[2018-3-NEW] Latest Updated Cisco 300-070 Dumps CIPTV1 Exam Youtube Materials Questions And Answers Is What You Need To Take (Question 1 – Question 28)

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All you need to know about clearing Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 exam:
Exam Number: 300-070 CIPTV1
Associated Certifications :CCNP Collaboration
Duration: 75 Minutes (65 – 75 questions)
Available Languages: English

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300-070 dumps

Up to the immediate present 300-070 exam cram(1-28)

Question No : 1
Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C. a route list with no route groups configured
D. a route list with one or more route groups configured
300-070 exam Answer: A,D
Reference:

Question No : 2
What are two benefits of using the DiffServ QoS model? (Choose two)
A. It offers an absolute guarantee of service quality.
B. It is highly scalable.
C. RTCP is scalable.
D. It provides many different levels of quality.
E. RSVP is not scalable.
Answer: B,D

Question No : 3
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
300-070 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 4
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN. To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented. How should CAC be implemented?
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Answer: E

Question No : 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
An engineer is trying to determine the status of the ISDN D Channel on a new PRI circuit, types in the show isdn status command, and sees this output. Which two pieces of information can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)
A. The provider is using the 5ESS protocol.
B. There are four channels.
C. The connection to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been established.
D. The D channel is working correctly.
E. No active calls are established.
300-070 pdf Answer: D,E

Question No : 6
What is the default option for framing when you configure T1 controller?
A. Super Frame
B. alternate mark inversion
C. C.Extended Super Frame
D. D.cyclic redundancy check 4
E. E.high-density bipolar 3
F. F.No-CRC4
G. G.binary 8-zero substitution
H. Australia
Answer: C,D
Reference:

Question No : 7
Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?
A. $
B. !
C. #
D. .
300-070  vce Answer: C

Question No : 8
Which two algorithms are valid to distribute calls in a route group? (Choose two.)
A. broadcast
B. circular
C. top-down
D. bottom-up
E. round-robin
Answer: B,C
Reference:

Question No : 9
Where do you configure the region for a group of devices?
A. Common device profile.
B. Device defaults.
C. Common device configuration.
D. Common phone profile.
E. Device pool.
300-070 exam Answer: E

Question No : 10
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Answer: A

Question No : 11
What are two characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager dial plan? (Choose two.)
A. partitions and calling search spaces
B. COR
C. dial peers
D. voice translation rules
E. route patterns
300-070 dumps Answer: A,E

Question No : 12
An engineer is setting up a system with voice and video endpoints using auto-QoS policy on the switches. Which DSCP values are expected for interactive voice and video?
A. F and AF-41
B. EF and CS6
C. EF and CS3
D. EF and AF21
Answer: A

Question No : 13
Which two options are IOS conference bridge types in CUCM? (Choose two)
A. CiscoIOS Enhanced Conference Bridge
B. CiscoIOS Standard Conference Bridge
C. CiscoIOS Software Conference Bridge
D. CiscoIOS Hardware Conference Bridge
E. Cisco IOS Conference Bridge
300-070 pdf Answer: A,E

Question No : 14
When implementing a global dial plan, which digit manipulation feature in CUCM does Cisco recommend for adding +1 to all outbound calls?
A. Called party transformation.
B. Calling party transformation.
C. Translation pattern.
D. External phone mask.
Answer: A

Question No : 15
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-555-1212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
300-070  vce Answer: E

Question No : 16
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. Shared line appearances
B. CentralizedDSP resources
C. Extension mobility within the cluster
D. Scalability up to 20 sites, if thereis sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
E. Failover to co-resident Cisco UnifiedCall Manager Express platforms
Answer: A,C

Question No : 17
The Cisco IP Phone of your company operator is on extension 7000. However, users normally dial 0 to get the operator. Which action sends calls that were made to 0 to the operator?
A. Create a route pattern of 0 and use a called party transform mask of 7XXX.
B. Create a translation pattern for 7000 and a called party transform mask of 0.
C. Create a translation pattern for 0 and a called party transform mask of 7000.
D. Create the IP phone overlay feature so the operator’s line has 0 and 7000 assigned to it.
E. Create a translation pattern for 0 and a calling party transform mask of 7000.
300-070 exam Answer: C

Question No : 18
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey’s Gateway and CUCM.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey’s Gateway.
C. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey’s Gateway and CUCM.
D. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey’s Gateway and CUCM.
Answer: C,D

