules? (Choose 3)
A. Flows
B. Activities
C. Requirements
D. Validation rules
E. Properties
070-413 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 10
The program roadmap presents the big picture for solution development. This roadmap is divided
into which are divided into which are made up of . (Choose one)
A. Use cases, slivers, projects
B. Projects, use cases, slivers
C. Use cases, projects, slivers
D. Projects, slivers, use cases
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
It is a best practice to create an inventory of existing objectives, requirements, use cases, and
other project artifacts because: (Choose Two)
A. Reusing artifacts saves time and effort
B. These artifacts can be used to enter information into the Application Profiler
C. These artifacts can be used to extract information from the Project Management Framework
D. These artifacts are required to create a new application
070-413 vce Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 12
When these artifacts are combined they result in a checklist that shows the business has received
the expected value from this application: (Choose two)
A. Objectives
B. Requirements
C. Use cases
D. Project scenarios
Answer: A,B

 

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 188

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  1. Design and implement websites (15-20%)
  2. Create and manage virtual machines (20-25%)
  3. Design and implement cloud services (20-25%)
  4. Design and implement a storage strategy (20-25%)
  5. Manage application and network services (15-20%)

70-532 dumps

QUESTION 1
You are deploying the web-based solution in the West Europe region.
You need to copy the repository of existing works that the plagiarism detection service uses. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of time.
What should you do?
A. Copy the files from the source file share to a local hard disk. Ship the hard disk to the West Europe data center by using the Azure Import/Export service.
B. Create an Azure virtual network to connect to the West Europe region. Then use Robocopy to copy the files from the current region to the West Europe region.
C. Provide access to the blobs by using the Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN).
Modify the plagiarism detection service so that the files from the repository are loaded from the CDN.
D. Use the Asynchronous Blob Copy API to copy the blobs from the source storage account to a storage account in the West Europe region.
70-532 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You update the portion of the website that contains biographical information about students. You need to provide data for testing the updates to the website.
Which approach should you use?
A. Use SQL Server data synchronization.
B. Use the Active Geo-Replication feature of Azure SQL Database.
C. Use SQL Replication.
D. Use the Geo-Replication feature of Azure Storage.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You need to configure storage for the solution. What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate XML segments to the correct locations. Each XML segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view 70-532 dumps content.
Select and Place:
70-532 dumps

QUESTION 4
You need to find all existing works about World History that are overdue and are stored in the
repository.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options
in the answer area.

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70-532 dumps

QUESTION: 5
When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
70-532 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP
tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances
to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC’s on ADSP’s system board to
act as one for high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP
appliances are configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 7
What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
70-532 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 8
Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of
following modes would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum
Analysis and capture information about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?

A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C
QUESTION: 9
Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID
makes it easier for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for
disallowing these two practices is that it helps “hide” the network. What is the problem
with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol
analyzer
70-532 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 10
You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user
credentials upon GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP.
What additional step must be taken to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the
RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for
authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce
Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS
Accounts button in Appliance Manager
70-532 dumps  Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access
points receive the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) identifier from the station in the
reassociation frame. What other information must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer : D
QUESTION: 12
Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 14, 2017
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the
following table.

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You plan to create a checkpoint of VM1. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the checkpoint of VM1. What should you do before you create the checkpoint?
A. Decrease the Maximum RAM.
B. Convert Disk1.vhd to a dynamically expanding disk.
C. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
D. Run the Resize-VHD cmdlet.
70-417 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is stopped The checkpoint contains the state of the hard
disks only. For checkpoints created when the virtual machine is running The checkpoint contains the state
of the hard disks and the data in memory. Note: A checkpoint saves the state of each virtual hard disk that
is attached to a virtual machine and all of the hard disk’s contents, including application data files. For
virtual machines on Hyper-V and VMware ESX Server hosts, a checkpoint also saves the hardware
configuration information. By creating checkpoints for a virtual machine, you can restore the virtual
machine to a previous state.
QUESTION 2
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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You install a network monitoring application on VM2. You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2. What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: J
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch ports that are monitored as well as
the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic. And since Port mirroring allows the network traffic of a virtual machine to be monitored by copying the traffic and forwarding it to another virtual machine that is configured for monitoring, you should configure port mirroring on VM2.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs 70-417 dumps Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
70-417 dumps

