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QUESTION 50
Which two statements are true about MLP interleaving? (Choose two)
A. It fragments and encapsulates all packets in a fragmentation header.
B. Packets smaller than the fragmentation size are interleaved between the fragments of the larger packets.
C. Packets larger than the fragmentation size are always fragmented, and cannot be interleaved, even if the traffic is voice traffic.
D. It fragments and encapsulates packets that are longer than a configured size, but does not encapsulate smaller packets inside a fragmentation header.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Previous implementations of Cisco IOS Multilink PPP (MLP) include support for Link Fragmentation Interleaving (LFI). This feature allows the delivery of delay-sensitive packets, such as the packets of a Voice call, to be expedited by omitting the PPP Multilink Protocol header and sending the packets as raw PPP packets in between the fragments of larger data packets. This feature works well on bundles consisting of a single link. However, when the bundle contains multiple links there is no way to keep the interleaved packets in sequence with respect to each other. Interleaving on MLP allows large packets to be multilink encapsulated and fragmented into a small enough size to satisfy the delay requirements of real-time traffic; small real-time packets are not multilink encapsulated and are transmitted between fragments of the large packets.
Note: The following URL from Cisco’s website explains this feature: http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios122/122cgcr/fqos_c/fqcprt6/ qcflfi.htm#wp10009 0 “(Optional) Configures a maximum fragment delay. If, for example, you want a voice stream to have a maximum bound on delay of 20 milliseconds (ms) and you specify 20 ms using this command, MLP will choose a fragment size based on the configured value.” Packets are fragmentedwhen they exceed the configured maximum delay.
QUESTION 51
A network administrator is designing the routing schema to be used for the WAN connections between the corporate headquarters and the branch offices. Each of the branch offices has its own network server providing most of the local services needed. The branch offices need only periodic connectivity to the corporate headquarters, so ISDN BRI in a DDR configuration was chosen for WAN connectivity. Which two routing protocols are most appropriate for this network? (Choose two)
A. RIPv2
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPD
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because both these routing protocol have a feature call snapshot routing.
The following routing protocols are supported for snapshot routing :
1- RTMP.
2- RTP.
3- RIPv2.
4- IGRP.
5- Novel IPX – RIP and SAP

QUESTION 52
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Certkiller has been issued a portion of a Class C address from their ISP. There are 320 users that will need access to the Internet. The CEO now wants you to design a network that requires private internal addressing for the users within the company and also requires a website for external users.
Which types of Network Address Translation would you propose? (Choose two.)
A. Static
B. Overlapping
C. Persistent
D. Dynamic
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Static NAT would be good for the Web server. Dynamic NAT should be used for the 320 users of the
company.
Static NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis. Static NAT
is particularly useful when a device needs to be accessible from outside the network.
Dynamic NAT: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP
addresses.

QUESTION 53
Certkiller has obtained a block of public Internet addresses to provide addresses for their publicly accessed services. Part of the Certkiller .com corporate network is illustrated in the network topology exhibit.
Which one of the following statements is the best design for the Internet connectivity solution?
A. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, static routing should be used on the Internet routers, with static routes on each Internet router pointing to the networks hosted by the ISP connected to the router.
B. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made to ISP A, and floating static routes should be installed to direct traffic to ISP B.
C. To enable the proper redundancy capabilities of multi-homing, a BGP connection should be made both ISP A and ISP B.
D. To facilitate Internet connection load sharing, the Internet routers should be configured to run HSRP.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Certkiller .com, an insurance company, has a single link to the Internet through a local ISP. The ISP provides web hosting for Certkiller .com. E-mail is the main application for 175 users at Certkiller .com’s single office. The remaining 750 employees at Certkiller .com are involved in the manufacturing process and do not have network access. Fifteen host devices, available in kiosks to all employees, are used for internal human resource applications. You are now required to recommend a suitable routing mechanism for the Certkiller .com enterprise edge.
A. RIP V2
B. BGP
C. Default route
D. IBGP
E. EBGP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When Implementing a single-homed system, the routing decision is to use default routes pointing to the network that connects the site to the ISP. The default route is then advertised throughout the corporate site, so that any packets with an unknown destination are forwarded to the ISP. Reference: Arch student guide p.3-57.
QUESTION 55
Below is a list of characteristics and applications that can belong to either the SAN or the NAS storage network model. Can you sort the list by dragging the appropriate option to the correct box on the right? Drag each option to the appropriate box.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Place the network attribute on the left to the network Deployment Concern Category it belongs on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Match the performance metric with the group of people usually most concerned with that measure.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam D
QUESTION 1
In an Internet e-commerce, browser-based application, which method can have the greatest impact on optimizing WAN bandwidth usage?
A. Multiplexing
B. Compression
C. Content networking
D. Secure sockets layer (SSL)
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Content networking with its WCCP mechanism provides cashing of web pages and pictures which user
already loaded so if he want to load the webpage again it loads from the local cash, not from the Internet.
This optimizes WAN bandwidth usage.

QUESTION 2
The SAFE medium network design suggest which of the following modules?
A. Campus infrastructure and Internet connectivity.
B. Campus infrastructure, Internet connectivity, and network management.
C. Corporate Internet, campus, and WAN.
D. Frame/ATM and ISP edge.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Arch student guide p.6-82
QUESTION 3
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system security?
A. Host security
B. Perimeter security
C. Security monitoring
D. Policy management
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Intrusion protection: To ensure that a network remains secure, it is important to regularly test and monitor the state of security preparation. Network vulnerability scanners can proactively identify areas of weakness, and intrusion detection systems can monitor and respond to security events as the occur. Using security monitoring solutions, organizations can obtain unprecedented visibility into both the network data stream and the security posture of the network. Reference: Arch student guide p.6-22
QUESTION 4
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?
A. IPSec in tunnel mode.
B. IPSec in transport mode.
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode.
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-40, 9-41.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following IOS queuing features are recommended at present to use as queuing method when sending voice traffic?
A. WFQ
B. IO RTP Priority
C. CQ
D. PQ
E. Codec
F. LLQ
G. ARQ
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In choosing from among the many available prioritization sc hemes, the major factors to consider include
the type of traffic involved and the type of media on the WAN. For multiservice traffic over an IP WAN,
Cisco recommends low-latency queuing (LLQ) for low-speed links. LLQ allows up to 64 traffic classes with
the ability to specify, for example, strict priority queuing behavior for voice and interactive video. A
minimum bandwidth for Systems Network Architecture (SNA) data and market data feeds, and weighted
fair queuing for other traffic types.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-77.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are IOS queuing techniques? (Choose all that apply.)
A. LLQ
B. CAR
C. CQ
D. PQ
E. WFQ
F. NBAR
Correct Answer: ACDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not B,F: CAR is a term of traffic shaping. NBAR is not a queuing technique.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-22.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements best describes the characteristics of a network that is well designed for QoS?
A. Packets are classified at each router within the network. The classification is based on as many details as possible, typically using extended IP ACLs to match the packets.
B. Packets are classified based on their position from the hub and the closeness to the router. All the packets are manually classified based on their positioning and flow of the router.
C. Packets are classified based on socket address, at the router closets to the source of the traffic. The packets are characterized automatically based on flow at the routers in the middle of the network.
D. Packets are classified and marked, close to the edge of the network. The packets are treated differently based on this marking at the routers in the middle of the network.
E. Packets are classified based on variable parameters, but close to the edge of the network. The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers in the middle of the network.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Network design practice emphasizes that you should classify or mark traffic as close to the edge of the network as possible. Traffic class is a criterion for queue selection in the various queuing schemes used at interfaces within the campus switches and WAN devices. When you connect an IP phone using a single cable, the phone becomes the edge of the managed network. As the edge device, the IP phone can and should classify and mark traffic flows so that network QoS mechanisms can correctly handle the packets. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-76
QUESTION 8
Which of the following would you use in the CPE to make sure that voice packets are limited to the Committed Information Rate (CIR) and do not expand beyond the CIR of Frame Relay links?
A. Prioritization
B. Traffic shaping
C. Traffic policing
D. Segmentation
E. Classification
F. Fragmentation
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know why
CBWFQ is not recommended for voice traffic.
What will your reply be?

A. CBWFQ does not support FIFO
B. CBWFQ allows queue starvation
C. CBWFQ guarantees delay but does not guarantee bandwidth
D. CBWFQ guarantees bandwidth but does not guarantee delay
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Within the IP header, which fields of the ToS byte provide Layer 3 classification? (Choose two.)
A. CoS
B. TTL
C. SNAP
D. DSCP
E. IP Precedence
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which of the following represent the advantages of implementing QoS in Enterprise Networks? (Choose two.)
A. It decreases propagation delay
B. It provides predictable response times.
C. It supports dedicated bandwidth per application.
D. It prevents the need to increase bandwidth when adding applications.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
With regard to classification and marketing, which of the following statement is true?
A. When classifying packets at Layer 3, only Layer 3 IP Precedence markings can be used.
B. Marking features allows a router to mark any field that the classification features can examine
C. Classification features can examine different fields inside a frame or packet, unless the packet has already been marked, in which case only the marked field can be examined
D. Although classification can examine different fields inside a frame or packet, it is useful to mark the packet, so that switches and routers that later receive the packet can apply features based on the market field.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Packet classification features provide the capability to partition network traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. For example, by using the three precedence bits in the type of service (ToS) field of the IP packet header (two of the values are reserved for other purposes), you can categorize packets into a limited set of up to six traffic classes. After you classify packets, you can utilize other QoS features to assign the appropriate traffic handling policies, including congestion management, bandwidth allocation, and delay bounds for each traffic class.
Reference: ARCH student guide p.7-18.
QUESTION 13
Certkiller, the CEO of Toronto division of Certkiller .com, want to know what the characteristics of RSVP
are.
What should you tell Mrs. Bill?

A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees
B. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP
C. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
D. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Resource Reservation Protocol. Protocol that supports the reservation of resources across an IP network.
Applications running on IP end systems can use RSVP to indicate to other nodes the nature (bandwidth,
jitter, maximum burst, and so on) of the packet streams they want to receive. Also known as Resource
Reservation Setup Protocol.
Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) is an IETF-draft networking protocol dedicated to being the
facilitator and carrier of standardized QOS information and parameters.
RSVP carries generic (industry-defined) QOS parameters from end nodes (inclusive) to each QOS-aware
network device included in the path between RSVP session members.
That is, RSVP is a means by which end nodes and network devices can communicate and negotiate QOS
parameters and network usage admission.
Reference: Arch student guide p. B-23.

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following factors are typically used to determine QoS requirements for real-time applications such as IP Telephony?
A. latency
B. jitter
C. echo delay
D. two-way latency
E. propagation delay
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Voice, as a class of IP network traffic, has strict requirements concerning delay and delay variation (also
known as jitter). Compared to most data, it is relatively tolerant of loss. To meet the requirements for voice
traffic, the Cisco AVVID IP telephony solution uses a wide range of IP QoS features such as classification,
queuing, congestion detection, traffic shaping, and compression.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-76.

QUESTION 15
Which speed links is recommended for link efficiency tools to be used?
A. Links below 10 Mbps
B. Links above 2.0 Mbps
C. Links equal to 1.5 Mbps
D. Links at or below 768 Kbps
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Link efficiency interleaving is used on links at or below 768 Kbps.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-29

QUESTION 16
The ITU G.114 recommendation specifies which end-to-end delay as the threshold for high-quality voice.
A. 125 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 250 ms
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When addressing the QoS needs of voice traffic, keep in mind.
1) One-way latency should be no more than 150-200 ms.
2) Jitter should be no more than 30 ms.
3) Loss should be no more than one percent.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-45

QUESTION 17
What can be done when voice frames are delayed by large numbers of data packets at an interface?
A. Implement random early detection.
B. Implement prioritized queue service.
C. Implement aggressive fragmentation.
D. Implement token-bucket prioritization.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Allow applications to reserve bandwidth to meet their requirements. For example, a Voice over IP (VoIP)
applications can reserve 32 kbps end-to-end using this kind of service. Cisco IOS QoS uses weighted fair
queueing (WFQ) with RSVP to provide this kind of service. Guaranteed rate service is implemented using
a queue-service discipline.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-12

QUESTION 18
Which IOS QoS enhancement was created to address scalability and bandwidth guarantee issues?
A. DiffServ
B. IntServ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DiffServ and IntServ are not IOS enhancements, but models of QoS implementations. WFQ is a basic queueing mechanism.
QUESTION 19
Which type of classification mechanism does the Cisco IP phone use?
A. ISL
B. Q.931
C. G.729a
D. 802.1p/Q
E. Spanning Tree
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Streaming video applications, such as IPTV video on demand (VoD) programs, are relatively high bandwidth applications with a high tolerance for loss, delay, and delay variation. As such, significant QoS tools are not required to meet the needs of these applications. However, in most enterprise environments, these types of applications are considered more important than regular background applications (such as e-mail and web browsing) and should be given preferential treatment. A Layer 2 classification of CoS 1 in 8021.Q/802.1p environments should be used for these applications. Reference: Arch student guide p.7-48
QUESTION 20
What problem does WFQ introduce when used in networks that have delay sensitive traffic like voice and video?
A. WFQ weights by giving preference to TCP-based flows whereas voice and video is UDP/RTP-based.
B. WFW weights by giving preference to UDP-based flows whereas voice and video is TCP/RTP-based.
C. WFQ becomes too fair in the presence of many flows so that an individual flow might not get enough bandwidth.
D. WFQ provides configuration settings that only permit data traffic, which is the root cause of WFQ’s inability to provide good service to voice and video traffic.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
WFQ is to fair.
WFQ classifies traffic into different flows based on such characteristics as source and destination address,
protocol, and port and socket of the session. WFQ is a default queueing discipline on links at and below

2.048 Mbps.
QUESTION 21
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS or TFP with non-zero DSCP values.
C. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
When working in a Cisco environment, which of the following models would be utilized when you connect to a PBX system that uses non-standard signaling?
A. Translate model
B. Cross over model
C. Interprete model
D. Transport model
E. Trans-cross model
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Both incoming and outgoing calls for a voice system are governed by rules. Which set of rules governs the handling of voice system calls?
A. Voice plan
B. Route plan
C. Route pattern
D. Dial pattern
E. Call handler
F. Dial plan
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know in which of the
following Frame Relay PVC configurations that are able to carry both voice and data, is the potential voice
load better understood and partially isolated from the data load.
What would your reply be?

A. Simplex PVCs
B. Separate PVCs
C. Half Duplex PVCs
D. Duplex PVCs
E. Combined PVCs
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which codec you would recommend for higher quality voice over a data network. What would your reply be?
A. G.711
B. G.714
C. G.723
D. G.726
E. Q.728
F. G.729
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
What is the default setting that the Cisco IP phone employs to set the CoS/ToS value for voice packets?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Ports that are in the data VLAN have a default class of service (CoS) of zero. Ports that are a member of the voice VLAN have a default CoS of 5 Reference: Arch student guide p.11-49
QUESTION 27
Bandwidth used by active calls can be delimited by which of the following types of Call Admission in the Control Manager?
A. Departments
B. Regions
C. Partitions
D. Locations
E. Device Pools
F. All of the above
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
In a voice system, what set of rules governs the handling of incoming and outgoing calls?
A. A dial plan
B. The route table
C. The dial pattern
D. A call handler
E. A route pattern

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
With regard to voice calls, which tool is used to reduce IP header size?
A. cRTP
B. RTCP
C. transcoder
D. coded (compression / decompression)
E. A and D
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Header Compression – Compresses a header at various layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI)
reference model. Examples include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header compression,
compressed RTP (cRTP), and compressed Internet Protocol/User Datagram Protocol (IP/UDP).