Question No : 19
Which three options can be used to configure digit manipulation for dial peers? (Choose three.)
A. digit translation rules
B. called party transformations
C. route partitions
D. forward digits
E. route patterns
F. digit stripping and prefixes
G. calling party transformations
300-070 dumps Answer: A,D,F

Question No : 20
When creating a route pattern, which two of these options should you avoid? (Choose two)
A. Lowercase characters, such as a, b, c
B. Wildcards.
C. Numbers.
D. Uppercase characters, such as A, B, C.
E. Spaces.
F. Special characters andescape sequences, such as @ and \+.
Answer: A,E

Question No : 21
Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?
A. Cisco Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Telepresence MCU
C. Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
D. Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
E. Cisco Telepresence Conductor
300-070 pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 22
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which pattern does the route pattern \+61278[^-5]59 match?
A. \+61278359001
B. +61278459001
C. 278259001
D. +61278259001
E. +612783559001
300-070  vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
By default, what value is voice traffic marked as on a Cisco Catalyst Switch?
A. DSCP CAS6 value 21, Cos 3
B. DSCP AF21 value 46, Cos 5
C. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 7
D. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which party has a SIP B2BUA role in the call?
A. 172.17.4.100
B. 10.100.4.65 and 172.17.4.100
C. 10.100.4.65
D. None of the parties has a B2BUA role in the call.
E. 10.100.4.68 and 10.100.4.65
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN. To optimize the utilization of
the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented.
How should CAC be implemented?
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which groups will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers that are set to use the andlt;Noneandgt; partition?
A. Only users that have the andlt;Noneandgt; partition assigned in their calling search space will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
B. All users will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
C. The andlt;Noneandgt; partition will prevent all users from accessing the Meet-Me conference numbers.
D. Any IP phones with their lines configured in the andlt;Noneandgt; partition will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
Correct Answer: C
300-070 dumps

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100% Pass Latest Microsoft 70-417 Exam Get Success with Zero Failure Chance – MCSA Windows Server 2012

70-417 Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012 is affirmation from Microsoft for its experts to propel their expert profession. Microsoft 70-417 exam is a prized ownership in today’s focused world and gives you a chance to pick up learning and comprehension of Microsoft items.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Total Questions: 427 Q&As
Updated on: Apr 06, 2017

As Microsoft pushes forward with Server 2012, the demand for IT professionals to stay current and upgrade their skills becomes more imperative. This mega-test, which is a combination of the 70-410, 70-411, and 70-417 exam, serves as an upgrade for Windows administrators who currently hold the following Microsoft designations:

  •     Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator (MCSA): Windows Server 2008
  •     Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP): Virtualization Administrator on Windows Server 2008 R2
  •     MCITP: Enterprise Messaging Administrator 2010
  •     MCITP: Lync Server Administrator 2010
  •     MCITP: SharePoint Administrator 2010
  •     MCITP: Enterprise Desktop Administrator on Windows 7

70-417 exam

 

 

Passitdump Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-417 Exam Q&As

QUESTION 89
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 exam

You need to ensure that VM1 can use more CPU time than the other virtual machines when the CPUs on
Server1 are under a heavy load.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B. Resource controls provide you with several ways to control the way that Hyper-V allocates resources to
virtual machine. 70-417 Exam Resource control in used in the event where you need to adjust the computing resources of a virtual machine, you can reconfigure the resources to meet the changing needs. You can also specify
resource controls to automate how resources are allocated to virtual machines.
References: Exam Ref 70-410,Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines
QUESTION 90
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V
server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 exam

You install Windows Server 2012 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that the next time. VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
G. Configure the BIOS of the computer to enable PXE boot, and set the boot order so that it is booting
from the network is first.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and
Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure
virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter
7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines

 

 

QUESTION 91
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains the servers
shown in the following table.

70-417 exam

You need to ensure that you can use Server Manager on DC1 to manage DC2.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install the Windows PowerShell 2.0 engine on DC1.
B. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 4 on DC2.
C. Install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on DC2.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC1.
E. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on DC2.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In Windows Server 2012, you can use Server Manager to perform management tasks on remote servers.
Remote management is enabled by default on servers that are running Windows Server 2012. To manage
a server remotely by using Server Manager, you add the server to the Server Manager server pool.
You can use Server Manager to manage remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 and
Windows Server 2008 R2, but the following updates are required to fully manage these older operating
systems.
Windows Management Framework 3.0 To use this release of Server Manager to access and manage
remote servers that are running Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2, you must first install
.NET Framework 4.0, and then install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on those servers.
Reference:
70-417 Exam Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 2: Deploying servers, p. 80

 

 

QUESTION 92
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member
servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You log on to Server1.
You need to retrieve a list of the active TCP connections on Server2.
Which command should you run from Server1?
A. netstat> server2
B. winrm get server2
C. winrs -r:server2netstat
D. dsquery * -scope base -attrip,server2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This command line tool enables administrators to remotely execute most Cmd.exe commands using the
WSManagement protocol.
References:

 

 

QUESTION 93
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Corel, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You join Corel to the adatum.com domain.