You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Integration Services settings on virtual machines include services such as operating system
shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heartbeat, and Backup (volume snapshot services). This
snapshot will ensure that the state of VM1 is saved prior to backup.
References:

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following 70-417 pdf table.

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VM3 is used to test applications. You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown,
time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you
should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410 dumps, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings.

QUESTION 5
Which port needs to be opened for Alert Channel communication between Sensor and Manager through a
firewall?
A. 8501
B. 8502
C. 8503
D. 8555
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Setting a threshold to allow an IPS to react when traffic volume exceeds the set limit is an example of what
type of detection method?
A. Signature based
B. Pattern matching
C. Denial of Service
D. Remediation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Performance debugging mode can be enabled on a sensor for a specified time duration by issuing which
of the following CLI commands?
A. sensor perf-debug 100
B. sensor perf-debug on 100
C. sensor perf-debug Interface all 100
D. sensor perf-debug assert 100
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What type of encryption is used for file transfers between the Sensor and the Manager?
A. SSL with RC4
B. SSL with MD5
C. SSL with RC4 and MD5
D. DES
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
When placed in Layer3 mode, a Sensor detects a Layer2 device based on which of the following?
A. MAC address
B. IP address
C. DNS
D. Subnet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the CLI command that enables the output of the MAC/IP address mapping table to the sensor
debug files?

A. arp spoof status
B. arp spoof enable
C. arp dump
D. arp flush
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
DoS detection is implemented in which of the following modes? (Choose two)
A. Learning mode
B. Configuration mode
C. Threshold mode
D. Bidirectional mode
E. Inbound mode
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
Which port needs to be opened for Packet Log Channel communication between Sensor and Manager
through a firewall?
A. 8501
B. 8502
C. 8503
D. 8555
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-767
Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Updated: Aug 18, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION: 1
Four separate operating requirements and four individual storage management methods for
XML document data are listed below. Considering the general characteristics, which
individual management method ([Management Methods]) combines most optimally with
which requirement ([Operating Requirements])?
[Operating Requirements]
1. Retrieve a portion of the XML document according to values in the XML document
2. Identify the XML document by unique values, and retrieve the entire XML document
3. Perform aggregation and statistical calculations of the values in the XML document
4. Continuously check the data types for the values in the XML document, and search
through data using queries on the XML document [Management Methods]
A) XML document file (text file) management via file system
B) Management via RDB (relational database), and program for storing data from an XML
document into the RDB (assume the RDB does not maintain an XML document tree
structure)
C) Management via XMLDB, using XML Schema definitions
D) Management via XMLDB, without using XML Schema definitions
A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
70-767 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 2
Assume that a certain XMLDB requires disk capacity in excess of the size of an XML
document when storing the XML document to accommodate XML node information and
other information (such as management considerations, etc.) The following describes the
capacity needed: When eliminating ignorable whitespace in the XML document 1.5 times
the XML document file size When not eliminating ignorable whitespace in the XML
document 2.0 times the XML document file size At the initial stage, the total size of the
XML document files to be stored is 1GB. At the operating stage, repeated additions and
deletions of XML documents will result in a projected disk requirement of plus or minus
10% compared to the prior year. Assume that the disk size configured at initial stage cannot
be changed for two years. The required disk capacity will be calculated according to these
conditions; however, to provide a safety margin, the decision has been made to set aside the
equivalent of twice the maximum required disk capacity as calculated above. Select the
value representing the required disk capacity when ignorable whitespace is not eliminated
from the XML document. Do not consider any facts or conditions other than those given
above.
A. 3.3GB
B. 3.63GB
C. 4.4GB
D. 4.84GB

Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
Assume that [testmixsd] (referenced in a separate window) has been defined. Without
rewriting this XML Schema Document ([testml-xsd]), create a new, separate XML Schema
Document to partially change the schema definition replacing the phone element with a
cellPhone element. As a result, the following [XML Document] will be valid against the
new schema.