QUESTION 30
What type of protocol is SIP?
A. Peer-client
B. Server-peer
C. Peer-to-peer
D. Client-server
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SIP stands for Session Initiation Protocol. SIP was published as a proposed standard by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) in 1999. It is a signaling protocol for multimedia session control. This includes signaling for voice, data, and video sessions between just two parties or for multiparty conferencing sessions. SIP end-points negotiate the media parameters using Session Description Protocol (SDP). SDP allows the SIP terminal or application to negotiate media type (audio, video or data), transport protocol (RTP), and media encoding method. Unlike the switched circuit network of today, IP networks developed using SIP will easily support the concepts of presence, availability, and mobility since it is part of the SIP standard. The IETF defines standard behavior for key SIP Server elements such as registration, redirect and proxy servers. SIP registration servers allow users to register with the SIP network using a SIP address that is similar to a URL or Web site location. Once a user registers, the local SIP proxy server routes messages on behalf of the user to the proper destination address. The SIP redirect server is a special server that returns a new or changed address for the destination party that may have temporarily changed locations (from work to home for example). Each of these servers have a particular behavior defined in the IETF standard and maintain session state information in a standard manner, leading to interoperability.
SIP’s main advantages over H.323 are its extensibility and flexibility for adding new features. H.323 is a more complex architecture and uses binary encoding of message parameters. The simplicity of SIP makes it easier to develop and debug applications leading to lower product costs for equipment providers. The SIP client-server and header format design is based on proven Internet standards such as Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (used on commercial web servers) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (used for internet e-mail services). The Client-Server design means that each SIP request will result in a well-defined set of SIP responses. This modular design makes it easy to extend SIP to support new operations by simply adding a new request (or SIP Method) and its corresponding response message. Because SIP is text based, it is easy to parse the various SIP commands.
QUESTION 31
When enabling traffic shaping on a Frame Relay interface supporting voice and data, which three parameters should be configured to protect voice traffic? (Choose three)
A. Bt
B. Bc
C. De
D. CIR
E. LMI
F. DLCI
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Your boss at Certkiller .com is curios as to which type of applications benefit from IP Multicast. What should you tell her? (Select three).
A. low bandwidth streaming applications with many simultaneous users
B. high bandwidth web serving applications
C. video-on-demand served from the Internet
D. scheduled classes delivered using IP-TV over multiple LAN/WAN connections
E. live radio broadcasts delivered over multiple LAN/WAN connections
F. high bandwidth, high volume transactional applications
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee Jack wants to know which
of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Select two.)

A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No vongestion avoidance, Duplicates and
Out-of order delivery.
Incorrect answer:
Not ‘Ordered delivery of packets’ since multicast delivery does not implement any ordering mechanism.

QUESTION 34
What are potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.
Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 35
You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the
following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)

A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Low end routers in use.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
F. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No vongestion avoidance, Duplicates and
Out-of order delivery.
Incorrect answer:
Not ‘Ordered delivery of packets’ since multicast delivery does not implement any ordering mechanism.

QUESTION 36
You are the network administrator at Certkiller .Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
the source address of IP multicast traffic is.
What will your reply be?

A. the assigned IP address of the source host
B. a reserved link address in the 224.0.0.0/24 LCP block
C. a GLOP address with an embedded AS number assigned to the source organization D. a source-specific (SSM) address in the 232/8 block
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
What are the characteristics of an IP Multicast source distribution tree? (Choose three)
A. Sub-optimal paths from source to all receivers.
B. Minimal memory utilization on multicast routers.
C. Router maintenance of complete path information for each source.
D. Optimal path from source to each receiver.
E. Reduced latency when compared to shared distribution trees.
F. Single root RP forwarding of all source traffic.
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: IP Multicast Source Distribution Trees 1) uses more memory (Router maintenance of complete path information for each source) 2) Supports optimal paths from source to all receivers 3) Minimizes delay Reference: Arch student guide p.8-20
QUESTION 38
What are two potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.
Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 39
Which of the following components would you most probably encounter in the VPN/Remote Access module? (Choose three.)
A. ISDN
B. IDS
C. Firewall
D. PSTN
E. Access server
F. All of the above.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which VPN management characteristic would you use when you want to make sure that the network in operation has the least disruption of service when topology changes are made?
A. Auto setup
B. Remote management
C. Dynamic reconfiguration
D. Automatic reconfiguration.
E. Path MTU discovery
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the
device.
Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17

QUESTION 41
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which protocol at Layer 3 can be used to provide
data integrity, privacy, and security on an IP based VPN.
What would your reply be?

A. GRE
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. L2TP
E. Kerberos
F. MD5
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IPSec is a set of standards that specify various options for providing VPN data privacy. Packet
authentication protects the information flow from being tampered with or even repeated, thereby minimizing
disruption to the communication.
An IPSec networking architecture has been specifically designed to address these issues. The framework
set forth by the IPSec working group, Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), pofides data integrity checks
for tamper detection, source address verification, and data privacy for the packet data nad data path.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-9.

QUESTION 42
You are contracted as a network administrator the company, Certkiller Ltd. Recently you received complaints by users that they are experiencing performance problems on the company’s site-to-site VPN network. Upon investigating the complaints you find that the VPN connection uses IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links. What can be done to address this problem successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
C. Reset the MTU value to lower than 1400 bytes.
D. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
E. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
F. None of the above.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Which Cisco Works VPN/Security Management Solution will you use to gain access to devices and the displays that will show their real-time status as well as their operational and configuration functions through a web browser?
A. Resource Manager (RME)
B. VPN Monitor
C. Cisco View
D. Omni-vision
E. IDS Host Sensor
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution includes VPN Monitor.
VPN Monitor: Collects, stores, and reports on IPsec-based site-to-site and remote-access VPNs. VPN
Monitor supports the Cisco VPN concentrators and routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-19.

QUESTION 44
Which network management tool helps network administrators develop and maintain new and existing traffic filters on Cisco devices?
A. CiscoView
B. ACL Manager
C. Cisco Netsys
D. Resource Manager
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ACL Manager manages the access lists of Cisco devices. ACLM provides tools to set up and manage IP and IPX filtering and device access control. These tools include: access list editors, policy template managers, network and service class managers for scalability, access list navigation tools for troubleshooting, optimization of access lists, and automated distribution of access list updates.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-25
QUESTION 45
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the device
weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration would be.
What would your reply be?

A. 800
B. 5000
C. 6500
D. 2500
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The clustering option relate to the grouping of devices, usually phones and gateways. With the limits imposed on a single CallManager (device weights of 5,000 per CallManager, not IP phones) and good design practices, the minimum configuration consists of two CallManagers, which will support up to 2,500 IP phones. Cisco recommends four CallManagers to support 5,000 IP phones and up to six CallManagers to support up to 10,000 IP phones. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-28
QUESTION 46
Which of the following signaling techniques is used amongst CallManager clusters for intercluster calls?
A. SS7
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. BRI2
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
maximum number of CallManager servers you can have in a cluster is.
What would your reply be?

A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 56
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not. Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a cluster based on the number of users. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43
QUESTION 49
Which three are used in configuration Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three)
A. route list
B. route group
C. gateway list
D. route keeper
E. route pattern
F. first digit pattern
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which of the following are functions form part of Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)? (Choose four.)
A. Fault tolerance
B. Network address translation
C. Load balancing
D. Scalability
E. Remote management
F. Service assurance
G. Redundancy allowance
Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco routers and switches incorporate Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) software to enable content routing capabilities. Additionally, Cisco offers content routers specifically designed to support large-scale mirrored web sites. Content routing routes user requests to the replicated-content site (typically a mirror site) that can serve them most quickly and efficiently. The content routing software redirects a user request to the closest (best) replicated-content site, based on network delay, using a software process called boomerang. The content routing software load balances up to 500 sites for each domain it is configured to support. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-6
QUESTION 51
Mentioned below are several tools. Which of them is a web-browser based tool designed to provide administrative access for content networking?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Hypertext Administration Design (HAD)
C. Access Point
D. Content Distribution Manager (CDM)
E. Self-Organizing Distributed Architecture (SODA)
F. Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Cisco Content Distribution Manager (CDM) is a web-browser-based tool that provides the administrative function for content networking. With the CDM, you can configure and monitor Content Engines, import and preview media, and generate media URLs for access from web sites. You also set maximum bandwidth usage over the WAN from the CDM to the remote Content Engines, as well as maximum LAN bandwidth usage from the Content
Engines to end-user desktops. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-9
QUESTION 52
You are a technician at Certkiller . You were instructed to place Content Engines on the Certkiller network. Where would you place it when you are dealing with transparent caching?
A. Close to the servers.
B. Behind the main server.
C. At the Internet edge.
D. In front of web server farms.
E. Close to the end users.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
As a network consultant at Certkiller .com you are required to speed up services for external users and
minimize load on network servers on a LAN.
Which of the following should you implement?

A. VPN networking
B. CSPM
C. content networking
D. fault tolerance
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 54
You are the network administrator at Certkiller .Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
enterprise caching mode eliminates the need for Layer 4 switches or WCCP enabled routers to intercept
user requests.
What will your reply be?

A. transparent
B. proxy
C. reverse proxy
D. direct
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In proxy mode, end-user web browsers need to be explicitly configured to the IP address or host name of the Content Engine, and there is no need for additional hardware such as Layer 4 switches or Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)-enabled routers to intercept user requests, as in transparent caching. Enterprises are normally interested in deploying transparent network caching, but some enterprises may have a legacy requirement for a proxy (nontransparent) cache. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-12
QUESTION 55
Match the Security activity on the left to the solution it pertains to on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Match the world on the left to the category for proving a design implementation it belongs.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Match the Layer 2 roaming characteristic to the wireless LAN security implementation model it applies.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Source CCDP Self Study (Designing Cisco Network Architectures ARCH), page 420 table 10-2 Security
Implementation Model Comparison Layer 2 Roaming explains exactly for “WLAN LAN Extension via EAP”,
“WLAN LAN Extension via IPSec”, and “WLAN Static WEP”.
Exam E
QUESTION 1
Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The CDM enables you to configure bandwidth and distribution settings such that the streaming content will no interfere with other network traffic. It is also the central control point where the CEs that will carry the broadcast media are identified. The CDM is typically located in the server farm Reference: Arch student guide p.12-42
QUESTION 2
Which of the following protocols is able to provide block access to remote storage over WAN links?
A. SCSI-FP
B. SIP
C. iSCSI
D. FCIP
E. eSCSI
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which device
will act as a bridge between a Fiber Channel SAN and an IP network.
What would your reply be?

A. Storage Router
B. Switching hub
C. FC-HBA attached host
D. FC Switch
E. NAS GE Switch
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco storage router delivers redundant iSCSI paths to a pair of Fibre Channel switches. iSCSI takes
advantage of the connection-oriented TCP protocol for reliable service.
Ethernet was already part of the IT network. This meant trained personnel were on board, and simplified

the storage networking installation shown in the figure. Cost was an important factor in choosing iSCSI. Because the research facility already had TCP/IP and Gigabit Ethernet networks installed, the iSCSI solution fit their budget and met their storage networking needs. Reference: Arch student guide p.13-33
QUESTION 4
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
which protocol encapsulates Fiber Channel frames so that they can be transported transparently over an
IP network.
What will your reply be?

A. iSCSO
B. FCIP
C. SCSI-FP
D. eSCSI
E. CIFS
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: An important technology for linking Fibre Channel SANs is FCIP. FCIP and iSCSI are complementary solutions for enabling company-wide access to storage. FCIP transparently interconnects Fibre Channel SAN islands over IP networks through FCIP tunnels, while iSCSI allows IP-connected hosts to access iSCSI or FC-connected storage. Reference: Arch student guide p.13-15
QUESTION 5
You are a network technician at Certkiller .com. The database for Certkiller .com requires continuous
uptime (24×7) and processes many write-intensive applications

from many different sources. The current Certkiller .com LAN network operates at approximately 50%
utilization, with peaks that exceed 70%.
Which storage networking model would you include your network upgrade design?

A. Metro Optical
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. universal IP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which IP storage network solution is best suited for high-volume, write-intensive, transaction-driven applications?
A. Storage area networking
B. Network-attached storage
C. Local storage
D. Metro optical storage
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SAN provides block-oriented access to native disk storage. It is based on a shared or switched
infrastructure, often Fibre Channel. You can extend SAN to an ip infrastructure.
New protocols and products are emerging that allow the integration of SANs with the IP network.
Historically, SANs have been well suited to high-volume, write-intensive transaction-driven applications.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-7.

QUESTION 7
In which scenario would a SAN storage solution be a better choice than an iSCSI-based NAS solution?
A. Traditional file-sharing applications.
B. Fast growing data storage needs.
C. Applications that cannot tolerate block level, storage access latency.
D. Highly reads-intensive applications.
E. Web serving applications with many active pages.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
What are disadvantages to storage directly attached to the application servers? (Choose three)
A. Reliability
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Manageability
E. Available bandwidth
F. Access speed
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: System administrators are faced with the challenging task to managing storage and making it scalable to accommodate future needs. With storage directly attached to the server, scalability is difficult. The storage expansion capability is limited to the capacity of the server (for example, as measured by the number of I/O controllers and devices per controller configured is the server). The nature of the small computer system (SCSI) bus commonly used to connect commodity disks to a commodity server makes it difficult to allocate more disk storage without interrupting and rebooting the server, and thus affecting applications.
C: No redundancy is provided Reference: Arch student guide p.13-6. Incorrect answers:
A: Reliability would be good.
E: bandwidth would be excellent.
F: access speed would be excellent.
QUESTION 9
Which protocol enables the location of a fully synchronized hot backup Fiber Channel storage solution at a remote site over existing optical WAN links?
A. iSCSI
B. SCSI-FCP
C. FCIP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can use FCIP to connect two geographically dispersed Fibre Channel storage arrays

for the purpose of synchronous data storage. If the local storage array becomes unavailable, an
application could utilize the FCIP link to access the data on the “hot backup” storage system at the remote
site. It is also possible to implement remote tape backups to further protect customers’ valuable information
in the event of disaster at the primary site.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-16

QUESTION 10
Why is G.729a commonly used instead of G.729?
A. It receives a higher MOS score.
B. It uses less complex algorithms.
C. It uses more complex algorithms.
D. It samples speech pattern more often.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
What are two benefits of a high availability network? (Choose two)
A. Improves user satisfaction.
B. Minimized lost opportunity costs.
C. Increases network manageability.
D. Reduces hardware and software costs.
E. Reduces information technology (IT) costs.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11b?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 1.44 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 11 Mbps data.
E. 1.44 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
You would choose IS-IS for a routing protocol to meet the following two requirements. (Choose two)
A. Expansion of the backbone area is a concern.
B. Dial-up connections are required.
C. The network has NBMA connections.
D. The network is very large.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a multi-vendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
E. EIRGP
F. BGP
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three)
A. Rate limit traffic.
B. Configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence.
C. Isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs.
D. Use low latency queuing at the source.
E. Classify and mark traffic close to the source.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
With which of the following does the Cisco Product Advisor help customers? (Choose three) A. design options
B. hardware devices
C. software options
D. hardware options
E. protocol components

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which statement about fully redundant topologies is true?
A. Public bandwidth can be utilized on an as-needed basis.
B. Key components can be replaced within the device without turning power off.
C. Devices can be replaced in the network without interrupting the network operation.
D. Each device provides redundant backup within the device for each of its key components.
E. A backup exists for every link and for every device between the client and the server.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11a?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 64 Mbps data.
E. 12 GHz frequency and 12 Mbps data.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two QoS functions are used to prioritize voice over data? (Choose two)
A. voice activity detection
B. queue servicing
C. classification
D. fragmentation
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which three routing protocols can minimize the number of routes advertised in the network? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. BGP
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which of the following modules of the Enterprise Campus is NOT considered important to the scalability of the campus network?
A. building distribution
B. building access
C. campus backbone
D. network management
E. server farm
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose three)
A. dial plans
B. dialled numbers
C. voice mail prompts
D. phone features
E. ring tones
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
What does ATM do that Frame Relay does not?
A. packet looping
B. priority queuing
C. packet forwarding
D. circuit emulation
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not D: The following Cisco URL describes the four-port circuit emulation cards available for the 2600
router.

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps259/products_data_sheet09186a00802045f5.html
Since the 2600 does not support ATM, but it does support Frame Relay, it is safe to say that circuit
emulation can be supported over Frame Relay.
Note: This topic does not appear in the ARCH v1.2 course notes. We believe it relates to an older version
of the course.