You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Core1.
What should you do on Core1?
A. Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
B. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
C. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
D. Install Windows Management Framework.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 94
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You open Review Options in the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard, and then you
click View script.
You need to ensure that you can use the script to promote Server1 to a domain controller.
Which file extension should you use to save the script?
A. .bat
B. .ps1
C. .xml
D. .cmd
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A PowerShell script is the equivalent of a Windows CMD or MS-DOS batch file, the file should be saved
with a .ps1 extension, e.g. MyScript.ps1

 

 


QUESTION 95
In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of
Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
installed.
You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Install-ADDSDomain
B. Install-ADDSForest
C. Install-ADDSDomainController
D. Install-WindowsFeature
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Install-ADDSDomainController Installs a domain controller in Active Directory. Install- ADDSDomain
Installs a new Active Directory domain configuration. Install-ADDSForest Installs a new Active Directory
forest configuration. Install-WindowsFeature Installs one or more Windows Server roles, role services, or
features on either thelocal or a specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2012 R2. This
cmdlet is equivalent to andreplaces Add- WindowsFeature, the cmdlet that was used to install roles, role
services, and features.
C:\PS>Install-ADDSForest -DomainName corp.contoso.com -CreateDNSDelegation DomainMode
Win2008 -ForestMode Win2008R2 -DatabasePath “d:\NTDS” -SysvolPath
“d:\SYSVOL” LogPath “e:\Logs”Installs a new forest named corp.contoso.com, creates a DNS delegation
in the contoso.com domain, setsdomain functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2 and sets forest
functional level to Windows Server 2008,installs the Active Directory database and SYSVOL on the D:\
drive, installs the log files on the E:\ drive andhas the server automatically restart after AD DS installation is
complete and prompts the user to provide and confirm the 70-417 Exam Directory Services Restore Mode (DSRM)
password. 

 

 

QUESTION 96
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain
controller named DC5. DC5 has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to uninstall Active Directory from DC5 manually.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-ADComputercmdlet
B. The ntdsutil.exe command
C. The dsamain.exe command
D. The Remove-WindowsFeaturecmdlet
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 97
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain
controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 exam

DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure.
You plan to remove DC3 from the domain.
You log on to DC3.
You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3.
What should you do?
A. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
B. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
C. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
D. Run dcdiag /test:dns.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Netlogon service creates a log file that contains all the locator resource records and places the log file in
the following location:
References:

 

QUESTION 98
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. New-VirtualDisk
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:70-417 Exam
NOT A Share and Storage will only let you create a VHD on a storage pool NOT B Server Manager, can’t
find where to create this. NOT C Is this powershell ? the command should be NEW-VHD
D Computer management is the only valid yet non available answer. I’d be left with C, hoping they’d have
the good powershell command.
Note:
From @L_Ranger, Computer Management is not an option anymore.
Back to New-VirtualDisk
Old explanation : D (Computer management)
Explanation:
For Server 2012: With the
Server Manager snap-in, you can create and attach a .VHD file directly. Figure A shows the drop-down box
where a.VHD file can be created and attached. Figure A

70-417 exam

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Cisco 642-165 Exam Sample, Helpful Cisco 642-165 Exam Dumps With 100% Pass Rate

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QUESTION 62
Which of the following is not an input that is required when you install Cisco Unified CCX?
A. application username
B. platform administrator username
C. IP address
D. default language
E. time zone

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 63
Which two are possible root causes for the Application Subsystem going into partial service status? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony Provider problem
B. CTI Route Point problem
C. CTI Port Group problem
D. script problem
E. system deadlock problem

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 64
Which three tasks are required to deploy a Cisco Unified CCX application? (Choose three.)
A. create a trigger
B. upload script to repository
C. restart the Cisco Unified CCX Engine
D. specify the maximum number of sessions
E. configure default session timeout

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 65
Which subsystem handles connections between the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Server and the Enterprise Databases?
A. Media
B. JTAPI
C. Database
D. Application

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 66
If an existing script is uploaded to the Cisco Unified CCX, what does Cisco Unified CCX ask?
A. Do you want to debug the script?
B. Do you want to refresh the script?
C. Do you want to save the application?
D. Do you want to validate the script?