Which of the following correctly descnbes the new XML Schema Document? Assume that
the XMLDB or XML parser correctly processes the XML Schema schema Location
attribute.
[XML Document]
<TestML>
<person> <name>John Smith</name>
<cellPhone>000-1111-2222</cellPhone>
</person>
</TestML>
A. <xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema”>
<xs:import schemaLocation=”testml.xsd” />

<xs:element name=”cellPhone” type=”xs:string” />
</xs:schema>
B. <xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://wvwv.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema”>
<xs:include schemaLocation=”testmLxsd” />
<xs:element name=”cellPhone” substitutionGroup=”phone” type=”xs:string” />
</xs:schema>
C. <xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema”>
<xs:redefine schemaLocation-‘testml.xsd”>
<xs:element name=”cellPhone” base=”phone” type=”xs:string” />
</xs:redefine>
</xs:schema>
D. This type of definition cannot be created using XML Schema
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
See separate window.
Assume you wish to execute a query on [example.xml] (separate window) to obtain a
record element that includes a data element having a value equal to or greater than 100 and
less than 200. Select the correct result of executing the [XQuery] (separate window). The
expected result would be “C;” however, the query may not be processed as expected.
A. <result/>
B. <result>

<record date=”2007-05-15″>
<data condition=”bad”>50</data>
<data condition=”bad”>80</data>
<data condition=”good”>250</data>
</record>
</result>
C. <result>
<recorddate=”2007-05-16″>
<data condition=”bad”>60</data>
<data condition=”good”>90</data>
<datacondition=”good”>150</data>
</record>
</result>
D. <result>
<recorddate=”2007-05-15″>
<data condition=”bad”>50</data>
<data condition=”bad”>80</data>
<datacondition=”good”>250</data>
</record>
<recorddate=”2007-05-16″>
<data condition=”bad”>60</data>
<data condition=”good”>90</data>
<data condition=”good”> 150</data>
</record>
</result>
Answer: D
QUESTION: 5
Assume that you wish to create an XML Schema document against which [XML
Document] (referenced in a separate window) is valid.

Select which of the two answers below are correct as descriptions for (1) in the following
[XML Document]. Assume that the elements with namespace “um:xmlmaster division” or
“urrvxmtmaster:title’ in [XML Document] have been property defined in separate XML
Schemas.

A. <xs:sequence>
<xs:any namespace=”##any” processContents=”lax”/>
<xs:element ref=”tns:person”maxOccurs=”unbounded”/>
</xs:sequence>
B. <xs:sequence>
<xs:any namespace=”##other” minOccurs=”0″ maxOccurs=”unbounded”
processContents=”lax”/>
<xs:element ref=”tns:person” maxOccurs=”unbounded”/>
</xs:sequence>
C. <xs:sequence>
<xs:any namespace-‘urn:xmlmaster: division urn:xmlmaster:title”
processContents=”lax”/>
<xs:element ref=”tns:person” maxOccurs=”unbounded”/>
</xs:sequence>
D. <xs:choice minOccurs=”0″ maxOccurs=”unbounded”>
<xs:any namespace=”urrrxmlmaster:division um:xmlmaster:title”
processContents=”lax”/>
<xs:element ref=”tns:person”/>
</xs:choice>
70-767 pdf Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 6
Assume that for [XML Document] referenced in a separate window, you wish to create an
XML Schema document that defines that the value of the level attribute of the record
element must be unique within the XML document, and further that the level attribute of
the scenario element must reference the value of the level attribute of the record element.
[XML Document]
<TestML>
<record level=”1″ data=”100″ />
<record level=”2″ data=”250″ />
<scenario stage=”A” level=”1″ />
<scenario stage=”B” level=”2″ />
</TestML>
Select which answer correctly belongs in (1) of the [XML Schema] document below.