QUESTION 24
What happens when packets traversing the network exceed the MTU of an IPSec/VPN interface?
A. They trigger a link failure.
B. They are all discarded and re-transmitted.
C. They are unable to be sent.
D. They come fragmented.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which type of disaster recovery application protects from user error or data corruption, as well as hardware failure?
A. disk mirroring
B. replication
C. backup and off-site storage
D. disk duplexing
E. RAID 5 stripe sets
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
What are two characteristics of shaping, but not policing? (Choose two)
A. It forces TCP resends.
B. It is typically performed on enterprise egress.
C. It is rate limiting with no buffering mechanism.
D. It can adapt to Frame Relay BECN and FECN.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Certkiller .com is a global insurance company with headquarters in Mexico City. The campus there is made of a number of buildings located in the same vicinity. In 2003, a new building, Building Certkiller 12A was added. The additional building houses approximately 1000 employees. Rather than deploy a private branch exchange (PBX) in the new building, Certkiller .com has decided to implement an IP telephony solution. External calls will be carried across a MAN link to another building, where a gateway connects into the worldwide PBX network of Certkiller .com. Voice mail and unified messaging components are required and all IP phones and workstations should be on separate VLANs and IP subnets. Which IP technology deployment best suits their need?
A. single-site
B. multisite with centralized call processing
C. multisite with distributed call processing
D. clustering over the WAN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
In the Enterprise Composite Network model, which Enterprise Campus Infrastructure Module submodule provides aggregation of wiring closets, and performing routing, quality of service, and access control?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Backbone
D. Edge Distribution
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Certkiller .com is a small company with 25 agents stationed around Spain. It is necessary for these agents
to transmit customer data securely from their homes and from their customer sites.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?

A. Individual Remote Access IPSec-based VPN
B. Leased Line T1 Connection
C. Dial-up ISDN Access
D. Site-to-Site IPSec-based VPN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30
In which two instances would static routing be preferred over the use of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. in small networks that are planning to grow
B. in networks using on demand routing that are not expected to grow significantly
C. in networks where a total knowledge of the network is not known
D. in a network that has a few very large sites and a single connection to the Internet
E. when routing to and from stub networks
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which two types of attacks are addressed at the Building Access sub-module of the Enterprise Campus infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. viruses
B. packet sniffers
C. IP spoofing
D. password attacks
E. unauthorized access
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which three components are part of the Intelligent Network Services provided by the Cisco AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. QoS
B. work force optimization
C. security
D. e-business infrastructure
E. IP telephony
F. IP multicasting
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose two.)
A. multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch office
C. dual Wan links to the regional office
D. dual Wan links to another branch office
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
The Acme Anvil Corporation has two manufacturing sites and six sales offices. Each sales office requires 25 public IP addresses, and each manufacturing facility requires 210 public IP addresses. If the company plans for 20 percent growth for each facility, how many Class C addresses will it require?
A. five
B. four
C. six
D. eight
E. seven
F. three
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?
A. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
B. serialization delay of 10 ms
C. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. jitter of 30 ms or less
E. packet loss of 2 percent or less
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
What type of Call Admission control in CallManager allows for limits to the bandwidth consumed by active calls?
A. locations
B. regions
C. partitions
D. device Pools
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which routing protocol best fits these requirements? – Supported by multiple router vendors – Requires minimum router CPU and memory resources – Uses a simple routing metric – Supports manual or automatic route summarization
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. RIPv2
D. IGRP
E. EIGRP
F. BGP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
One of the business requirements of New Garden Health, Inc. is a secure connection to its business partners. Which four components should be included in the topology diagram of the VPN module? (Choose four.)
A. public servers
B. VPN network management servers
C. firewall
D. perimeter router
E. IDS/IPS
F. VPN concentrator
Correct Answer: CDEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39

Refer to the exhibit. CCC Machine has decided to deploy a Voice over IP solution in its main campus headquarters. The design calls for the insertion of a Cisco CallManager, Cisco IP phones, and a voice gateway. Due to the new application requirements, what three changes should be made to the access layer of the CCC network design? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the 3524-PWR access switches to ensure Voice over IP packets are given preferential treatment by enabling voice traffic to use separate queues.
B. Since end-user workstations cannot run CDP, disable it on the IP phones to improve performance and increase security.
C. The trust boundary should be extended from the 3524-PWR access switches to include the IP phones.
D. A new voice-only VLAN should be established and extended from the IP phones throughout the campus.
E. Ingress rate-limiting should be configured on 3524-PWR access switches to ensure Voice over IP bandwidth guarantees.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
A network designer will be incorporating IP telephony into a large company with over 4,000 phones. What two recommendations does Cisco make about the server(s) used to store configuration files, device loads (operating code), and ring types for downloading? (Choose two.)
A. Create a dedicated TFTP server.
B. Create one FTP server per dedicated database publisher.
C. Incorporate multiple load-balanced FTP servers to replace any TFTP servers.
D. Create multiple load-balanced TFTP servers.
E. Create a backup TFTP server in case the main FTP server fails.
F. Incorporate a dedicated FTP server to replace any TFTP servers.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
:

Morris Prosthetics is having problems with serialization delay on its WAN links.
The links currently carry less than 768 Kbps. Which Layer 2 mechanism can help solve the problem?

A. Integrated Services module
B. Compressed Real-Time Transfer Protocol
C. link fragmentation and interleaving
D. differentiated service code points
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. autonomous-route injection
B. single run
C. stub domain EBGP
D. multi-homed
E. direct BGP peering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
What are three features of the Cisco Product Advisor tool? (Choose three.)
A. It includes a wireless product search category.
B. It covers select switches from the Catalyst 2800 Series through the Catalyst 8500 Series.
C. It covers only select routers from the 800 Series through the 7400 Series.
D. It can be used in a novice, question-and-answer mode.
E. You can begin searching categories that include routing, switching, and IP telephony.
F. It narrows down Cisco networking products based on product cost and network requirements.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Acme Nutrition manufactures a wide variety of vitamin supplements. It has a single manufacturing facility
with 3 regional warehouses and 16 district sales offices.
Currently the manufacturing facility requires 210 IP addresses; each warehouse requires 51 IP addresses;
each district sales office requires 11 IP addresses; and the IP WAN requires 38 IP addresses. If Acme
Nutrition plans for 20 percent growth in facilities, how many Class C subnets will the district sales offices
require?

A. 19 (3 from the warehouse range and 16 from a separate Class C address)
B. 18 (2 from the Warehouse range and 14 from a separate Class C address)
C. 16 (3 from the warehouse range and 13 from a separate Class C address)
D. 20 (4 from the warehouse range,15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
E. 19 (3 from the warehouse block, 15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
F. 16 (all from a separate Class C address)
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Captain Marion’s Videography delivers Internet digital video using 9 MPEG video encoders and a statistical multiplexer. Channels are packed into a 6-MHz channel bandwidth.The MPEG multiplexer monitors and allocates the appropriate bandwidth. The multiplexer measures available bandwidth and feeds back signaling to the MPEG encoders. Coding rates are then increased or decreased. Packet generation from each input source is controlled such that no packets are dropped and no extra null packets can be generated.These bandwidth and traffic requirements work best with which mode of video delivery?
A. open looped
B. quality equalization
C. VoD delivery
D. fixed broadcast
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
The Schuyler and Livingston Iron Works has been working on getting its network security under control. It has set up VPN with IPSec links to its suppliers. It has installed network vulnerability scanners to proactively identify areas of weakness, and it monitors and responds to security events as they occur. It also employs extensive access control lists, stateful firewall implementations, and dedicated firewall appliances. The company has been growing very fast lately and wants to make sure it is up to date on security measures. Which two areas of security would you advise the company to strengthen? (Choose two.)
A. security management
B. perimeter security
C. identity
D. intrusion protection
E. secure connectivity
F. intrusion detection
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The right answer shoul be identity and intrusion protection (C,D) because security management is covered
by the vulnerability scanner and monitor.

QUESTION 47
Which Cisco voice application includes Cisco IP IVR, Cisco IP Integrated Contact Distribution (ICD), and Cisco IP Queue Manager?
A. Cisco Conference Connection
B. Cisco Integration Manager
C. Cisco Works
D. Cisco Emergency Responder
E. Cisco VoIP Integration Application
F. Cisco Customer Response Solution
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which benefit of the Cisco AVVID framework improves productivity by enabling comprehensive tools?
A. intelligence
B. interoperability
C. innovation
D. integration
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most performance enhancing, cost effective, and growth oriented media for the connections for the NAS portion of this storage network design?
A. Gigabit Ethernet
B. FCIP
C. Fiber Channel
D. EtherChannel

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which four QoS design requirements are the closest to Cisco recommendations for VoIP traffic? (Choose four).
A. serialization delay of 100 ms to 150 ms
B. less than 30 ms of jitter
C. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. 150 bps (+ Layer 2 overhead) of guaranteed bandwidth for voice control traffic per call
E. less than 1 percent of packet loss
F. fixed 64 kbps of guaranteed priority bandwidth per call
Correct Answer: BCDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two of the following Cisco router platforms support Multicast Distributed Fast Switching? (Choose two.)
A. 12000 series
B. 7200 series with NSE-1
C. 3600 series
D. 7500 series
E. ISR 1800/2800/3800 series
F. 10000 series
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
When designing the WAN module within the enterprise edge, which document is used to specify the connectivity and performance agreements with the service provider?
A. RFC
B. SOW
C. RFP
D. SLC/SLA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Match the ISP’s definitions (on the left) to the correct terms on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Match the attribute on the left to the services codepoint model it describes on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Match the most appropriate definition on the left to the Layer 2 WAN technology term it describes on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Match the definition on the left to the form of NAT it describes on the right.
Select and Place: Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Match the AVVID element on the left to the Cisco AVVID framework component it belongs to the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam F
QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct in regards to the Content Distribution Manager? (Choose two.)
A. It allows configurable bandwidth and distribution settings so content will not interfere with other network traffic.
B. It is utilized in content networking for e-commerce.
C. It is used to cache selected content from origin servers and delivers specific content to requesting users.
D. It is used to load balance and direct traffic to the appropriate CE.
E. It enables organizations to deliver live broadcasts to desktops and meeting rooms.
F. It is utilized in content networking for streaming media.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Users at Certkiller .com began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer-to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use class-based marking to mark the peer-to-peer traffic to DSCP 0
B. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
C. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
D. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
E. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When designing an IP addressing scheme, how much reserve capacity does Cisco recommend to plan for in the IP address space?
A. 10-30 percent
B. 25-50 percent
C. 15-35 percent
D. 20-40 percent
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which conference bridge supports multiple low-bit-rate stream types?
A. hardware
B. Q.711
C. VoIP q.933
D. software
E. G.729
F. Skinny

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What are three benefits to tuning BGP parameters? (Choose three.)
A. When there are two alternate paths to the same target network and they have the same relative performance, you can direct traffic to the least expensive path.
B. It helps reduce the amount of traffic an ISP has to pay for on its own network.
C. Cold-potato routing keeps traffic on the network of an ISP as short a time as possible, delivering the traffic to the ingress point as close to the target as possible.
D. Hot-potato routing directs traffic to the closest ingress point of the network. Traffic remains on the router for a shorter period of time. This is true even when an even more optimal path exists.
E. In order to avoid routing loops, all BGP routers in the same AS must ultimately make the best routing decision for their own directly connected network.
F. Policy routing is often used to balance traffic across multiple links.
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which routing protocol supports a flexible area structure using routing levels one and two?
A. IGRP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIPv2
F. IS-IS
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A security analysis at Certkiller .com recommends installing an IDS appliance and a firewall appliance. These appliances should connect directly into a Layer 3 switch. A load balancer and SSL termination have also been recommended.Potomac’s management have expressed concern over the cost. You suggest using integrated blades. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of your design proposal? (Choose two.)
A. This configuration can inhibit failover in high-availability scenarios without a high degree of management.
B. Using integrated blades would only require two devices.
C. Increased usage of standalone devices is cost-effective.
D. Since integrated blades are rarely used in high-availability failover scenarios, this creates a support issue.
E. The data center would need several devices to achieve its goal.
F. Putting all security devices in a single chassis provides a single point of failure.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. Which routing protocol would do the best job of meeting these requirements?
A. EIGRP
B. RIPv2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. RIP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. An IT department has configured their Edge as follows:A PIX firewall:- Using appliance
form- Using OSPF- Six interfaces- One interface connecting to the outside via the Internet router- Three inside interfaces connecting to the internal network- A DMZ interface connecting to the e-mail and web servers On their outbound router (where they once had a high incidence of packet drop), they now have: -10 Mbps Metro Ethernet link- 10/100BASE-FX (for growth) In picking an ISP they are looking for: – Growth capacity- RedundancyGiven this scenario, which ISP is the best fit?
A. ISP A
B. ISP B
C. ISP C
D. ISP A or ISP C
E. ISP B or ISP C
F. ISP A or ISP B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What are the two primary kinds of communication within a Cisco CallManager cluster? (Choose two.)
A. mechanism for distributing the database
B. intercluster CDP
C. propagation and replication of run-time data
D. intercluster routing
E. registration, admission, and status (RAS) messages
F. keepalives between the Call Managers within the cluster
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by-hop (router-to-router) basis?
A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor
B. Device Fault Manager
C. CiscoView
D. Internetwork Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What are three primary activities in the cycle of building an enterprise security strategy? (Choose three.)
A. activity audit
B. ACL documentation
C. administration
D. technology implementation
E. policy establishment
F. feature evaluation
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Acme Costume Company is connecting its manufacturing facilties to its stores with a small point-to-multipoint Frame Relay IP WAN. Little growth is expected in the network infrastructure.Up to this point the company has been using a dial-on-demand network. Dropping WAN costs, however, have led them to consider using a high-speed WAN solution to improve access. Which two routing protocols could you deploy to support the new larger network while keeping costs down? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IGRP
E. RIPv2
F. IS-IS
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14

Refer to the exhibit. A central site WAN edge router is connected to the remote site WAN edge router over a Frame Relay PVC. The central site has a CIR of 384 kbps and the remote site has a CIR of 128 kbps. Traffic flowing across this Frame Relay WAN link includes VoIP, SQL, FTP, HTTP, Citrix, Telnet, and other best-effort class traffic. Which three QoS mechanisms should be implemented on the WAN edge router Frame Relay WAN link in the outbound direction? (Choose three.)
A. class-based markings
B. LLQ
C. class-based traffic policing
D. Frame Relay traffic shaping
E. Class-Based RTP header compression on the voice traffic class
F. class-based WRED on the voice traffic class
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which three features are network design requirements that indicate a need for a highly available network? (Choose three.)
A. improved customer loyalty
B. minimum network equipment costs
C. network intrusion detection
D. support of mission-critical applications
E. reduced productivity losses
F. increased use of streaming media
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Certkiller .com. amultinational company, has Internet gateways in multiple countries and an internal IP WAN. They are designing an IP addressing scheme.Which are the three most important issues that need to be considered? (Choose three.)
A. Is hierarchy needed within the IP addressing plan?
B. How many locations are in the network and what is their size?
C. How will VLANs be deployed for the customer?
D. Which locations will provide redundant links to the Internet?
E. What types of IP addresses are required, private, public, or both?
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Certkiller .com specializes in home theater products. Their campus network has four buildings in close proximity and another building about four miles away. The network accommodates close to 500 marketing, sales, finance, and engineering employees.The IT staff wants to test the the current FDDI backbone to see if it inhibits network performance. In addition, they need to ensure that a new database order entry application will not negatively impact the network. Which testing method will best meet Burgouyne’s needs?
A. Set up a prototype on the live system during off-hours.
B. Set up a prototype network on the live system using NetPredictor.
C. Use NetPredictor to test the capacity and to collect packet traces to predict future performance.
D. Set up a pilot network to simulate their network, and add users to show the difference.
E. Set up a pilot network to simulate their network, and collect packet traces.
F. Set up a prototype network in a lab.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Certkiller .com is a parts distributor doing business worldwide. The IT staff is considering a network upgrade. The main network load is a CRM application used around the clock. Equipment funding is very liberal, but the IT staff has limited assistance time. The staff insists on full network design proof and verification.What is the best way to prototype this design?
A. Integrate the test with the production network during business hours.
B. Set up a test network that will operate during off-peak hours.
C. Use a test network in a lab.
D. Integrate testing with the production network during off-hours.
E. Implement live during off-peak hours (although because of the around the clock nature of the business, you will not be able to test very well).
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three components comprise the AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. intelligent network services
B. common network infrastructure
C. interoperability
D. network solutions
E. abstracted integration
F. advanced artificial intelligence
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20