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 67
What is the purpose of setting the Flush Input Buffer field of the Menu step to true?
A. to release memory held by the prompt variable
B. to clear previously entered input before the Menu step executes
C. to specify if the step can be interrupted by an agent who becomes available
D. to prevent the caller from entering a menu choice before the prompt has played

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 68
In the Cisco Unified CCX Editor, where do you start the debugger?
A. toolbar
B. Step palette
C. Design window
D. Variable window

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 69

During runtime, when a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. No Data

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 70
In which two ways does remote monitoring allow the monitored call to be selected? (Choose two.)
A. by agent name
B. by agent extension
C. by application ID
D. by media group ID
E. by CSQ ID

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 71
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco Unified CCX system sends standard event logging messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. Win32

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 72
An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, the customer wants to insert the account number into the account the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record. Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?
A. Cisco Unified CCX Standard
B. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced
C. Cisco Unified CCX Premium
D. Cisco Unified CCX Enterprise
E. Cisco Unified IP IVR

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 73
The Cisco Unified CCX license MAC is generated based on which three items? (Choose three.)

A. hostname
B. IP address
C. gateway address
D. physical MAC
E. Cisco Unified CCX version

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 74
What is the maximum round-trip time between Cisco Unified CCX servers in a WAN deployment?
A. 2 ms
B. 10 ms
C. 50 ms
D. 80 ms

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 75
Which interface is used to configuration debug parameter for log files?
A. Data store control center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. System parameter
D. Control center
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 76
What is the main function of the CRS Editor?
A. remotely manages the LDAP Directory
B. creates CRS Engine reports
C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. manages the CRS Server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 77
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment must have the following characteristics:
High Availability Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 two remote sites agent pool split evenly between both sites 3 concurrent supervisors 20 concurrent agents

agents using Cisco IP Phone Agent and Citrix terminals silent monitoring and recording in use no historical reporting during call center open hours What is the minimum number of servers needed to support this configuration?
A. six servers
B. five servers
C. three servers
D. two servers
E. the answer depends on where the supervisors are located
F. four servers

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
What tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources required for an IPCC Express deployment?
A. CRS Applications Administration
B. Configuration and Ordering Tool
C. IPC Resource Calculator
D. CTI Port Calculator

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 79
Which three components are installed from the Cisco Unified CCX Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco Unified CCX Engine
C. Cisco Unified Operations Manager
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Recording Component
F. Informix DB

Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
What is the maximum number of agents that can be supported by Cisco Unified CCX 8.0 when deployed with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 300
D. 400

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 52
Which phone type has the following support matrix for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? version 4.0 unsupported version 4.5 supported version 5.0 supported
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. SCCP
D. H.323

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with three requirements:
250 configured agents
150 agents maximum logged in at any given time 30 agents able to make outbound calls
How many seats should be purchased?

A. 120 seats with 30 outbound seats
B. 150 seats with 30 outbound seats
C. 180 seats with 30 outbound seats
D. 250 seats with 30 outbound seats

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 54
When a call terminates, which Cisco Unified CCX setting takes precedence over “Automated Available” to determine the agent’s next state?
A. Service Level settings
B. Automatic Work
C. Automatic WrapUp
D. Resource Pool selection
E. Prompt for this CSQ

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. Major Release
B. Minor Release
C. Engineering Special
D. Service Release
E. Maintenance Release

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem
B. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
D. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
E. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Write
B. DB Read
C. DB Release D. DB Get

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco CRS Engine
C. Cisco Recording
D. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
E. Cisco Unified CallManager
F. MS SQL Server

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?
A. The agent is an IP phone agent.
B. The agent is not ready.
C. The agent is not on a call.
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
By which ways does remote monitoring allow the monitored call to be selected? (Choose two.)
A. CSQ ID
B. Agent Name
C. Agent Extension
D. application ID
E. Media Group ID
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco CRS System sends standard event logging messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Win32
C. Alarm
D. CDP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang C
B. VG ports + IVR ports
C. AHT * BHCA
D. Erlang B

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
What is the maximum number of CTI ports supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Standard deployment?
A. 300
B. varies based on the number of expansion servers
C. varies based on the number of configured applications
D. 150
E. 200

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the CallManager, which branch of the step is executed?
A. Unsuccessful
B. Invalid
C. Successful
D. Busy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop (CSD)?
A. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
B. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD
C. one language for both the CAD and the CSD
D. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the customer
B. the agent line to the customer
C. the agent’s personal line to the customer
D. a CTI port to the agent, then redirected to the customer