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
Select the correct result of executing the [XQuery] on [example xml] referenced in a
separate window.

A.
<result>
<record>
<name/>
</record>
<record>
<name/>

</result>
B.
<result>
<example>
<record>
<name/>
</record>
<record>
<name/>
</record>
</example>
</result>
C.
<result>
<record>
<name>John Smith</name>
</record>
<record>
<name>Harold Jones</name>
</record>
</result>
D.
<result>
<example>
<record>
<name>John Smith</name>
</record>
<record>
<name>Harold Jones</name>
</record>
</example>
</result>
70-767 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 8
Select which of the following is not a correct description regarding dynamic context
defined by XQuery 1.0.
A. Dynamic context is information that is available at the time the expression is evaluated
B. The dynamic context consists of all the components of the static context (default
element/type namespace, etc.), and additional components (context item, etc.)
C. The value of context size (one of the dynamic context components) can be obtained
using the “fn:last()” function
D. Query prolog cannot be used to set the value for any of the dynamic context components
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
An [XQuery] was executed to join [eventList.xml] and [sessionUst.xml] (referenced in a
separate window) and obtain the following [Expected Execution Result]. However,
executing this [XQuery] resulted in an error.

Select which of the following is an appropriate example of the resulting Error Message.
A. XPST0008:An expression refers to a variable name that is not defined in the static
context.
B. XPTY0018:The result of the last step in a path expression contains both nodes and
atomic values.
C. XGTY0024:The content sequence in an element constructor contains an attribute node
following a node that is not an attribute node.
D. XGST0054:A variable depends on itself.
70-767 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 10
Assume the use of XML Data like [XML Data] referenced in a separate window. When a
data element is present in XML Data, there are three possibilities for b element as shown in
[XML Data b Element] (separate window). No other possibilities are available. Consider
inserting any XML data into an XMLDB using the methods shown in [Operation 1] or
[Operation 2].

Select the correct answer that allows for a clear identification of the three different
possibilities for [XML Data b Element].
[Operation 1]
After validating against the following [XML Schema], insert XML data (having no
validation errors) into the XMLDB. When no b element is present, the b element value is
null. When b element is present, the b element value is either 1 or 2 in [XML Data b
Element].

[Operation 2]
After validating against the following [DTD], insert XML data (having no validation
errors) into the XMLDB (do not consider the existence of a document type declaration in
the XML data). When the b element value is “null”, the value of the b element is null.
When the b element value is a character string other than “null”, the b element value is 1 in
[XML Data b Element].
When the b element is an empty element, the b element value is 2 in [XML Data b
Element].
[DTD]
<!ELEMENT example (data+)>
<!ELEMENT data (a?, b?, c?)>
<!ELEMENT a (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT b (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT c (#PCDATA)>
A. Under the method described in [Operation 1], the three possibilities may not be clearly
identified in some circumstances
B. Under the method described in [Operation 2],the three possibilities may not be clearly
identified in some circumstances
C. The methods in [Operation 1] and [Operation 2] can clearly identify the three
possibilities
D. The methods in [Operation 1] and [Operation 2] cannot clearly identify the three
possibilities
70-767 exam Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-487
Exam Number: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services Exam
Exam Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certification: Microsoft Certified Solution Designer Certification
Number of Question: 70-80 Questions
Exam Technology: Microsoft Programming Technology
Pre-Requisites: no Certification
Exam Languages: English
Format: Single and Multiple Choice

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QUESTION 16
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is a loan processing system that uses
the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that
displays all loans along with rate information. Lazy loading has been disabled.
The Loan class is shown below.