Refer to the exhibit. At Certkiller .com, you have just interviewed the IT manager who has this list of technical issues about the company’s Campus LAN. Which three device technologies will best solve these problems? (Choose three.)
A. ATM switches
B. switch blades
C. routers
D. VPN concentrators
E. LAN switches F. IPX firewalls

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which two of the following codecs are recommended in a VoIP network design when support for fax/ modem traffic is required? (Choose two.)
A. G.729 with VAD and no EC
B. G.711
C. G.726r32
D. GSM 6.10
E. GSM.711 with no VAD and no EC
F. G.729
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Cisco’s website contains an article about configuring fax support http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/ product/software/ios122/122newft/122t/122t11/faxapp/ which states that the only possible options are:
G.711 with no VAD and no EC G.726 at 32K (G.726r32)
QUESTION 22
Which three Enterprise Composite Network modules are sub-modules should be included in your design? Select three.
A. Server Farm
B. Internet Connectivity
C. Campus Core
D. Edge Distribution
E. Management
F. WAN
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which IP addressing approach will meet Certkiller .com requirements?
A. Certkiller .com needs an address space larger than a single Class C IP address.
B. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with EIGPR as the internal routing protocol.
C. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with IGPR as the internal routing protocol.
D. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with the current routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which Layer 2 technology would you recommend to Certkiller .com in your WAN design?
A. PPP
B. Frame Relay
C. ADSL
D. ATM
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Frame Relay meets all clients needs.
Frame Relay is a switched data-link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits using HDLC-
delivered encapsulation between connected devices. Frame Relay is more bandwidth efficient than X.25,
the protocol for which it is generally considered a replacement. Frame Relay provides cost-effective, high-
speed, low-latency virtual circuits between sites. Frame Relay provides cost-effective, high-speed, low-
latency virtual circuits between sites. Frame Relay runs over DS0, T1/E1, and serial links.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-30

QUESTION 25
Your boss at Certkiller .com asks you when the site-to-site access model is appropriate. What should you tell him?
A. for multiple ISDN connections
B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections
C. for a group of users in the same vicinity sharing a connection
D. for use by mobile users
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Case Study FOO, Scenario
FOO is a manufacturer and importer of fasteners, including nuts and bolts. The main campus is composed of three buildings that are less than 200 meters apart. All campus wiring is Category 5e copper. Network access and distribution devices are currently 100 Mbps hubs, and the core is a 100 Mbps Layer-2 switch.
Development of the network has taken place over the past eight years in a series of
steps that involved minimal planning, with the exception of the WAN links, which have been recently redesigned. The current network is characterized by slow response and frequent outages. The engineering department uses a database server located in the engineering building. This server processes heavy local traffic, that keeps the local network at 70% of bandwidth. Accounting uses commercial packages for general ledger, accounts payable, and accounts receivable; these packages are located on a server in the administration building. This server processes heavy local traffic and light traffic from other buildings. All other servers are located in the information-processing center. All employees use e-mail located on one server in the information-processing center. There is a web server that is available for public use and an internal web server that is available to employees for company news items and for human resource applications, such as an internal jobs-available database. The external web server is in a new Corporate Internet module. The internal network traffic is expected to grow at 10% per year for the next five years. The IT manager of FOO has asked you tot design an up-to-date, high-performance, scalable, secure, manageable, and reliable campus network to meet the strategic goals of FOO. Finances are limited, so the design needs to meet the requirements but with minimum cost.
Case Study FOO (3 questions)
QUESTION 26
Which three modules of the Enterprise Network model will you include in your design? Select three.
A. The Campus Core module.
B. The Edge Distribution module
C. The Management module
D. The Corporate Internet module
E. The Server Farm module
F. The Building Distribution module
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which recommendations would you make based on the provided parameters? Select two.
A. Use existing copper wiring to the desktop.
B. Use existing copper wiring between the buildings.
C. Use existing single mode fiber to the desktop.
D. Use existing multi-mode fiber to the desktop.
E. Use existing single mode fiber between the buildings.
F. Use existing multi-mode fiber between the buildings.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Case Study BAR, Scenario
BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Where would you locate the devices for the Management Module and Server Farm?
A. In the Administration building
B. In the Engineering building
C. In the Information-processing building
D. in all buildings
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Case Study BAR, Scenario
BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Which two features of the Server Farm module will directly address the problems that the sales department claims have caused lost sales? Select two.
A. firewalls
B. dual-homed servers
C. caching systems
D. mid-range switches
E. redundant switching and links
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B. Dual-homed servers – Addresses hardware failure E. Redundant switching and links – Provides more
than one path between server and switches.
Incorrect:

B. Firewall – Nothing to do with availability of servers.

C. Caching Systems – Content Switching not mentioned as an option.

D. Mid-Range Switch – Does not address the availability of servers.

QUESTION 30
Case Study BAR, Scenario
BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Which two properties of the Server Farm module directly address the concern expressed by Certkiller, the owner of BAR? Select two.
A. performance
B. security
C. availability
D. scalability
E. manageability
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C. Availability – The systems need to be up and accessible to customers 24 hours a day.
Up time, MTBF and MTTR are important factors when dealing with critical business functions and services.

D. Scalability – The Server Farm Module scalability addresses increasing traffic, and not current traffic
which would be performance. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all
the additional traffic to the new servers.
Incorrect Answers:

A. Performance of Server Farm not an issue – servers have experienced outages.

B. Security is not mentioned – Although one should investigate current security policies.

E. No mention of manageability.

QUESTION 31
Case Study BAR, Scenario
BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Because BAR plans on consolidating its server applications, which feature can be included in the network redesign proposal to improve scalability?
A. mid-range switches
B. firewalls
C. server load balancing
D. dual-homed servers
E. redundant switching and links
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Mid-range switches, such as a 4500, provides layer 2/3/4 functions and support QoS. This is a proposal from Cisco and not some other vendor. Provide the Cisco solution!
QUESTION 32
Case Study BAR, Scenario BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Which Server Farm feature could be added to the BAR network to reduce the time that customers wait for catalog pages and pictures to display when customers access them from the web?
A. redundant switching and links
B. mid-range switches
C. dual-homed servers
D. firewalls
E. caching systems,

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When using cashing systems, the pages and pictures on them which user already loaded in the past are
cashed and in the future if he wants to access this page it is loaded from the local cash, not from the
website. It is much faster and it safes the Internet connection costs.

QUESTION 33
CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable.
Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is
predicted .
The Certkiller school buildings are as follows.
One adminislralion building:
-45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools:
-15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle
schools:
-25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high
school:
-35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs’

How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the elementary schools?

A. a set of public IP addresses with one Class B address for each elementary school
B. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for each elementary school
C. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted between the elementary schools
D. a set of public IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted between the elementary schools

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable.
Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is
predicted .
The Certkiller school buildings are as follows.
One adminislralion building:
-45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools:
-15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle
schools:
-25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high
school:
-35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs’

How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the Admin building?

A. private IP addresses with a public Class C address range and public addresses for the web server
B. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address subnetted for the administration building and public addresses for the web servers
C. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for the administration building and public addresses for the web servers.
D. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for the administration building and private addresses for the web servers

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable.
Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is
predicted .
The Certkiller school buildings are as follows.
One adminislralion building:
-45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools:
-15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle
schools:
-25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high
school:
-35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs’

How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the middle schools?

A. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C address ranges for each middle school
B. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C address ranges for each middle school
C. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted for each middle school
D. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C addresses subnetted between the two middle schools

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable.
Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is
predicted .
The Certkiller school buildings are as follows.
One adminislralion building:
-45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools:
-15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle
schools:
-25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high
school:
-35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs’

How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the high school?

A. a set of private IP addresses with three Class C address ranges for the high school
B. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C address ranges for the high school
C. a set of private IP addresses with three Class C addresses subnetted for the high school
D. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C addresses subnetted for the high school

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Case Study Certkiller Mexico, Scenario
Certkiller Mexico is planning to offer a multimedia Internet video-relationship solution. It will provide streaming video services, VolP services, and an interactive video dating service. The business plan calls for three separate divisions: 1) Streaming video 2)VoIP 3) Interactive video Each division will have its own network resources.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate voice over IP traffic?(Choose two.)
A. Voice traffic is variable delay insensitive provided a large enough elasticity buffer exists in the voice endpoints .
B. Voice traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Voice traffic is insensitive to dropping of voice packets since modern codecs use prediction algorithms capable of rebuilding missing sounds and words.
D. Since voice calls configured for modern codecs use such a small amount of bandwidth (12kbps) per call, it is generally not a requirement to guarantee bandwidth for voice traffic.
E. Link fragmentation and interleaving techniques should be applied on all WAN interfaces with bandwidth less than 768kbps.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Case Study Certkiller Mexico, Scenario
Certkiller Mexico is planning to offer a multimedia Internet video-relationship solution. It will provide streaming video services, VolP services, and an interactive video dating service. The business plan calls for three separate divisions: 1) Streaming video 2)VoIP 3) Interactive video Each division will have its own network resources.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate interactive video traffic?(Choose two.)
A. Interactive video traffic is variable delay insensitive provided a large enough elasticity buffer exists in the video endpoints.
B. Interactive video traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Interactive video traffic is insensitive to dropping of video packets since TCP
guarantees retransmission of any lost video packets.
D. Videoconferencing sessions cannot be established through WAN edge routers configured for NAT.
E. The minimum amount of guaranteed bandwidth required is the size of the video conference plus 20 percent.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Case Study Certkiller Mexico, Scenario
Certkiller Mexico is planning to offer a multimedia Internet video-relationship solution. It will provide streaming video services, VolP services, and an interactive video dating service. The business plan calls for three separate divisions: 1) Streaming video 2)VoIP 3) Interactive video Each division will have its own network resources.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate streaming video traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Streaming video traffic is less sensitive to variability of delay than interactive video.
B. Streaming video traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Streaming video traffic has a higher tolerance for packet loss than interactive video or voice traffic.
D. The minimum amount of required bandwidth is the size of the streaming video (CIF. QCIF, etc.) times the color depth.
E. Streaming video sessions cannot be established through WAN edge routers configured for NAT.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which three metrics are used to gauge network performance? (Choose three.)
A. responsiveness
B. throughput
C. scalability
D. utilization
E. topology
F. availability
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41

Examine the graphic and consider following requirements:
— All sites must be able to communicate with all other sites — EIGRP will be used over the links — IP
unicast and multicast traffic must be forwarded Which protocol combination would be most appropriate for
the point-to-multipoint VPN configuration shown in the graphic? Exhibit:

A. GRE with IPSEC in tunnel mode
B. GRE with IPSEC in transport mode
C. GRE with PPTP
D. GRE with L2TP
E. L2TP with IPSEC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which two statements about SCSI are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bus is limited to 25 meters in length
B. It is a full-duplex serial standard
C. The bus is limited to 32 devices
D. It is a half-duplex serial standard
E. It allows up to 320 MB/s of shared channel bandwidht
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. Enhanced ISL
B. ISL
C. IVR
D. VSANs
E. VoQ
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. Looped square
C. Loop-Free U
D. Loop-free inverted U
E. Looped Triangle
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Jitter is an unwanted variation of one or more characteristics of a periodic signal in electronics and telecommunications and _____refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival.
A. Digitized Sampling
B. Jitter
C. Packet Loss
D. Echo
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46
Which one is not the feature of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network architecture?
A. Remote access
B. Network unification
C. Mobility services
D. Network management
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Client traffic is being bridged through LAN interfaces on two WLCs. Which roaming option will keep them on the same IP subnet?
A. Layer 1 intercontroller roaming
B. Layer 2 intercontroller roaming
C. Layer 3 intercontroller roaming
D. Intracontroller roaming
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
In base e-commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A. Aggregation Layer
B. Internet Boundary
C. Access and Aggregation Layers
D. Aggregation and core Layers
E. Core Layer
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
What is a virtual firewall?
A. Another name for a firewall deployed in transparent mode
B. A firewall that has multiple contexts, all of which share the same policies (such as NAT and ACLs)
C. A firewall that, when deployed in routed mode, can support up to 1000 VLANs per context
D. Another name for a firewall deployed in routed mode
E. A separation of multiple firewall security contexts on a single firewall
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual ring topology?
A. Dynamic Trunking Protocol
B. Resilient Packet Ring
C. Coarse Wave Division Multiplexing
D. Synchronous Digital Hierarchy
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast and fault domains are increased
B. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. IP Address space is difficult to manage
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Certkiller uses a single ISP connection. Certkiller is finishing development of a web site that will be used for catalog information and sales to external customers. The web site is expected to have a large amount of traffic. Certkiller has 2,800 internal network users, of which 300 require simultaneous external Internet connectivity. What should be designed into the network to improve accessibility to Certkiller ‘s web site?
A. Mirrored server farm
B. Multi-homed ISPs
C. Redundant distribution routers
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ISP multi-homing solutions improve availability and load balancing for WANs that use the Internet. Multiple connections, known as multi-homing, reduce the chance of a potentially catastrophic shutdown if one of the connections should fail. Multi-homing really makes a difference if one connection to an ISP fails. As soon as the router assigned to connect to that ISP determines that the connection is down, it will reroute all data through one of the other
routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-89

 

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QUESTION 100
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which high availability design will depend more on
networks than devices.
What would your reply be?

A. Clustering
B. Token Ring
C. Parallel processing
D. Fault tolerance
E. Redundant topology
F. Tripe modular redundancy

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Which aspects are significant when planning a network design for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Company size
B. Performance requirements
C. Hardware costs
D. Cost of downtime

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Why is it beneficial to design high availability networks based on a redundant network topology? (Choose two.)
A. The cost of the network is reduced.
B. Internet connection is obsolete.
C. The traffic load can be shared between primary and secondary paths.
D. Network availability is precarious.
E. Redundant topologies are easier to manage and troubleshoot.
F. The probability of problems with the physical environment interrupting service is reduced.

Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the basic
approaches for high-availability design are.
What would your reply be? (Choose two.)

A. Redundant Topologies
B. Public bandwidth sharing
C. Fault management.
D. Extremely high MTTR
E. Fault Tolerant Devices
F. Extremely low MTBF

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Key availability issues to address include:
1)Device fault tolerance and redundancy: This is often the first level of availability in the network. Fault-
tolerant devices provide a high level of reliablility. Cisco offers options for redundant supervisor engines
and dual power supplies, which provide the first backstop against a network failure.
2) link redundancy
3) Protocol resiliency.
4) Network capacity design.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-13.

QUESTION 104
With which of the following high availability architecture must good software version control as well as device configuration control be included?
A. Network design
B. Operational best practices
C. Fault tolerance
D. Device-level hardware reliability
E. Fault management and diagnosis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
With which networking technology can you, the network administrator at Certkiller , be assured that you will be able to provide guaranteed availability of resources to the users for mission-critical, interactive, and time-sensitive Internet business applications?
A. Resiliency
B. Redundancy
C. QoS
D. Fault tolerance
E. Loss tolerance
F. Load balancing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QoS technologies make certain that the WAN is used efficiently by mission-critical applications that are
most important to the business, that bandwidth and minimum delays required by time-sensitive multimedia
and voice applications are available, and that other applications using the link get fair service without
interfering with mission-critical traffic.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-6.

QUESTION 106
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . You have designed a high availability network based on a
redundant network topology. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the main
disadvantage of this design is.
What will your reply be?

A. Many routing protocols do not support redundant topologies.
B. Network delay can vary between the primary and secondary paths.
C. The secondary path cannot automatically take over for the primary path.
D. The traffic load cannot be shared between primary and secondary paths.
E. Redundant topologies are more costly and can be more difficult to manage.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Redundant topologies cost not cheap, because they need additional hardware and links. They are also
difficult to manage since the networks consist of more hardware and the additional protocols and features
are realized.