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. competence levels
B. resources
C. Resource Groups
D. Skill Groups

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which server or servers combine with redundant Cisco CRS engines to make a valid Cisco CRS 4.0 deployment?
A. five recording servers
B. a simplex database server
C. five simplex VoIP monitoring servers
D. two VoIP monitoring servers and three recording servers
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 126
Both Switches and Hubs are used in the P4S network, please study the exhibit carefully, how many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

A. one
B. two
C. six
D. twelve

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
Which item will be the result of issuing the following commands on the basis of the exhibit below? P4S-Switch-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5 P4S-Switch-1(config-if)# switchport mode access P4S-Switch-1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30

A. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to the P4S-Switch-2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as a VLAN to the P4S-Switch-2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to the P4S-Switch-2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as a VLAN to the P4S-Switch-2 VLAN database.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 128
You are a network administrator for P4S. You configure a workgroup switch with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. And you configure all ports as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?
A. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
B. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
C. The additions will create more collisions domains.
D. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 129
Two P4S hosts reside in different VLANs as shown below:
The P4S network shown in the diagram above is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the
following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the IP address of P4SA as 10.1.2.2.
B. Configure the gateway on P4SB as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the gateway on P4SA as 10.1.1.1.
D. Configure the IP address of P4SB as 10.1.2.2.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 130
John is the Cisco Configuration Assistant in pass4usre.com.He is attempting to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. John knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the essential resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. He should determine which interfaces are access ports. For the following items, which three interfaces are access ports? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-switch-1 – Fa 0/2
B. P4S-switch-2 – Fa 0/8
C. P4S-switch-2 – Fa 0/3
D. P4S-switch-2 – Fa 0/4

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 131
You are a technician for P4S. You issue the show interface e0 command during routine network maintenance. The following graphic shows a partial output of the command. Some values displayed in the command output indicate that collisions have occurred. What are the values? (Choose two.)

A. 933 runts
B. reliability 128/255
C. 253 giants
D. 75427 broadcasts

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 132
A network administrator would configure port security on a switch, why?
A. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
B. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
C. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 133
What is the way that Spanning Tree Protocol prevents switching loops based on the exhibit provided?

A. STP identifies cables that must be disconnected to eliminate the redundant paths.
B. STP load balances traffic evenly across the redundant links.
C. STP shuts down P4S-Switch-3 to eliminate the switching loops.
D. STP places ports into the blocking state to disable the redundant paths.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 134
The following shows the topology of the network and partial switch command output. From the diagram you know that the internetwork is experiencing connectivity problems. Host P4S-PCA cannot ping Host P4S-PCB. In order that these hosts can ping each other, what should to be done?

A. VLAN 2 should be named.
B. The gateway on Host P4S-PCA should be changed.
C. The IP address on Host P4S-PCB should be reconfigured.
D. The Fa0/1 interface on the P4S-S switch must be configured as a trunk port.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
This output is generated by a switch that has 24 ports, however, some of the ports missing from VLAN1. Why?

A. The missing ports are in VLAN 86.
B. The missing ports are configured as trunk ports.
C. The missing ports are administratively disabled.
D. The missing ports have a status problem such as a speed or duplex mismatch.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 136
Which item will be the result by executing the following commands. P4S-SW(config-if)# switchport port-security P4S-SW(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 137
The following network was designed to provide reliability through redundancy. Both of the IDF switches, S3 and S4, are in connection with both of the MDF switches, S1 and S2. A loop-free switching environment is needed, which configuration scenario will achieve this?

A. Spanning Tree Protocol is not needed in this network.
B. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running only on the root bridge.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on all switches.
D. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on only the MDF switches S1 and S2.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 138
Multiple copies of the same unicast frame are likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN in which circumstance?
A. when a dual ring topology is in use
B. after broken links are re-established
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 139
Three of the following are spanning-tree switch port states, what are them? (Choose three.)
A. filtering
B. forwarding
C. learning
D. listening

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 140
When configuring a new trunk link on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?
A. By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk.
B. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vlan database command.
C. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the switchport mode command.
D. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vtp domain command.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 141
On a network of one P4S department, there are four PCs
connected to a switch,as shown in the following figure:
After the switch P4S1 restarts, P4SA ( the host on the left ) sends the first frame to P4SC (the host on the
right ).what the first thing should the switch do ?
A. P4S1 will add 192.168.23.12 to the switching table.
B. P4S1 will add 192.168.23.4 to the switching table.
C. P4S1 will add 000A.8A47.E612 to the switching table.
D. P4S1 will add 000B.DB95.2EE9 to the switching table.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
The P4S network administrator has issued the “VTP password
P4S” command on a Cisco device. What is the purpose of this command?

A. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches.
B. It is used to access the VTP server to make changes to the VTP configuration.
C. It allows VTP server to exist in the same domain, each configured with different passwords.
D. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to VTP server mode.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 143
You want to configure a switch port to use the IEEE standard method of inserting VLAN membership information into Ethernet frames. Which command will you use?
A. P4S-SW(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl
B. P4S-SW(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf
C. P4S-SW(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
D. P4S-SW(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 144
How many collision domains are presented in the exhibit?

A. four
B. two
C. one
D. three

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 145
On the basis of the exhibit presented, in order to allow connectivity between all devices ,how to configure the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches shown in the exhibit?

A. P4S-Switch-X(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport mode access P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
B. P4S-Switch-X(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. P4S-Switch-X(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport mode trunk P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 P4S-Switch-X(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 146
Study the exhibit below carefully ,then answer the following questions.
If most of the communication is between hosts and the servers, which switch is best as the root switch for
VLAN20?
A. P4S-SwA
B. P4S-SwB
C. P4S-SwC
D. P4S-SwD

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
What is the effect on CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network by replacing a hub with a switch?
A. It effectively eliminates collisions.
B. It eliminates Layer 3 broadcast traffic.
C. In increases the size of the collision domain by allowing more devices to be connected at once.
D. It decreases the amount of time that a jam signal must be sent to reach all network devices.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 148
With the information shown in the following exhibit, which switch will be chosen as root bridge and why?

A. P4S-SW-C, because it has the lowest priority
B. P4S-SW-D, because it has the highest priority
C. P4S-SW-A, because it has the lowest MAC address
D. P4S-SW-B, because it has the highest MAC address

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 149
The Cisco Catalyst 2950 Series Switch is a fixed-configuration, stackable standalone switch that provides wire-speed Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet connectivity. You work as a network administrator for the P4Spany. Study the exhibit carefully. Some 2950 series switches are connected to the conference area of the corporate headquarters network. The switches offer two to three jacks per conference room to host laptop connections for employees who visit the headquarters office. When many employees come from other locations, you often discover that hubs have been connected to wall jacks in the conference area although the ports on the access layer switches were not intended to support multiple workstations. What would you do to prevent access by multiple laptops through a single switch port and still leave the switch functional for its intended use?

A. Implement Port Security on all interfaces and use the port-security mac-address sticky command to limit access to a single MAC address.
B. Implement Port Security at global configuration mode and use the port-security maximum 1 command to allow each switch only one attached hub.
C. Configure static entries in the switch MAC address table to include the range of addresses used by visiting employees.
D. Implement Port Security on all interfaces and use the port-security maximum 1 command to limit port access to a single MAC address.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
You are a network administrator for P4S. The following graphic shows the topology and configuration information of the network. You have configured the router to enable communication between the VLANs. You are required to configure switch port fa0/1 to establish a link with router P4S-R1 using the IEEE standard protocol, which IOS commands should be used? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
B. P4S-SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
C. P4S-SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
D. P4S-SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Correct Answer: ABD

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, in Cisco client security software applications. Match the applications with the descriptions.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2

Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast and fault domains are increased
B. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. IP Address space is difficult to manage
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 3
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Destination IP Address
B. Output Interface
C. Source MAC address
D. Next-hop IP Address
E. Source Port
F. Next-hop MAC Address
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. Termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. Designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPSec VPN
D. Addressing designs need to allow for summarization

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. When preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
B. When the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
C. When HSRP is not supported by the design
D. When a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. When multiple vendor devices need to be supported
F. When the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two.)
A. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service
B. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50% of the capacity of the link
C. At least 23 percent of the link bandwidth should be reserved for default best-effort class
D. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue
E. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?
A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic
B. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic flow
C. An IDS analyze a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet
D. Traffic impact considerations are increased when deploying an IDS over an IPS sensor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. Between two layer devices without trunking
B. Between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
C. Between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking
D. Bridging two VLANs on one switch
E. Bridging VLANs on two switches
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, in Cisco NAC appliance components. Match the applications with the appropriate descriptions.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873 A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Network admission control (NAC) is a collection of technologies that can be used to enhance network
security services. Specifically, NAC can perform posture validation, which ensures that only permitted
devices can communicate on the network. NAC appliance has Manager, servers and client like:

1.
NAC Manager

2.
NAC Server

3.
NAC Profile Server

4.
NAC Guest Server

5.
NAC Client Agent
1.
Cisco NAC Appliance Manager (Cisco NAM): Acts as a NAC Appliance administration server for defining policies

2.
Cisco NAC Appliance Server (Cisco NAS): Acts as a policy enforcement server between the trusted and untrusted networks

3.
Cisco NAC Appliance Agent (Cisco NAA): Acts as an optional agent for Windows-based clients

4.
NAC Appliance Policy Updates: Checks the status of updates applied to operating systems, antivirus signatures, and other client software
QUESTION 11
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex links? (Choose two.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A. Flex links operate only over single pairs of links
B. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated
C. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second
D. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type
E. An interface can belong to multiple Flex links
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
One of your customers is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 23
D. 7
E. 19
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The reason being that 7 phones per Access Point is the recommended practice provided by CISCO.
QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. It determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow
B. It is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
C. It dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. It is not used in multicast
E. It determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. Firewall connections in either an active or standby state
B. A method of operating firewalls from multiple vendors
C. Multiple layers of firewalling
D. An architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
E. An Architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific gateway Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP Addresses
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required in order to assign IP Addresses
C. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network
D. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. As a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
B. To support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. As a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. To provide service internetworking
E. To provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which of these terms refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival?
A. Digitized sampling
B. Queuing
C. Packet Loss
D. Jitter
E. Signal-to-noise ratio ratio

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What two descriptions best define DWDM? (Choose two.)
A. A technology for transmitting multiple optical signals using less sophisticated transceiver designs then CWDM
B. A WDM system that is compatible with EDFA technology
C. An optical technology for transmitting up to 32 channels over multiple fiber strands
D. An optical technology for transmitting up to 16 channels over multiple fiber strands
E. A technology for transmitting more closely packed optical signals using more Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873 sophisticated transceiver designs than CWDM
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. The 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP Addresses to MAC addresses
B. Only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
C. Only the low-order 23 bits of the IP Address are used to map MAC addresses
D. Only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
E. The 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP Addresses to MAC addresses
F. Only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. Has promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network
B. Passively listens to network traffic
C. In an active device in the traffic path
D. Traffic arrives on one IDS interface and exits on another E. Has a permissive interface that is used to monitor network
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the graphic. A Cisco router and a Catalyst switch are connected as shown. The technician is working on a computer that is connected to the management console of the switch. In order to configure the default gateway for the switch, the technician needs to learn the IP address of the attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of Layer 3 connectivity?

A. show cdp neighbors detail
B. pingrouter_ip_address
C. showip neighbors
D. pingswitch_ip_address
E. showdhcp-config
F. showip rarp
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

A. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
B. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
C. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
D. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?

A. IP routing on SW-A
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. VLAN 1 on RTA
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?

A. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
E. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
F. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
B. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. A loopback is not set.
F. The IP address is incorrect.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 6
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
You are a network administrator for certways.You fail to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. The following shows the command output of both routers. What caused the problem?

A. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
B. Router names are incorrectly configured.
C. Serialip addresses
D. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
Three of the following are types of flow control. Which are them? (Choose three.)
A. cut-through
B. load balancing
C. congestion avoidance
D. buffering
E. windowing
Correct Answer: CDE QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9
Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server?
A. brute force
B. Trojan horse
C. denial of service
D. reconnaissance
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Refer to the graphic. How many collision domains are shown?

A. two
B. four
C. six
D. fourteen
E. three
F. one

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
A network administrator has subnetted the 172.16.0.0 network using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. A duplicate IP address of 172.16.2.120 has accidentally been configured on a workstation in the network. The technician must assign this workstation a new IP address within that same subnetwork. Which address should be assigned to the workstation?
A. 172.16.2.127
B. 172.16.2.80
C. 172.16.2.128
D. 172.16.1.64
E. 172.16.1.80
F. 172.16.2.64
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Host A needs to communicate with the email server shown in the graphic. What address will be placed in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A. the MAC address of the email server
B. the MAC address of E1 of the router
C. the MAC address of Switch 1
D. the MAC address of E0 of the router
E. the MAC address of Switch 2
F. the MAC address of Host A
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?

A. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable
B. RTA(config)#no cdp run
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX Company to a server on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on Network A can communicate with other hosts on Network A. Which command, issued from router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting this problem?

A. show version
B. show flash:
C. show interfaces
D. show history
E. show controllers serial
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this situation?