70-487 dumps

You need to return the loans and rate information in a single round trip to the database.
Which code segment should you use?

70-487 dumps

70-487 dumps

70-487 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC Web API image management application.
The application must meet the following requirements:
It must send or receive image data without the use of a buffer.
It must allow up to 4 MB of image data to be received.
It must allow up to 3 MB of image data to be sent.
You need to complete the code to meet the requirements.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations
in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-487 dumps

Select and Place:
70-487 dumps

Correct Answer:

70-487 dumps

QUESTION 18
You are developing a WCF service.
You need to implement transport security by using NTLM authentication and NetTcpBindings.
Which configuration values should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate configuration values to the
correct location or locations in the answer area. Each configuration value may be used once, more than
once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-487 dumps

Select and Place:

70-487 dumps

70-487 dumps Correct Answer:
70-487 dumps

QUESTION 19
You are supporting an application that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework to query and access data.
The latest version of a tool will add new templates and wizards that will enhance developer productivity.
You need to update the tool.
Which Visual Studio 2012 menu item should you choose? (To answer, select the appropriate menu item in
the answer area.)
Hot Area:
70-487 dumps

Hot Area:

70-487 dumps

Correct Answer:
 70-487 dumps

QUESTION 20
You are developing a RESTful application by using ASP.NET MVC. The application is a pet management
system and implements the following method in a controller for retrieving pet data.

70-487 dumps

The method must only accept JSON data using the standard MIME type.
You need to implement a controller that saves pet data and return a properly formatted HTTP/1.1 protocol
response.
You have the following code:

70-487 dumps

The method must only accept JSON data using the standard MIME type.
You need to implement a controller that saves pet data and return a properly formatted HTTP/1.1 protocol
response.
You have the following code:

70-487 dumps

Select and Place:

 70-487 dumps

70-487 pdf Correct Answer:
70-487 dumps

QUESTION 21. Whcih media server version can be upgraded directly to NetBackup 5.0?
A. 3.4
B. 4.0
C. 4.5
D. 4.7
Answer: C
QUESTION 22. Which two actions do you perform prior to upgrading a media server from NetBackup 4.5 to 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. stop all bpsched processes
B. delete the existing bp.conf file
C. stop all of the NetBackup and Media Manager daemons
D. save copies of customized NetBackup scripts
70-487 vce Answer: CD
QUESTION 23. You are installing a new NetBackup client that must communicate across a firewall its master/media
server. Whcih NetBackup 5.0 process helps reduce the number of ports that must be opened in the
firewall?
A. inetd
B. bpcd
C. vnetd
D. firewalld
Answer: C
QUESTION 24. What are four valid versions of the Microsoft Windows OS for a NetBackup client installation? (Choose
four.)
A. Microsoft Windows 2003
B. Microsoft Windows XP C.
Microsoft Windows ME D.
Microsoft Windows 2000

E. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
F. Microsoft Windows NT 3.5.1
70-487 exam Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 25. Which three catalogs are contained only on the master server? (Choose three.)
A. Class
B. Jobs
C. Devices
D. Image
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 26. Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. All master and media server must be on the same revision level.
B. All client must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. The media servers?? revision level may be one level higher than their respective clients?? revision
level.
D. The master server??s revision level may be one level higher than the media server??s revision level.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 27. Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is NOT available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
70-487 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 28. You have just installed a NetBackup 5.0 master server. Which three NetBackup processes are running
if the installation was successful? (Choose three.)
A. bprd
B. bptm

C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 29. You enabled Multiple Data Steams for a policy. Which list backs up local volumes C:D: , and E: using
two streams?
A. ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES
B. C:\
D:\ NEW_STREAM E:\
C. NEW_STREAM C:\ D:\ NEW_STREAM E:\
D. NEW_STREAM ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES NEW_STREAM
70-487 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30. Where in the NetBackup Administration Console do you create a disk location for backups?
A. Policy
B. Storage Units
C. Host Properties
D. Device Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION 31. A NetBackup system administrator wants all backup jobs that are scheduled between 6:00 p.m. to
1:00 a.m. to retry every 20 minutes until the window closes. Which two items can be configured for this
occur? (Choose two.)
A. Wakeup Interval = 20
B. Schedule Backup Attempts = 7
C. Schedule Backup Attempts = 21
D. Schedule Backup Attempts = 20