QUESTION 107
You work as a network consultant. Your client, Certkiller .com, plans to promote an e-commerce website heavily, and expect to achieve a high volume of transactions.
Downtime must be kept to an absolute minimum.
What should you include in your proposed availability model?

A. The effects of parallel link options on the network topology
B. An illustration of scalability and performance of the system.
C. The effects of various redundant design options and their costs
D. a plan for the proactive management of redundant components

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
What is high availability?
A. Redundant infrastructure
B. Clustering of computer systems
C. Reduced MTBF
D. Continuous operation of computing systems

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: High availability is continuous operation of computing systems.
Note:
To achieve high network availability, these network components are required:
1) Reliable, fault-tolerant network devices.
2) Device and link redundancy.
3) Load balancing
4) Resilient network technologies.
5) Network design.
Reference: Arch student guide p.5-9

QUESTION 109
You are creating a high availability architecture for a client with a limited budget. Which network equipment has lowest priority for redundancy?
A. Core switches
B. Access routers
C. Access servers
D. Distribution switches
E. Server access switches
F. End-user access switches

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
What is a key trade-off when achieving high availability?
A. Cost
B. Hardware
C. Reliability
D. Processing power

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Redundancy and other network features which the high availability needs cost not cheap.

QUESTION 111
If a switch fabric is currently maintaining a percentage availability of .9995 and the route processor has a percentage availability of .9997, what is the current system availability?
A. .9992
B. .9996
C. .9997
D. 1.999

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To calculate the availability of the complex system or device, multiply the availability of all of its parts. For
example:
1) Switch fabric availability = .99997
2) Route processor availability = .99996
3) System availability = .99997* .99996 = 0.99992 As system complexity increases, availability decreases.
If a failure of any one part causes a failure in the system as a whole, it is called serial availability.
Reference: Arch student guide p.5-7

QUESTION 112
What are the two most significant disadvantages of designing a high availability network solely based on fault tolerant devices? (Choose two)
A. Redundant subsystem within devices add to costs.
B. Redundant subsystem cannot be managed remotely.
C. Redundant subsystem increase the cost of network configuration.
D. Redundant subsystem may become obsolete without ever being used.
E. Redundant subsystem that are maintained in hot standby mode cannot contribute additional performance.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Which of the following symptoms are experienced when one fails to check the LAN/WAN utilization before implementing a VoIP design?
A. An improper codec selection.
B. The data link being oversubscribed.
C. An echo due to excessive delays.
D. A negative progression in the probability of call blocking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which of the following would you implement at remote locations for failover purposes when working in a centralized call-processing model?
A. SNAP
B. SRST
C. CHAP
D. HSRP
E. PSTN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST) that provides basic call processing at remote sites in the event
of an IP WAN failure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-39

QUESTION 115
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . You want to implement QoS tools to protect voice-from-voice. What tools should you use?
A. prioritization tools
B. link efficiency tools
C. traffic shaping tools
D. call admission tools
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Call admission control ensures that voice quality of service (QoS) is maintained across constricted WAN
links, and automatically diverts calls to alternative PSTN routers when WAN bandwidth is not available.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-7

QUESTION 116
You are the network administrator at Certkiller .Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
IP telephony deployment model uses an H.225 Gatekeeper-Controlled trunk for call admission control
within existing H.323 environments.
What will your reply be?

A. single site with centralized call processing
B. single site with distributed call processing
C. multisite with centralized call processing
D. multisite with distributed call processing

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Which two benefits does VoFR provide? (Choose two)
A. Bandwidth efficiency
B. Cell-switching
C. Congestion notification
D. Heterogeneous network

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: These features are offered with Voice over Frame Relay: 1) Enables real-time, delay-sensitive voice traffic to be carried over slow Frame Relay links 2) Allows replacement of dedicated 64-kbps time-division multiplexing (TDM) telephony circuits with more economical Frame Relay PVCs or SVCs 3) Uses voice compression technology that conforms to International Telecommunication Union Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T) specifications 4) Allows intelligent setup of proprietary-switched Voice over Frame Relay connections between two Voice over Frame Relay endpoints 5) Supports standards-based FRF.11 and FRF.12 functionality Reference: Arch student guide p.11.62
QUESTION 118
What are two design guidelines for VoIP networks? (Choose two)
A. Delay should be no more than 10 ms.
B. Loss should be no more than 1 percent.
C. Jitter should be less then 40 ms.
D. Managed bandwidth is strongly recommended for voice control traffic.
E. One-way latency should be no more than 50 ms.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Not C: C is close. But actually 40 ms should be 30 ms
QUESTION 119
Certkiller is using a multi-site centralized call processor model. Which feature ensures that the remote site IP phones will still have limited functionality given a WAN outage?
A. Call Admission Control
B. TAPI
C. MGCP
D. SRST
E. SCCP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST) that provides basic call processing at remote sites in the event
of an IP WAN failure.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-39

QUESTION 120
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the recommended maximum number of users that an individual wireless access point should support is. What would your reply be?
A. Between 1 and 10
B. Between 10 and 30
C. Between 32 and 48
D. Between 56 and 128

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For a given data rate, the WLAN designer can alter the power level or choose a different antenna to
change the coverage area and/or coverage shape.
Access points have an aggregate throughput of about 6 Mbps. With this in mind, the maximum suggested
number of active clients is between 10 and 30. The precise number of active clients depends on the data
rates supported. That is, active clients with higher data rates necessitate fewer active clients for each
access point.
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-8.

QUESTION 121
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the
following protocols will provide WLAN redundancy and low
downtime.
What would your reply be?

A. EAP
B. BRI
C. SNMP
D. HSRP
E. WEP
F. Hot Standby

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Page 10-22 of the official course notes “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v1.2”
says:
WLAN high-availability considerations

-access point hot standby redundancy, configure two access points to use the same channel in a single coverage area, only one Access point is active. Hot standby is not the same as HSRP. Hot standby mode designates an access point as a backup for another access point. The standby access point is placed near the access point it monitors and is configured exactly the same as the monitored access point (except for its role in the radio network and IP address). The standby access point associates with the monitored access point as a client and queries the monitored access point regularly through both the Ethernet interface and the radio interface. If the monitored access point fails to respond, the standby access point comes online, signals the primary access point radio to become quiescent, and takes the monitored access point’s place in the network. Reference: Arch student guide p.10-30.
QUESTION 122
How would you go about delimiting the area coverage of wireless access points in an effort to provide added security?
A. Lowering Mbps data rates.
B. Increasing Mbps data rates.
C. Configure group access at set intervals.
D. Group access point frequency channels.
E. Enable multicasting.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If an 11-Mbps service has been specified and provisioned with access points to support this level of
service, allowing clients to associate at lower rates will create a coverage area greater than planned,
increasing the security exposure and potentially interfering with other WLANs
Reference: Arch student guide p.10-22.

QUESTION 123
Which of the following will enhance throughput in a wireless LAN? (Choose two.)
A. Use static WEP.
B. Filter multicast traffic.
C. Increase size of roaming domains.
D. Use dynamic WAP
E. Minimize broadcast.
F. Enable IPSec.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Broadcast and multicast are sent at the slowest data rate (to ensure that all clients can see them), which reduces the throughput of the WLAN because traffic must wait until frames are processed at the slower rate. Reference: Arch student guide p.10.22
QUESTION 124
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which IEEE wireless standard will allow backward
compatibility with 802.11b.
What would your reply be?

A. 802.1q
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11a
D. 802.1g
E. 802.11p

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The 802.11g standard operates in the same unlicensed portion of the 2.4-GHz spectrum as 802.11b. Both the IEEE 802.11g and 802.11a standards provide a 54-Mbps data rate. IEEE 802.11g provides the benefit of backward compatibility with IEEE 802.11b equipment, preserving users investment in their existing WLAN infrastructure. Reference: Arch student guide p.10-10
QUESTION 125
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
maximum number of wireless IP phones that can register with an Access point is.
What would your reply be?

A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 15
E. 33
F. 35
G. 40
H. 57

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 51
Which type of classification mechanism does the Cisco IP phone use?
A. ISL
B. Q.931
C. G.729a
D. 802.1p/Q
E. Spanning Tree
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Streaming video applications, such as IPTV video on demand (VoD) programs, are relatively high bandwidth applications with a high tolerance for loss, delay, and delay variation. As such, significant QoS tools are not required to meet the needs of these applications. However, in most enterprise environments, these types of applications are considered more important than regular background applications (such as e-mail and web browsing) and should be given preferential treatment. A Layer 2 classification of CoS 1 in 8021.Q/802.1p environments should be used for these applications. Reference: Arch student guide p.7-48
QUESTION 52
What problem does WFQ introduce when used in networks that have delay sensitive traffic like voice and video?
A. WFQ weights by giving preference to TCP-based flows whereas voice and video is UDP/RTP-based.
B. WFW weights by giving preference to UDP-based flows whereas voice and video is TCP/RTP-based.
C. WFQ becomes too fair in the presence of many flows so that an individual flow might not get enough bandwidth.
D. WFQ provides configuration settings that only permit data traffic, which is the root cause of WFQ’s inability to provide good service to voice and video traffic.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
WFQ is to fair.
WFQ classifies traffic into different flows based on such characteristics as source and

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642-873

destination address, protocol, and port and socket of the session. WFQ is a default queueing discipline on
links at and below 2.048 Mbps.

QUESTION 53
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS or TFP with non-zero DSCP values.
C. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
When working in a Cisco environment, which of the following models would be utilized when you connect to a PBX system that uses non-standard signaling?
A. Translate model
B. Cross over model
C. Interprete model
D. Transport model
E. Trans-cross model
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Both incoming and outgoing calls for a voice system are governed by rules. Which set of rules governs the handling of voice system calls?
A. Voice plan
B. Route plan
C. Route pattern
D. Dial pattern
E. Call handler
F. Dial plan
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know in which of the following Frame Relay PVC configurations that are able to carry both
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873 voice and data, is the potential voice load better understood and partially isolated from the data load. What would your reply be?
A. Simplex PVCs
B. Separate PVCs
C. Half Duplex PVCs
D. Duplex PVCs
E. Combined PVCs
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which codec you would recommend for higher quality voice over a data network. What would your reply be?
A. G.711
B. G.714
C. G.723
D. G.726
E. Q.728
F. G.729
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
What is the default setting that the Cisco IP phone employs to set the CoS/ToS value for voice packets?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Ports that are in the data VLAN have a default class of service (CoS) of zero. Ports that are a member of the voice VLAN have a default CoS of 5 Reference: Arch student guide p.11-49
QUESTION 59
Bandwidth used by active calls can be delimited by which
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642-873

of the following types of Call Admission in the Control Manager?
A. Departments
B. Regions
C. Partitions
D. Locations
E. Device Pools
F. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
In a voice system, what set of rules governs the handling of incoming and outgoing calls?
A. A dial plan
B. The route table
C. The dial pattern
D. A call handler
E. A route pattern
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
With regard to voice calls, which tool is used to reduce IP header size?
A. cRTP
B. RTCP
C. transcoder
D. coded (compression / decompression)
E. A and D
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Header Compression – Compresses a header at various layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model. Examples include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header compression, compressed RTP (cRTP), and compressed Internet Protocol/User Datagram Protocol (IP/UDP).
QUESTION 62
What type of protocol is SIP?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A. Peer-client
B. Server-peer
C. Peer-to-peer
D. Client-server
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SIP stands for Session Initiation Protocol. SIP was published as a proposed standard by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) in 1999. It is a signaling protocol for multimedia session control. This includes signaling for voice, data, and video sessions between just two parties or for multiparty conferencing sessions. SIP end-points negotiate the media parameters using Session Description Protocol (SDP). SDP allows the SIP terminal or application to negotiate media type (audio, video or data), transport protocol (RTP), and media encoding method. Unlike the switched circuit network of today, IP networks developed using SIP will easily support the concepts of presence, availability, and mobility since it is part of the SIP standard. The IETF defines standard behavior for key SIP Server elements such as registration, redirect and proxy servers. SIP registration servers allow users to register with the SIP network using a SIP address that is similar to a URL or Web site location. Once a user registers, the local SIP proxy server routes messages on behalf of the user to the proper destination address. The SIP redirect server is a special server that returns a new or changed address for the destination party that may have temporarily changed locations (from work to home for example). Each of these servers have a particular behavior defined in the IETF standard and maintain session state information in a standard manner, leading to interoperability. SIP’s main advantages over H.323 are its extensibility and flexibility for adding new features. H.323 is a more complex architecture and uses binary encoding of message parameters. The simplicity of SIP makes it easier to develop and debug applications leading to lower product costs for equipment providers. The SIP client-server and header format design is based on proven Internet standards such as Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (used on commercial web servers) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (used for internet e-mail services). The Client-Server design means that each SIP request will result in a well-defined set of SIP responses. This modular design makes it easy to extend SIP to support new operations by simply adding a new request (or SIP Method) and its corresponding response message. Because SIP is text based, it is easy to parse the various SIP commands.
QUESTION 63
When enabling traffic shaping on a Frame Relay interface supporting voice and data, which three parameters should be configured to protect voice traffic? (Choose three)
A. Bt
B. Bc
C. Be
D. CIR
E. LMI Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
F. DLCI
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Your boss at Certkiller .com is curios as to which type of applications benefit from IP Multicast. What should you tell her? (Select three).
A. low bandwidth streaming applications with many simultaneous users
B. high bandwidth web serving applications
C. video-on-demand served from the Internet
D. scheduled classes delivered using IP-TV over multiple LAN/WAN connections
E. live radio broadcasts delivered over multiple LAN/WAN connections
F. high bandwidth, high volume transactional applications
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee Jack wants to know which
of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Select two.)

A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No vongestion avoidance, Duplicates and
Out-of order delivery.
Incorrect answer:
Not ‘Ordered delivery of packets’ since multicast delivery does not implement any ordering mechanism.

QUESTION 66
What are potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.
Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 67
You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery. What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Low end routers in use.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
F. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No vongestion avoidance, Duplicates and
Out-of order delivery.
Incorrect answer:
Not ‘Ordered delivery of packets’ since multicast delivery does not implement any ordering mechanism.

QUESTION 68
You are the network administrator at Certkiller .Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
the source address of IP multicast traffic is.
What will your reply be?

A. the assigned IP address of the source host
B. a reserved link address in the 224.0.0.0/24 LCP block
C. a GLOP address with an embedded AS number assigned to the source organization
D. a source-specific (SSM) address in the 232/8 block
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
What are the characteristics of an IP Multicast source distribution tree? (Choose
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
three)
A. Sub-optimal paths from source to all receivers.
B. Minimal memory utilization on multicast routers.
C. Router maintenance of complete path information for each source.
D. Optimal path from source to each receiver.
E. Reduced latency when compared to shared distribution trees.
F. Single root RP forwarding of all source traffic.
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IP Multicast Source Distribution Trees
1) uses more memory (Router maintenance of complete path information for each source)

2) Supports optimal paths from source to all receivers 3) Minimizes delay Reference: Arch student guide p.8-20

Exam D
QUESTION 1
What are two potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.
Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 2
Which of the following components would you most probably encounter in the VPN/Remote Access module? (Choose three.)
A. ISDN
B. IDS
C. Firewall Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
D. PSTN
E. Access server
F. All of the above.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which VNP management characteristic would you use when you want to make sure that the network in operation has the least disruption of service when topology changes are made?
A. Auto setup
B. Remote management
C. Dynamic reconfiguration
D. Automatic reconfiguration.
E. Path MTU discovery
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the device. Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users. Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17
QUESTION 4
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which protocol at Layer 3 can be used to provide
data integrity, privacy, and security on an IP based VPN.
What would your reply be?

A. GRE
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. L2TP
E. Kerberos
F. MD5
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IPSec is a set of standards that specify various options for providing VPN data privacy. Packet
authentication protects the information flow from being tampered with or even

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-873

repeated, thereby minimizing disruption to the
communication.
An IPSec networking architecture has been specifically designed to address these issues. The framework
set forth by the IPSec working group, Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), pofides data integrity checks
for tamper detection, source address verification, and data privacy for the packet data nad data path.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-9.