A. Verify that the DNSserver address is correct in the DHCP pool.
B. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts.
C. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.
D. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is located.
E. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are five collision domains in the network.
C. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are seven collision domains in the network.
F. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.)

A. CORE router will place the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
B. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
C. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwardingFastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.
D. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwardingFastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets.
E. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
F. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 18
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)

A. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
B. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
C. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
D. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
E. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 19
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
B. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
C. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
D. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
E. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 20
Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
C. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
D. It includes authentication by PSK.
E. It requires use of an open authentication method.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router3 are already configured with RIPv2. What are the minimum network commands that are required on Router2 for all networks to converge?

A. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0
B. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
C. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.1.0
D. (config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.3.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
B. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
C. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
D. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is notsubnetted.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 23
Which types of cables are required to interconnect the devices shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)

A. straight-through cable
B. crossover cable
C. USB cable
D. RJ-11 cable
E. rollover cable
F. V.35 cable
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 24
A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.
B. PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
C. The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
D. Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link
E. The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
F. HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. What types of cables are recommended to make the connections that are shown?

A. A-rollover B-straight-through C-straight-through D-rollover E-crossover
B. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
C. A-crossover B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-straight-through B-crossover C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
E. A-crossover B-straight-through C-crossover D-straight-through E-crossover
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What are two characteristics of Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It is more secure than SSH.
B. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.
C. It requires an enterprise license in order to be implemented.
D. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
E. It sends data in clear text format.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Host A has been added to the network. Which type of cable should be used between Switch2 and host A?

A. straight-through cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. console cable
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
The router console screen is rapidly displaying line after line of output similar to what is shown in the exhibit. The help desk has called to say that users are reporting a slowdown in the network. What will solve this problem while not interrupting network operation?

A. Enter the no debug all command.
B. Save the configuration and reboot the router.
C. Enter the terminal monitor command.
D. Use the show processes command.
E. Press the CTRL+C keys.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
B. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The serial cable is bad.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are shown for each segment.
What are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three.)

A. Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
B. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
C. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
D. The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server.
E. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
F. Interface fa0/3 has an IP address that overlaps with network 10.1.1.0/30.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 32
WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
Which of the following are included WAN data link encapsulation types? (Choose two.)
A. ISDN
B. T1
C. Frame Relay
D. DSL
E. PPP
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 33
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 20 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The number 20 indicates the number of hops to the destination network.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.190 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
E. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.180.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
Which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access? (Choose two.)
A. configuring traffic filtering
B. changing the default SSID value
C. configuring a new administrator password
D. changing the mixed mode setting to single mode
E. assigning a private IP address to the AP
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
In order to route incoming packets, a router take will take two actions. What are the two actions? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Inspect the routingtable to select the best path to the destination network address.
C. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
D. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
E. Validate sources of routing information.
F. Identify the source network address of each packet.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 36
What is the purpose of a default route?
A. It is a route manually configured for a specific remote network for which a routing protocol is not configured.
B. It is used to send traffic to a stub network.
C. It is a route to be used when the routing protocol fails.
D. It is a route configured by an ISP that sends traffic into a corporate network.
E. It is a route used when a packet is destined for a remote network that is not listed in the routing table.
Correct Answer: E Exam B

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?

A. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
B. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
C. It will drop the frame.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?

A. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
C. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
D. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. antenna type or direction
B. cordless phones
C. mismatched SSID
D. metal file cabinets
E. null SSID
F. mismatched TKIP encryption
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
B. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
C. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
D. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
E. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Why was this message received?

A. The login command has not been set on CON 0.
B. No console password has been set.
C. No enable secret password has been set.
D. The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.
E. No VTY password has been set.
F. No enable password has been set.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable. Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You have allocated the IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 for all devices on this network. All devices should use thesame subnet mask and all subnets are usable. A subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration. Which is it?

A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
E. 255.255.254.0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure the switch has power.
B. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
C. Reboot all of the devices.
D. Reseat all cables.
E. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
F. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
A. The system is not powered up.
B. The system is malfunctioning.
C. The system is forwarding traffic.
D. The system is sensing excessive collisions.
E. The system is powered up and operational.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
B. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
C. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
D. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 10
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported. ActualTests.com
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
As the certways network administrator, you need to assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20 to an Ethernet port on router certways-R, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this LAN subnet?
A. 2046
B. 4096
C. 8190
D. 4094
E. 1024
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?

A. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable
4 – Ethernet straight-through cable Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13 Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
B. a scheme to conserve public addresses
C. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
D. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
E. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.
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