E. Policy > Limit Jobs per Policy = 20
Answer:AC
QUESTION 32. Which command on UNIX or Windows clients can you use to verify basic client-to-master server
communications?
A. bp
B. bpclient
C. bpclntcmd
D. bpauthsynch
70-487 vce Answer:A
QUESTION 33. Which command can be run from the client to verify client-to-master resolution and configuration
within NetBackup?
A. bpclntcmd ??¨¬Cpn
B. bpclntcmd ??¨¬Cip
C. bpclntcmd ??¨¬Cclient
D. bpclntcmd ??¨¬C master
Answer:A
QUESTION 34. What is the default length of time before NetBackup moves a backup job from an incomplete state to a
done state?
A. One hour
B. Three hours
C. One day
D. Thee dyas
70-487 exam Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-475
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions
Updated: Jul 25, 2017
Q&As: 70

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-475 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
One method of transferring the information in electronic medical records (EMRs) is through a health
information network (HIN). The following statements are about HINs. Three of the statements are true and
one is false. Select the answer choice containing the FALSE statement.
A. A HIN may afford a health plan better measurements of outcomes and provider performance.
B. The use of a HIN typically increases a health plan’s exposure to liability for poor care.
C. Most HINs are Internet-based rather than built on proprietary computer networks.
D. Currently, the majority of health plans do not have HINs that are capable of transferring medical
records among their network providers.
70-475 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
One true statement about state regulation of case management activities is that the majority of states
A. have enacted laws that list specific quality management requirements for a case management program
B. consider case management files to be medical records that must be retained for a specified length of
time
C. view case management similarly and follow similar patterns with their laws and regulations
D. have enacted laws or regulations requiring licensure or certification of case managers
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
CMS has developed two prototype programs–Programs of All-inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) and
the Social Health Maintenance Organization (SHMO) demonstration project–to deliver healthcare services
to Medicare beneficiaries. From the answer choices below, select the response that correctly identifies the
features of these programs.
A. PACE-annual limits on benefits for nursing home and community-based care SHMO-no limits on long
term care benefits
B. PACE-provide long-term care only SHMO-provide acute and long-term care
C. PACE-enrollees must be age 65 or older SHMO-enrollees must be age 55 or older
D. PACE-enrollment open to nursing home certifiable Medicare beneficiaries only SHMO- enrollment
open to all Medicare beneficiaries
70-475 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
The American Accreditation HealthCare Commission/URAC (URAC) has an accreditation program
specifically for case management services. From the answer choices below, select the response that
correctly identifies the type(s) of case management services addressed by URAC’s standards and the type
(s) of organizations to which these standards may be applied.
A. Type(s) of Services-on-site services only Type(s) of Organization-health plans only
B. Type(s) of Services-on-site services only Type(s) of Organization-any organization that performs case
management functions
C. Type(s) of Services-both telephonic and on-site services Type(s) of Organization-health plans only
D. Type(s) of Services-both telephonic and on-site services Type(s) of Organization-any organization that
performs case management functions
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
The paragraph below contains an incomplete statement. Select the answer choice containing the term that
correctly completes the paragraph.