QUESTION 5
You are contracted as a network administrator the company, Certkiller Ltd. Recently you received complaints by users that they are experiencing performance problems on the company’s site-to-site VPN network. Upon investigating the complaints you find that the VPN connection uses IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links. What can be done to address this problem successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
C. Reset the MTU value to lower than 1400 bytes.
D. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
E. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
F. None of the above.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Which Cisco Works VPN/Security Management Solution will you use to gain access to devices and the displays that will show their real-time status as well as their operational and configuration functions through a web browser?
A. Resource Manager (RME)
B. VPN Monitor
C. Cisco View
D. Omni-vision
E. IDS Host Sensor

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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642-873

Explanation:
The CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution
includes VPN Monitor.
VPN Monitor: Collects, stores, and reports on IPsec-based site-to-site and remote-access VPNs. VPN
Monitor supports the Cisco VPN concentrators and routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-19.

QUESTION 7
Which network management tool helps network administrators develop and maintain new and existing traffic filters on Cisco devices?
A. CiscoView
B. ACL Manager
C. Cisco Netsys
D. Resource Manager
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ACL Manager manages the access lists of Cisco devices. ACLM provides tools to set up and manage IP and IPX filtering and device access control. These tools include: access list editors, policy template managers, network and service class managers for scalability, access list navigation tools for troubleshooting, optimization of access lists, and automated distribution of access list updates. Reference: Arch student guide p.4-25
QUESTION 8
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the device
weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration would be.
What would your reply be?

A. 800
B. 5000
C. 6500
D. 2500
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The clustering option relate to the grouping of devices, usually phones and gateways. With the limits imposed on a single CallManager (device weights of 5,000 per CallManager, not IP phones) and good design practices, the
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
minimum configuration consists of two CallManagers, which will support up to 2,500 IP phones. Cisco recommends four CallManagers to support 5,000 IP phones and up to six CallManagers to support up to 10,000 IP phones. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-28
QUESTION 9
Which of the following signaling techniques is used amongst CallManager clusters for intercluster calls?
A. SS7
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. BRI2
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
maximum number of CallManager servers you can have in a cluster is.
What would your reply be?

A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 56
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not. Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
cluster based on the number of users. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43
QUESTION 12
Which three are used in configuration Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three)
A. route list
B. route group
C. gateway list
D. route keeper
E. route pattern
F. first digit pattern
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are functions form part of Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)? (Choose four.)
A. Fault tolerance
B. Network address translation
C. Load balancing
D. Scalability
E. Remote management
F. Service assurance
G. Redundancy allowance
Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco routers and switches incorporate Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) software to enable content routing capabilities. Additionally, Cisco offers content routers specifically designed to support large-scale mirrored web sites. Content routing routes user requests to the replicated-content site (typically a mirror site) that can serve them most quickly and efficiently. The content routing software redirects a user request to the closest (best) replicated-content site, based on network delay, using a software process called boomerang. The content routing software load balances up to 500 sites for each domain it is configured to support. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-6
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 14
Mentioned below are several tools. Which of them is a web-browser based tool designed to provide administrative access for content networking?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Hypertext Administration Design (HAD)
C. Access Point
D. Content Distribution Manager (CDM)
E. Self-Organizing Distributed Architecture (SODA)
F. Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Cisco Content Distribution Manager (CDM) is a web-browser-based tool that provides the administrative function for content networking. With the CDM, you can configure and monitor Content Engines, import and preview media, and generate media URLs for access from web sites. You also set maximum bandwidth usage over the WAN from the CDM to the remote Content Engines, as well as maximum LAN bandwidth usage from the Content Engines to end-user desktops. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-9
QUESTION 15
You are a technician at Certkiller . You were instructed to place Content Engines on the Certkiller network. Where would you place it when you are dealing with transparent caching?
A. Close to the servers.
B. Behind the main server.
C. At the Internet edge.
D. In front of web server farms.
E. Close to the end users.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
As a network consultant at Certkiller .com you are required to speed up services for external users and
minimize load on network servers on a LAN.
Which of the following should you implement?

A. VPN networking Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
B. CSPM
C. content networking
D. fault tolerance
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
You are the network administrator at Certkiller .Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
enterprise caching mode eliminates the need for Layer 4 switches or WCCP enabled routers to intercept
user requests.
What will your reply be?

A. transparent
B. proxy
C. reverse proxy
D. direct

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In proxy mode, end-user web browsers need to be explicitly configured to the IP address or host name of the Content Engine, and there is no need for additional hardware such as Layer 4 switches or Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)-enabled routers to intercept user requests, as in transparent caching. Enterprises are normally interested in deploying transparent network caching, but some enterprises may have a legacy requirement for a proxy (nontransparent) cache. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-12
QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
There are five main components utilized in content networking.
Drag each component to its intended use.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The CDM enables you to configure bandwidth and distribution settings such that the streaming content will no interfere with other network traffic. It is also the central control point where the CEs that will carry the broadcast media are identified. The CDM is typically located in the server farm Reference: Arch student guide p.12-42
QUESTION 20
Which of the following protocols is able to provide block access to remote storage over WAN links?
A. SCSI-FP
B. SIP
C. iSCSI
D. FCIP
E. eSCSI
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-873

QUESTION 21
DRAG DROP
Below is a list of characteristics and applications that can belong to either the SAN or the NAS storage
network model. Can you sort the list by dragging the appropriate option to the correct box on the right?
Drag each option to the appropriate box.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22

You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which device
will act as a bridge between a Fiber Channel SAN and an

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642-873

IP network.
What would your reply be?

A. Storage Router
B. Switching hub
C. FC-HBA attached host
D. FC Switch
E. NAS GE Switch
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Cisco storage router delivers redundant iSCSI paths to a pair of Fibre Channel switches. iSCSI takes advantage of the connection-oriented TCP protocol for reliable service. Ethernet was already part of the IT network. This meant trained personnel were on board, and simplified the storage networking installation shown in the figure. Cost was an important factor in choosing iSCSI. Because the research facility already had TCP/IP and Gigabit Ethernet networks installed, the iSCSI solution fit their budget and met their storage networking needs. Reference: Arch student guide p.13-33
QUESTION 23
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
which protocol encapsulates Fiber Channel frames so that they can be transported transparently over an
IP network.
What will your reply be?

A. iSCSO
B. FCIP
C. SCSI-FP
D. eSCSI
E. CIFS
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: An important technology for linking Fibre Channel SANs is FCIP. FCIP and iSCSI are complementary solutions for enabling company-wide access to storage. FCIP transparently interconnects Fibre Channel SAN islands over IP networks through FCIP tunnels, while iSCSI allows IP-connected hosts to access iSCSI or FC-connected storage. Reference: Arch student guide p.13-15
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 24
You are a network technician at Certkiller .com. The database for Certkiller .com requires continuous uptime (24×7) and processes many write-intensive applications from many different sources. The current Certkiller .com LAN network operates at approximately 50% utilization, with peaks that exceed 70%. Which storage networking model would you include your network upgrade design?
A. Metro Optical
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. universal IP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which IP storage network solution is best suited for high-volume, write-intensive, transaction-driven applications?
A. Storage area networking
B. Network-attached storage
C. Local storage
D. Metro optical storage
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SAN provides block-oriented access to native disk storage. It is based on a shared or switched
infrastructure, often Fibre Channel. You can extend SAN to an ip infrastructure. New protocols and
products are emerging that allow the integration of SANs with the IP network. Historically, SANs have been
well suited to high-volume, write-intensive transaction-driven applications.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-7.

QUESTION 26
In which scenario would a SAN storage solution be a better choice than an iSCSI-based NAS solution?
A. Traditional file-sharing applications.
B. Fast growing data storage needs.
C. Applications that cannot tolerate block level, storage access latency.
D. Highly reads-intensive applications.
E. Web serving applications with many active pages.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 27
What are disadvantages to storage directly attached to the application servers? (Choose three)
A. Reliability
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Manageability
E. Available bandwidth
F. Access speed
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: System administrators are faced with the challenging task to managing storage and making it scalable to accommodate future needs. With storage directly attached to the server, scalability is difficult. The storage expansion capability is limited to the capacity of the server (for example, as measured by the number of I/O controllers and devices per controller configured is the server). The nature of the small computer system (SCSI) bus commonly used to connect commodity disks to a commodity server makes it difficult to allocate more disk storage without interrupting and rebooting the server, and thus affecting applications.
C: No redundancy is provided Reference: Arch student guide p.13-6. Incorrect answers:
A: Reliability would be good.
E: bandwidth would be excellent.
F: access speed would be excellent.
QUESTION 28
Which protocol enables the location of a fully synchronized hot backup Fiber Channel storage solution at a remote site over existing optical WAN links?
A. iSCSI
B. SCSI-FCP
C. FCIP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
You can use FCIP to connect two geographically dispersed Fibre Channel storage arrays for the purpose of synchronous data storage. If the local storage array becomes unavailable, an application could utilize the FCIP link to access the data on the “hot backup” storage system at the remote site. It is also possible to implement remote tape backups to further protect customers’ valuable information in the event of disaster at the primary site. Reference: Arch student guide p.13-16
QUESTION 29
Why is G.729a commonly used instead of G.729?
A. It receives a higher MOS score.
B. It uses less complex algorithms.
C. It uses more complex algorithms.
D. It samples speech pattern more often.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
What are two benefits of a high availability network? (Choose two)
A. Improves user satisfaction.
B. Minimized lost opportunity costs.
C. Increases network manageability.
D. Reduces hardware and software costs.
E. Reduces information technology (IT) costs.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11b?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 1.44 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 11 Mbps data.
E. 1.44 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
You would choose IS-IS for a routing protocol to meet the following two requirements. (Choose two)
A. Expansion of the backbone area is a concern.
B. Dial-up connections are required. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
C. The network has NBMA connections.
D. The network is very large.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a multi-vendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
E. EIRGP
F. BGP
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three)
A. Rate limit traffic.
B. Configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence.
C. Isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs.
D. Use low latency queuing at the source.
E. Classify and mark traffic close to the source.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
With which of the following does the Cisco Product Advisor help customers? (Choose three)
A. design options
B. hardware devices
C. software options
D. hardware options
E. protocol components
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which statement about fully redundant topologies is true?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A. Public bandwidth can be utilized on an as-needed basis.
B. Key components can be replaced within the device without turning power off.
C. Devices can be replaced in the network without interrupting the network operation.
D. Each device provides redundant backup within the device for each of its key components.
E. A backup exists for every link and for every device between the client and the server.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11a?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 64 Mbps data.
E. 12 GHz frequency and 12 Mbps data.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two QoS functions are used to prioritize voice over data? (Choose two)
A. voice activity detection
B. queue servicing
C. classification
D. fragmentation
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which three routing protocols can minimize the number of routes advertised in the network? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. BGP
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which of the following modules of the Enterprise Campus is NOT considered important to the scalability of the campus network?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A. building distribution
B. building access
C. campus backbone
D. network management
E. server farm

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose three)
A. dial plans
B. dialled numbers
C. voice mail prompts
D. phone features
E. ring tones
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
What does ATM do that Frame Relay does not?
A. packet looping
B. priority queuing
C. packet forwarding
D. circuit emulation
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Not D: The following Cisco URL describes the four-port circuit emulation cards available for the 2600 router. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps259/products_data_sheet09186a00802045f5.html Since the 2600 does not support ATM, but it does support Frame Relay, it is safe to say that circuit emulation can be supported over Frame Relay. Note: This topic does not appear in the ARCH v1.2 course notes. We believe it relates to an older version of the course.
QUESTION 43
What happens when packets traversing the network exceed the MTU of an IPSec/VPN interface?
A. They trigger a link failure.
B. They are all discarded and re-transmitted.
C. They are unable to be sent. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
D. They come fragmented.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which type of disaster recovery application protects from user error or data corruption, as well as hardware failure?
A. disk mirroring
B. replication
C. backup and off-site storage
D. disk duplexing
E. RAID 5 stripe sets
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
What are two characteristics of shaping, but not policing? (Choose two)
A. It forces TCP resends.
B. It is typically performed on enterprise egress.
C. It is rate limiting with no buffering mechanism.
D. It can adapt to Frame Relay BECN and FECN.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
Certkiller .com is a global insurance company with headquarters in Mexico City. The campus there is made of a number of buildings located in the same vicinity. In 2003, a new building, Building Certkiller 12A was added. The additional building houses approximately 1000 employees. Rather than deploy a private branch exchange (PBX) in the new building, Certkiller .com has decided to implement an IP telephony solution. External calls will be carried across a MAN link to another building, where a gateway connects into the worldwide PBX network of Certkiller .com. Voice mail and unified messaging components are required and all IP phones and workstations should be on separate VLANs and IP subnets. Which IP technology deployment best suits their need?
A. single-site
B. multisite with centralized call processing
C. multisite with distributed call processing
D. clustering over the WAN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 47
In the Enterprise Composite Network model, which Enterprise Campus Infrastructure Module submodule provides aggregation of wiring closets, and performing routing, quality of service, and access control?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Backbone
D. Edge Distribution
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Certkiller .com is a small company with 25 agents stationed around Spain. It is necessary for these agents
to transmit customer data securely from their homes and from their customer sites.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?

A. Individual Remote Access IPSec-based VPN
B. Leased Line T1 Connection
C. Dial-up ISDN Access
D. Site-to-Site IPSec-based VPN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
In which two instances would static routing be preferred over the use of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. in small networks that are planning to grow
B. in networks using on demand routing that are not expected to grow significantly
C. in networks where a total knowledge of the network is not known
D. in a network that has a few very large sites and a single connection to the Internet
E. when routing to and from stub networks
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which two types of attacks are addressed at the Building Access sub-module of the Enterprise Campus infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. viruses
B. packet sniffers
C. IP spoofing
D. password attacks Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
E. unauthorized access

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which three components are part of the Intelligent Network Services provided by the Cisco AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. QoS
B. work force optimization
C. security
D. e-business infrastructure
E. IP telephony
F. IP multicasting
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose two.)
A. multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch office
C. dual Wan links to the regional office
D. dual Wan links to another branch office
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
The Acme Anvil Corporation has two manufacturing sites and six sales offices. Each sales office requires 25 public IP addresses, and each manufacturing facility requires 210 public IP addresses. If the company plans for 20 percent growth for each facility, how many Class C addresses will it require?
A. five
B. four
C. six
D. eight
E. seven
F. three
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
B. serialization delay of 10 ms
C. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. jitter of 30 ms or less
E. packet loss of 2 percent or less
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
What type of Call Admission control in CallManager allows for limits to the bandwidth consumed by active calls?
A. locations
B. regions
C. partitions
D. device Pools
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which routing protocol best fits these requirements? – Supported by multiple router vendors – Requires minimum router CPU and memory resources – Uses a simple routing metric – Supports manual or automatic route summarization
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. RIPv2
D. IGRP
E. EIGRP
F. BGP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
One of the business requirements of New Garden Health, Inc. is a secure connection to its business partners. Which four components should be included in the topology diagram of the VPN module? (Choose four.)
A. public servers
B. VPN network management servers
C. firewall
D. perimeter router
E. IDS/IPS
F. VPN concentrator
Correct Answer: CDEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 58
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. CCC Machine has decided to deploy a Voice over IP solution in its main campus headquarters. The design calls for the insertion of a Cisco CallManager, Cisco IP phones, and a voice gateway. Due to the new application requirements, what three changes should be made to the access layer of the CCC network design? (Choose three.)