Medical management programs often require the analysis of many types of data and information.
__________________ is an automated process that analyzes variables to help detect patterns and
relationships in the data.
A. Unbundling
B. Outsourcing
C. Data mining
D. Drilling down
70-475 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Elaine Newman suffered an acute asthma attack and was taken to a hospital emergency department for
treatment. Because Ms. Newman’s condition had not improved enough following treatment to warrant
immediate release, she was transferred to an observation care unit. Transferring Ms. Newman to the
observation care unit most likely
A. resulted in unnecessarily expensive charges for treatment
B. prevented Ms. Newman from receiving immediate attention for her condition
C. gave Ms. Newman access to more effective and efficient treatment than she could have obtained from
other providers in the same region
D. allowed clinical staff an opportunity to determine whether Ms. Newman required hospitalization without
actually admitting her
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The following statements describe situations in which health plan members have medical problems that
require care. Select the statement that describes a situation in which self- care most likely would not be
appropriate.
A. Two days after bruising her leg, Avis Bennet notices that the pain from the bruise has increased and
that there are red streaks and swelling around the bruised area.
B. Calvin Dodd has Type II diabetes and requires blood glucose monitoring tests several times each day.
C. Caroline Evans has severe arthritis that requires regular exercise and oral medication to reduce pain
and help her maintain mobility.
D. Oscar Gracken is recovering from a heart attack and requires ongoing cardiac rehabilitation.
70-475 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
The following statement(s) can correctly be made about medical management considerations for the
Federal Employee Health Benefits Program (FEHBP):
1.FEHBP plan members who have exhausted the health plan’s usual appeals process for a disputed
decision can request an independent review by the Office of Personnel Management (OPM)
2.All health plans that cover federal employees are required to develop and implement patient safety
initiatives
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Three general categories of coverage policy–medical policy, benefits administration policy, and
administrative policy–are used in conjunction with purchaser contracts to determine a health plan’s
coverage of healthcare services and supplies. With respect to the characteristics of the three types of
coverage policy, it is correct to say that a health plan’s
A. medical policy evaluates clinical services against specific benefits language rather than against
scientific evidence
B. benefits administration policy determines whether a particular service is experimental or investigational
C. benefits administration policy focuses on both clinical and nonclinical coverage issues
D. administrative policy contains the guidelines to be followed when handling member and provider
complaints and disputes
70-475 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The following statements are about health plans’ complaint resolution procedures (CRPs). Three of the
statements are true and one is false. Select the answer choice containing the FALSE statement.
A. An health plan’s CRPs reduce the likelihood of errors in decision making.
B. CRPs typically provide for at least two levels of appeal for formal appeals.
C. CRPs include only formal appeals and do not apply to informal complaints.
D. Most complaints are resolved without proceeding through the entire CRP process.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Health plans that offer complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) services face potential liability
because many types of CAM services
A. must be offered as separate supplemental benefits or separate products
B. lack clinical trials to evaluate their safety and effectiveness
C. are not covered by state or federal consumer protection statutes
D. focus on a specific illness, injury, or symptom rather than on the whole body
70-475 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
In order for a health plan’s performance-based quality improvement programs to be effective, the desired
outcomes must be
A. achievable within a specified timeframe
B. defined in terms of multiple results
C. expressed in subjective, qualitative terms
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
The following statement(s) can correctly be made about performance measurement systems:
1.The most difficult purpose for a performance measurement system to address is to measure changes in
outcomes caused by modifications in administrative or clinical treatment processes
2.A health plan needs different performance measurement systems to evaluate its administrative services
and the clinical performance of its providers
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 1 only

C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
70-475 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Home healthcare encompasses a wide variety of medical, social, and support services delivered at the
homes of patients who are disabled, chronically ill, or terminally ill. The time period(s) when health plans
typically use home healthcare include
1.The period prior to a hospital admission
2.The period following discharge from a hospital
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Designing effective medical management programs for Medicare beneficiaries requires an understanding
of the unique health needs of the Medicare population. One characteristic of Medicare beneficiaries is that
they typically
A. do not experience mental health problems
B. consume more than half of all prescription drugs
C. are likely to equate quality with the technical aspects of clinical procedures
D. require longer and more costly recovery periods following acute illnesses or injuries than does the
general population
70-475 exam Correct Answer: D

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