A. Configure the 3524-PWR access switches to ensure Voice over IP packets are given preferential treatment by enabling voice traffic to use separate queues.
B. Since end-user workstations cannot run CDP, disable it on the IP phones to improve performance and increase security.
C. The trust boundary should be extended from the 3524-PWR access switches to include the IP phones.
D. A new voice-only VLAN should be established and extended from the IP phones throughout the campus.
E. Ingress rate-limiting should be configured on 3524-PWR access switches to ensure Voice over IP bandwidth guarantees.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 59
A network designer will be incorporating IP telephony into a large company with over 4,000 phones. What two recommendations does Cisco make about the server(s) used to store configuration files, device loads (operating code), and ring types for downloading? (Choose two.)
A. Create a dedicated TFTP server.
B. Create one FTP server per dedicated database publisher.
C. Incorporate multiple load-balanced FTP servers to replace any TFTP servers.
D. Create multiple load-balanced TFTP servers.
E. Create a backup TFTP server in case the main FTP server fails.
F. Incorporate a dedicated FTP server to replace any TFTP servers.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Morris Prosthetics is having problems with serialization delay on its WAN links. The links currently carry less than 768 Kbps. Which Layer 2 mechanism can help solve the problem?
A. Integrated Services module
B. Compressed Real-Time Transfer Protocol
C. link fragmentation and interleaving
D. differentiated service code points
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. autonomous-route injection
B. single run
C. stub domain EBGP
D. multi-homed
E. direct BGP peering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
What are three features of the Cisco Product Advisor tool? (Choose three.)
A. It includes a wireless product search category.
B. It covers select switches from the Catalyst 2800 Series through the Catalyst 8500 Series. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
C. It covers only select routers from the 800 Series through the 7400 Series.
D. It can be used in a novice, question-and-answer mode.
E. You can begin searching categories that include routing, switching, and IP telephony.
F. It narrows down Cisco networking products based on product cost and network requirements.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Acme Nutrition manufactures a wide variety of vitamin supplements. It has a single manufacturing facility with 3 regional warehouses and 16 district sales offices. Currently the manufacturing facility requires 210 IP addresses; each warehouse requires 51 IP addresses; each district sales office requires 11 IP addresses; and the IP WAN requires 38 IP addresses. If Acme Nutrition plans for 20 percent growth in facilities, how many Class C subnets will the district sales offices require?
A. 19 (3 from the warehouse range and 16 from a separate Class C address)
B. 18 (2 from the Warehouse range and 14 from a separate Class C address)
C. 16 (3 from the warehouse range and 13 from a separate Class C address)
D. 20 (4 from the warehouse range,15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
E. 19 (3 from the warehouse block, 15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
F. 16 (all from a separate Class C address)
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Captain Marion’s Videography delivers Internet digital video using 9 MPEG video encoders and a statistical multiplexer. Channels are packed into a 6-MHz channel bandwidth.The MPEG multiplexer monitors and allocates the appropriate bandwidth. The multiplexer measures available bandwidth and feeds back signaling to the MPEG encoders. Coding rates are then increased or decreased. Packet generation from each input source is controlled such that no packets are dropped and no extra null packets can be generated.These bandwidth and traffic requirements work best with which mode of video delivery?
A. open looped
B. quality equalization
C. VoD delivery
D. fixed broadcast
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 65
The Schuyler and Livingston Iron Works has been working on getting its network security under control. It has set up VPN with IPSec links to its suppliers. It has installed network vulnerability scanners to proactively identify areas of weakness, and it monitors and responds to security events as they occur. It also employs extensive access control lists, stateful firewall implementations, and dedicated firewall appliances. The company has been growing very fast lately and wants to make sure it is up to date on security measures. Which two areas of security would you advise the company to strengthen? (Choose two.)
A. security management
B. perimeter security
C. identity
D. intrusion protection
E. secure connectivity
F. intrusion detection
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The right answer shoul be identity and intrusion protection (C,D) because security management is covered by the vulnerability scanner and monitor.
QUESTION 66
Which Cisco voice application includes Cisco IP IVR, Cisco IP Integrated Contact Distribution (ICD), and Cisco IP Queue Manager?
A. Cisco Conference Connection
B. Cisco Integration Manager
C. Cisco Works
D. Cisco Emergency Responder
E. Cisco VoIP Integration Application
F. Cisco Customer Response Solution
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which benefit of the Cisco AVVID framework improves productivity by enabling comprehensive tools?
A. intelligence
B. interoperability
C. innovation
D. integration
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 68
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. What is the most performance enhancing, cost effective, and growth oriented media for the connections for the NAS portion of this storage network design?

A. Gigabit Ethernet
B. FCIP
C. Fiber Channel
D. EtherChannel

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which four QoS design requirements are the closest to Cisco recommendations for VoIP traffic? (Choose four).
A. serialization delay of 100 ms to 150 ms
B. less than 30 ms of jitter
C. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. 150 bps (+ Layer 2 overhead) of guaranteed bandwidth for voice control traffic per call
E. less than 1 percent of packet loss
F. fixed 64 kbps of guaranteed priority bandwidth per call
Correct Answer: BCDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam E
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is considered part of a Fault Tolerant Device? (Choose three)
A. Redundant power supplies
B. Redundant links
C. Redundant cooling fans
D. Service contracts
E. High MTBF
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco official course notes “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v1.2” give the
following answers on page 5-8:

-catalyst supervisors
-power supplies
-fans
-hot swappable modules To quote from the text “To achieve high availability the fault tolerance of each device is optimised. This is achieved by providing redundant backup within the device for each of its components”.
E: MTBF (mean time between failures) is a measure of how reliable a hardware product or component is. For most components, the measure is typically in thousands or even tens of thousands of hours between failures. For example, a hard disk drive may have a mean time between failures of 300,000 hours. A desired MTBF can be used as a quantifiable objective when designing a new product. The MTBF figure can be developed as the result of intensive testing, based on actual product experience, or predicted by analyzing known factors. The manufacturer may provide it as an index of a product’s or component’s reliability and, in some cases, to give customers an idea of how much service to plan for. Most sources define this term to mean average time between failures. Not B: The question asks about items that are parts of the Fault Tolerant Device. The redundant links are outside the device and are not part of the device.
QUESTION 2
Which two of the following Cisco router platforms support Multicast Distributed Fast Switching? (Choose two.)
A. 12000 series Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
B. 7200 series with NSE-1
C. 3600 series
D. 7500 series
E. ISR 1800/2800/3800 series
F. 10000 series
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When designing the WAN module within the enterprise edge, which document is used to specify the connectivity and performance agreements with the service provider?
A. RFC
B. SOW
C. RFP
D. SLC/SLA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which two statements are correct in regards to the Content Distribution Manager? (Choose two.)
A. It allows configurable bandwidth and distribution settings so content will not interfere with other network traffic.
B. It is utilized in content networking for e-commerce.
C. It is used to cache selected content from origin servers and delivers specific content to requesting users.
D. It is used to load balance and direct traffic to the appropriate CE.
E. It enables organizations to deliver live broadcasts to desktops and meeting rooms.
F. It is utilized in content networking for streaming media.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Users at Certkiller .com began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer-to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use class-based marking to mark the peer-to-peer traffic to DSCP 0
B. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
C. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
D. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
E. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
When designing an IP addressing scheme, how much reserve capacity does Cisco recommend to plan for in the IP address space?
A. 10-30 percent
B. 25-50 percent
C. 15-35 percent
D. 20-40 percent
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which conference bridge supports multiple low-bit-rate stream types?
A. hardware
B. Q.711
C. VoIP q.933
D. software
E. G.729
F. Skinny
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
What are three benefits to tuning BGP parameters? (Choose three.)
A. When there are two alternate paths to the same target network and they have the same relative performance, you can direct traffic to the least expensive path.
B. It helps reduce the amount of traffic an ISP has to pay for on its own network.
C. Cold-potato routing keeps traffic on the network of an ISP as short a time as possible, delivering the traffic to the ingress point as close to the target as possible.
D. Hot-potato routing directs traffic to the closest ingress point of the network. Traffic remains on the router for a shorter period of time. This is true even when an even more optimal path exists.
E. In order to avoid routing loops, all BGP routers in the same AS must ultimately make the best routing decision for their own directly connected network.
F. Policy routing is often used to balance traffic across multiple links.
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 9
Which routing protocol supports a flexible area structure using routing levels one and two?
A. IGRP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIPv2 F. IS-IS
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A security analysis at Certkiller .com recommends installing an IDS appliance and a firewall appliance. These appliances should connect directly into a Layer 3 switch. A load balancer and SSL termination have also been recommended.Potomac’s management have expressed concern over the cost. You suggest using integrated blades. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of your design proposal? (Choose two.)
A. This configuration can inhibit failover in high-availability scenarios without a high degree of management.
B. Using integrated blades would only require two devices.
C. Increased usage of standalone devices is cost-effective.
D. Since integrated blades are rarely used in high-availability failover scenarios, this creates a support issue.
E. The data center would need several devices to achieve its goal.
F. Putting all security devices in a single chassis provides a single point of failure.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which routing protocol would do the best job of meeting these requirements?
A. EIGRP
B. RIPv2
C. IGRP Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
D. OSPF
E. RIP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. An IT department has configured their Edge as follows:A PIX firewall:- Using appliance form- Using OSPF- Six interfaces- One interface connecting to the outside via the Internet router- Three inside interfaces connecting to the internal network- A DMZ interface connecting to the e-mail and web servers On their outbound router (where they once had a high incidence of packet drop), they now have: -10 Mbps Metro Ethernet link- 10/100BASE-FX (for growth) In picking an ISP they are looking for: – Growth capacity- RedundancyGiven this scenario, which ISP is the best fit?
A. ISP A
B. ISP B
C. ISP C
D. ISP A or ISP C
E. ISP B or ISP C
F. ISP A or ISP B
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What are the two primary kinds of communication within a Cisco CallManager cluster? (Choose two.)
A. mechanism for distributing the database
B. intercluster CDP
C. propagation and replication of run-time data
D. intercluster routing
E. registration, admission, and status (RAS) messages
F. keepalives between the Call Managers within the cluster Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14
The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by-hop (router-to-router) basis?
A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor
B. Device Fault Manager
C. CiscoView
D. Internetwork Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What are three primary activities in the cycle of building an enterprise security strategy? (Choose three.)
A. activity audit
B. ACL documentation
C. administration
D. technology implementation
E. policy establishment
F. feature evaluation
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Acme Costume Company is connecting its manufacturing facilties to its stores with a small point-to-multipoint Frame Relay IP WAN. Little growth is expected in the network infrastructure.Up to this point the company has been using a dial-on-demand network. Dropping WAN costs, however, have led them to consider using a high-speed WAN solution to improve access. Which two routing protocols could you deploy to support the new larger network while keeping costs down? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IGRP
E. RIPv2
F. IS-IS
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 17
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. A central site WAN edge router is connected to the remote site WAN edge router over a Frame Relay PVC. The central site has a CIR of 384 kbps and the remote site has a CIR of 128 kbps. Traffic flowing across this Frame Relay WAN link includes VoIP, SQL, FTP, HTTP, Citrix, Telnet, and other best-effort class traffic. Which three QoS mechanisms should be implemented on the WAN edge router Frame Relay WAN link in the outbound direction? (Choose three.)
A. class-based markings
B. LLQ
C. class-based traffic policing
D. Frame Relay traffic shaping
E. Class-Based RTP header compression on the voice traffic class
F. class-based WRED on the voice traffic class

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which three features are network design requirements that indicate a need for a highly available network? (Choose three.)
A. improved customer loyalty
B. minimum network equipment costs
C. network intrusion detection
D. support of mission-critical applications
E. reduced productivity losses
F. increased use of streaming media
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Certkiller .com. amultinational company, has Internet gateways in multiple countries and an internal IP WAN. They are designing an IP addressing scheme.Which are the three most important issues that need to be considered? (Choose three.)
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A. Is hierarchy needed within the IP addressing plan?
B. How many locations are in the network and what is their size?
C. How will VLANs be deployed for the customer?
D. Which locations will provide redundant links to the Internet?
E. What types of IP addresses are required, private, public, or both?
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Certkiller .com specializes in home theater products. Their campus network has four buildings in close proximity and another building about four miles away. The network accommodates close to 500 marketing, sales, finance, and engineering employees.The IT staff wants to test the the current FDDI backbone to see if it inhibits network performance. In addition, they need to ensure that a new database order entry application will not negatively impact the network. Which testing method will best meet Burgouyne’s needs?
A. Set up a prototype on the live system during off-hours.
B. Set up a prototype network on the live system using NetPredictor.
C. Use NetPredictor to test the capacity and to collect packet traces to predict future performance.
D. Set up a pilot network to simulate their network, and add users to show the difference.
E. Set up a pilot network to simulate their network, and collect packet traces.
F. Set up a prototype network in a lab.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Certkiller .com is a parts distributor doing business worldwide. The IT staff is considering a network upgrade. The main network load is a CRM application used around the clock. Equipment funding is very liberal, but the IT staff has limited assistance time. The staff insists on full network design proof and verification.What is the best way to prototype this design?
A. Integrate the test with the production network during business hours.
B. Set up a test network that will operate during off-peak hours.
C. Use a test network in a lab.
D. Integrate testing with the production network during off-hours.
E. Implement live during off-peak hours (although because of the around the clock nature of the business, you will not be able to test very well).
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which three components comprise the AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
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A. intelligent network services
B. common network infrastructure
C. interoperability
D. network solutions
E. abstracted integration
F. advanced artificial intelligence

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. At Certkiller .com, you have just interviewed the IT manager who has this list of technical issues about the company’s Campus LAN. Which three device technologies will best solve these problems? (Choose three.)
A. ATM switches
B. switch blades
C. routers
D. VPN concentrators
E. LAN switches
F. IPX firewalls
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which two of the following codecs are recommended in a VoIP network design when support for fax/ modem traffic is required? (Choose two.)
A. G.729 with VAD and no EC
B. G.711
C. G.726r32
D. GSM 6.10
E. GSM.711 with no VAD and no EC
F. G.729
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco’s website contains an article about configuring fax support http://www.cisco.com/ univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios122/122newft/122t/122t11/faxapp/ which states that the only possible options are:
G.711 with no VAD and no EC
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G.726 at 32K (G.726r32)

QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
Place the network attribute on the left to the network Deployment Concern Category it belongs on the right.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26

DRAG DROP
Match the performance metric with the group of people usually most concerned with that measure.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
DRAG DROP Match the Security activity on the left to the solution it pertains to on the right A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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642-873

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Match the world on the left to the category for proving a design implementation it belongs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29

DRAG DROP
Match the Layer 2 roaming characteristic to the wireless LAN security implementation model it applies.

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A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation:
Source CCDP Self Study (Designing Cisco Network Architectures ARCH), page 420 table 10-2 Security
Implementation Model Comparison Layer 2 Roaming explains exactly for “WLAN LAN Extension via EAP”,
“WLAN LAN Extension via IPSec”, and “WLAN Static WEP”.
QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Match the ISP’s definitions (on the left) to the correct terms on the right.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873

Explanation:
Source: http://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/sDefinition/0,,sid7_gci212768,00.html “peering”
and http://www.riverstonenet.com/support/mpls/ldp_peering.htm “LDP peering”

QUESTION 31
DRAG DROP
Match the attribute on the left to the services codepoint model it describes on the right.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32

DRAG DROP Match the most appropriate definition on the left to the Layer 2 WAN technology term it describes on the right Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 33

DRAG DROP
Match the definition on the left to the form of NAT it describes on the right.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873

Explanation: NAT provides additional security, effectively hiding the entire internal network from the world behind that address. NAT takes these forms: Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis. Static NAT is particularly useful when a device needs to be accessible from outside the network. Maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP addresses. A form of dynamic NAT that maps multiple unregistered IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports. Known also as PAT, single-address NAT, or port-level multiplexed NAT. When the IP addresses used on your internal network are registered IP addresses in use on another network, the router must maintain a lookup table so that it can intercept and replace these registered addresses with unique IP addresses. The NAT router must translate the internal addresses into registered unique addresses. It must also translate the external registered addresses to addresses that are unique to the private network through static NAT or with dynamic NAT with DNS. Reference: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v1.1, Page 3-77
QUESTION 34
DRAG DROP Match the AVVID element on the left to the Cisco AVVID framework component it belongs to the right A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873

Explanation:
Network Management is Intelligent Network Services and IP Telephony is Network Solutions.

QUESTION 35
DRAG DROP
Match the appropriate description, function, or activity to the corresponding multicast topology element.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 36
DRAG DROP
Match the test element on the left to the correct prototype test creation step.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: Step 1. Review customers requirements Outline the Proof required to demonstrate that your design works
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Step 2. Determine content of Prototpe Determine how much of the design must be built Step 3. Understand the competition Research information on your competitors products Step 4. Develop a test plan Draw a network diagram Step 5. Purchase and prepare your equipment Athough both Network Management tools and Protocol Analysers are both mentioned, ONLY PROTOCOL ANALYSERS are mentioned in Step 7. So by Default Network Management tools must be the answer here Step6 Practice and Step7 Conduct tests and Demonstarate By Default (and mentioned in the bookd for step 7) Protocol Analyzers
Case Study Certkiller .com, Scenario Certkiller .com is a distributor of hardwoods, wood shop machinery, and accessories. Certkiller .com have retail stores located in Madrid, Barcelona, and Valencia. The corporate headquarters and distribution warehouse are located in the same facility in Barcelona. The warehouse inventory system is on a single database application, which is accessed from the remote stores via dial-up connections. A server containing the back office applications (general ledger, payroll, etc.) is located on the same LAN segment as the database server. Remote dial-up traffic has reached a level that requires 9 hours of connection daily over 28.8kbps modems, resulting in some large communications charges. Local access to services at the Barcelona headquarters is via a 100mbps multi-vendor switches Ethernet LAN. Certkiller .com is currently using RIPv2 as their internal routing protocol. There are 15 hosts at Barcelona and 5 each at the Madrid and Valencia remote stores. The new sites will add 5 hosts each and headquarters is expected to add 12 devices to manage the new locations. There are plans to acquire two new locations per year for the next five years. Currently there are no Internet connections, however, a web server will be added in the next sixth months to allow sales over the Internet. Certkiller .com uses a Class C address that they would like to keep. Additionally Certkiller .com wants to minimize the amount of router traffic across the WAN links. The Information Technology manager wants a new, reliable, scalable WAN design that will reduce costs, improve response time for the remote networks, and can be implemented in incremental steps.
Case Study Certkiller .com (4 questions)
QUESTION 37
Which three Enterprise Composite Network modules are sub-modules should be included in your design? Select three.
A. Server Farm
B. Internet Connectivity
C. Campus Core Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
D. Edge Distribution
E. Management
F. WAN
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which IP addressing approach will meet Certkiller .com requirements?
A. Certkiller .com needs an address space larger than a single Class C IP address.
B. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with EIGPR as the internal routing protocol.
C. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with IGPR as the internal routing protocol.
D. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with the current routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which Layer 2 technology would you recommend to Certkiller .com in your WAN design?
A. PPP
B. Frame Relay
C. ADSL
D. ATM
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Frame Relay meets all clients needs. Frame Relay is a switched data-link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits using HDLC-delivered encapsulation between connected devices. Frame Relay is more bandwidth efficient than X.25, the protocol for which it is generally considered a replacement. Frame Relay provides cost-effective, high-speed, low-latency virtual circuits between sites. Frame Relay provides cost-effective, high-speed, low-latency virtual circuits between sites. Frame Relay runs over DS0, T1/E1, and serial links. Reference: Arch student guide p.3-30
QUESTION 40
Your boss at Certkiller .com asks you when the site-to-site access model is appropriate. What should you tell him?
A. for multiple ISDN connections
B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
C. for a group of users in the same vicinity sharing a connection
D. for use by mobile users
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Case Study FOO, Scenario FOO is a manufacturer and importer of fasteners, including nuts and bolts. The main campus is composed of three buildings that are less than 200 meters apart. All campus wiring is Category 5e copper. Network access and distribution devices are currently 100 Mbps hubs, and the core is a 100 Mbps Layer-2 switch. Development of the network has taken place over the past eight years in a series of steps that involved minimal planning, with the exception of the WAN links, which have been recently redesigned. The current network is characterized by slow response and frequent outages. The engineering department uses a database server located in the engineering building. This server processes heavy local traffic, that keeps the local network at 70% of bandwidth. Accounting uses commercial packages for general ledger, accounts payable, and accounts receivable; these packages are located on a server in the administration building. This server processes heavy local traffic and light traffic from other buildings. All other servers are located in the information-processing center. All employees use e-mail located on one server in the information-processing center. There is a web server that is available for public use and an internal web server that is available to employees for company news items and for human resource applications, such as an internal jobs-available database. The external web server is in a new Corporate Internet module. The internal network traffic is expected to grow at 10% per year for the next five years. The IT manager of FOO has asked you tot design an up-to-date, high-performance, scalable, secure, manageable, and reliable campus network to meet the strategic goals of FOO. Finances are limited, so the design needs to meet the requirements but with minimum cost.
Case Study FOO (3 questions)
QUESTION 41
Which three modules of the Enterprise Network model will you include in your design? Select three.
A. The Campus Core module.
B. The Edge Distribution module
C. The Management module
D. The Corporate Internet module
E. The Server Farm module
F. The Building Distribution module
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 42
Which recommendations would you make based on the provided parameters? Select two.
A. Use existing copper wiring to the desktop.
B. Use existing copper wiring between the buildings.
C. Use existing single mode fiber to the desktop.
D. Use existing multi-mode fiber to the desktop.
E. Use existing single mode fiber between the buildings.
F. Use existing multi-mode fiber between the buildings.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Where would you locate the devices for the Management Module and Server Farm?
A. In the Administration building
B. In the Engineering building
C. In the Information-processing building
D. in all buildings
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Case Study BAR, Scenario BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers.
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BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Case Study BAR (4 questions)
QUESTION 44
Which two features of the Server Farm module will directly address the problems that the sales department claims have caused lost sales? Select two.
A. firewalls
B. dual-homed servers
C. caching systems
D. mid-range switches
E. redundant switching and links
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B. Dual-homed servers – Addresses hardware failure E. Redundant switching and links – Provides more
than one path between server and switches.
Incorrect:

B. Firewall – Nothing to do with availability of servers. C. Caching Systems – Content Switching not
mentioned as an option. D. Mid-Range Switch – Does not address the availability of servers.

QUESTION 45
Which two properties of the Server Farm module directly address the concern expressed by Certkiller, the owner of BAR? Select two.
A. performance
B. security
C. availability
D. scalability
E. manageability
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C. Availability – The systems need to be up and accessible to customers 24 hours a day. Up time, MTBF and MTTR are important factors when dealing with critical business functions and services.
D. Scalability – The Server Farm Module scalability addresses increasing traffic, and not current traffic which would be performance. Jack has a concern that the network will not
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be able to efficiently process all the additional traffic to the new servers. Incorrect Answers:
A. Performance of Server Farm not an issue – servers have experienced outages. B. Security is not mentioned – Although one should investigate current security policies.
E. No mention of manageability.
QUESTION 46
Because BAR plans on consolidating its server applications, which feature can be included in the network redesign proposal to improve scalability?
A. mid-range switches
B. firewalls
C. server load balancing
D. dual-homed servers
E. redundant switching and links
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Mid-range switches, such as a 4500, provides layer 2/3/4 functions and support QoS. This is a proposal from Cisco and not some other vendor. Provide the Cisco solution!
QUESTION 47
Which Server Farm feature could be added to the BAR network to reduce the time that customers wait for catalog pages and pictures to display when customers access them from the web?
A. redundant switching and links
B. mid-range switches
C. dual-homed servers
D. firewalls
E. caching systems,
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When using cashing systems, the pages and pictures on them which user already loaded in the past are
cashed and in the future if he wants to access this page it is loaded from the local cash, not from the
website. It is much faster and it safes the Internet connection costs.

CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Exhibit #1:

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Exhibit #2: Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable. Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is predicted . The Certkiller school buildings are as follows. One adminislralion building: -45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools: -15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle schools: -25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high school: -35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs ‘

Case Study Certkiller (4 Questions)
QUESTION 48
How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the elementary schools?
A. a set of public IP addresses with one Class B address for each elementary school
B. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for each elementary school
C. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted between the Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873 elementary schools
D. a set of public IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted between the elementary schools
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the Admin building?
A. private IP addresses with a public Class C address range and public addresses for the web server
B. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address subnetted for the administration building and public addresses for the web servers
C. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for the administration building and public addresses for the web servers.
D. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for the administration building and private addresses for the web servers
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the middle schools?
A. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C address ranges for each middle school
B. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C address ranges for each middle school
C. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted for each middle school
D. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C addresses subnetted between the two middle schools
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the high school?
A. a set of private IP addresses with three Class C address ranges for the high school
B. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C address ranges for the high school
C. a set of private IP addresses with three Class C addresses subnetted for the high school
D. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C addresses subnetted for the high school
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Case Study Certkiller Mexico, Scenario Certkiller Mexico is planning to offer a multimedia Internet video-relationship solution. It will provide streaming video services, VolP services, and an interactive video dating service. The business plan calls for three separate divisions:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
1) Streaming video 2)VoIP 3) Interactive video Each division will have its own network resources.
Case Study Certkiller Mexico (3 Questions)
QUESTION 52
Please refer to the Certkiller Mexico scenario.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate voice over
IP traffic?(Choose two.)

A. Voice traffic is variable delay insensitive provided a large enough elasticity buffer exists in the voice endpoints .
B. Voice traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Voice traffic is insensitive to dropping of voice packets since modern codecs use prediction algorithms capable of rebuilding missing sounds and words.
D. Since voice calls configured for modern codecs use such a small amount of bandwidth (12kbps) per call, it is generally not a requirement to guarantee bandwidth for voice traffic.
E. Link fragmentation and interleaving techniques should be applied on all WAN interfaces with bandwidth less than 768kbps.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Please refer to the Certkiller Mexico scenario.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate interactive
video traffic?(Choose two.)

A. Interactive video traffic is variable delay insensitive provided a large enough elasticity buffer exists in the video endpoints.
B. Interactive video traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Interactive video traffic is insensitive to dropping of video packets since TCP guarantees retransmission of any lost video packets.
D. Videoconferencing sessions cannot be established through WAN edge routers configured for NAT.
E. The minimum amount of guaranteed bandwidth required is the size of the video conference plus 20 percent.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Please refer to the Certkiller Mexico scenario.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate streaming
video traffic? (Choose two.)

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-873

A. Streaming video traffic is less sensitive to variability of delay than interactive video.
B. Streaming video traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Streaming video traffic has a higher tolerance for packet loss than interactive video or voice traffic.
D. The minimum amount of required bandwidth is the size of the streaming video (CIF. QCIF, etc.) times the color depth.
E. Streaming video sessions cannot be established through WAN edge routers configured for NAT.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Mixed (14 Questions)
QUESTION 55
DRAG DROP Drag the requirement for Network Management on the left to the service or tool that will meet that need on the right.

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56

Which three metrics are used to gauge network performance? (Choose three.)
A. responsiveness
B. throughput
C. scalability
D. utilization
E. topology
F. availability
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Examine the graphic and consider following requirements:
— All sites must be able to communicate with all other sites — EIGRP will be used over the links
— IP unicast and multicast traffic must be forwarded Which protocol combination would be most
appropriate for the point-to-multipoint VPN configuration shown in the graphic?
Exhibit:
A. GRE with IPSEC in tunnel mode
B. GRE with IPSEC in transport mode
C. GRE with PPTP
D. GRE with L2TP
E. L2TP with IPSEC Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
DRAG DROP
Drag the routing protocol characteristics on the left to match the routing protocol on the right.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 59

DRAG DROP
Drag the Security activity on the left to the solution it pertains to on the right.

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-873
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 60

Which two statements about SCSI are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bus is limited to 25 meters in length
B. It is a full-duplex serial standard
C. The bus is limited to 32 devices
D. It is a half-duplex serial standard
E. It allows up to 320 MB/s of shared channel bandwidht Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. Enhanced ISL
B. ISL
C. IVR
D. VSANs
E. VoQ
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. Looped square
C. Loop-Free U
D. Loop-free inverted U
E. Looped Triangle

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Jitter is an unwanted variation of one or more characteristics of a periodic signal in electronics and telecommunications and _____refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival.
A. Digitized Sampling
B. Jitter
C. Packet Loss
D. Echo
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Which one is not the feature of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network architecture?
A. Remote access
B. Network unification
C. Mobility services
D. Network management
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 65
Client traffic is being bridged through LAN interfaces on two WLCs. Which roaming option will keep them on the same IP subnet?
A. Layer 1 intercontroller roaming
B. Layer 2 intercontroller roaming
C. Layer 3 intercontroller roaming
D. Intracontroller roaming
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
In base e-commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A. Aggregation Layer
B. Internet Boundary
C. Access and Aggregation Layers
D. Aggregation and core Layers
E. Core Layer
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
What is a virtual firewall?
A. Another name for a firewall deployed in transparent mode
B. A firewall that has multiple contexts, all of which share the same policies (such as NAT and ACLs)
C. A firewall that, when deployed in routed mode, can support up to 1000 VLANs per context
D. Another name for a firewall deployed in routed mode
E. A separation of multiple firewall security contexts on a single firewall
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual ring topology?
A. Dynamic Trunking Protocol
B. Resilient Packet Ring
C. Coarse Wave Division Multiplexing
D. Synchronous Digital Hierarchy
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 26
What is the default setting that the Cisco IP phone employs to set the CoS/ToS value for voice packets?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Ports that are in the data VLAN have a default class of service (CoS) of zero. Ports that are a member of the voice VLAN have a default CoS of 5 Reference: Arch student guide p.11-49
QUESTION 27
Bandwidth used by active calls can be delimited by which of the following types of Call Admission in the Control Manager?
A. Departments
B. Regions
C. Partitions
D. Locations
E. Device Pools
F. All of the above
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
In a voice system, what set of rules governs the handling of incoming and outgoing calls?
A. A dial plan
B. The route table
C. The dial pattern
D. A call handler
E. A route pattern

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
With regard to voice calls, which tool is used to reduce IP header size?
A. cRTP
B. RTCP
C. transcoder
D. coded (compression / decompression)
E. A and D
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Header Compression – Compresses a header at various layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI)
reference model. Examples include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header compression,
compressed RTP (cRTP), and compressed Internet Protocol/User Datagram Protocol (IP/UDP).

QUESTION 30
What type of protocol is SIP?
A. Peer-client
B. Server-peer
C. Peer-to-peer
D. Client-server
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SIP stands for Session Initiation Protocol. SIP was published as a proposed standard by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) in 1999. It is a signaling protocol for multimedia session control. This includes signaling for voice, data, and video sessions between just two parties or for multiparty conferencing sessions. SIP end-points negotiate the media parameters using Session Description Protocol (SDP). SDP allows the SIP terminal or application to negotiate media type (audio, video or data), transport protocol (RTP), and media encoding method. Unlike the switched circuit network of today, IP networks developed using SIP will easily support the concepts of presence, availability, and mobility since it is part of the SIP standard. The IETF defines standard behavior for key SIP Server elements such as registration, redirect and proxy servers. SIP registration servers allow users to register with the SIP network using a SIP address that is similar to a URL or Web site location. Once a user registers, the local SIP proxy server routes messages on behalf of the user to the proper destination address. The SIP redirect server is a special server that returns a new or changed address for the destination party that may have temporarily changed locations (from work to home for example). Each of these servers have a particular behavior defined in the IETF standard and maintain session state information in a standard manner, leading to interoperability.
SIP’s main advantages over H.323 are its extensibility and flexibility for adding new features. H.323 is a more complex architecture and uses binary encoding of message parameters. The simplicity of SIP makes it easier to develop and debug applications leading to lower product costs for equipment providers. The SIP client-server and header format design is based on proven Internet standards such as Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (used on commercial web servers) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (used for internet e-mail services). The Client-Server design means that each SIP request will result in a well-defined set of SIP responses. This modular design makes it easy to extend SIP to support new operations by simply adding a new request (or SIP Method) and its corresponding response message. Because SIP is text based, it is easy to parse the various SIP commands.
QUESTION 31
When enabling traffic shaping on a Frame Relay interface supporting voice and data, which three parameters should be configured to protect voice traffic? (Choose three)
A. Bt
B. Bc
C. De
D. CIR
E. LMI
F. DLCI
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Your boss at Certkiller .com is curios as to which type of applications benefit from IP Multicast. What should you tell her? (Select three).
A. low bandwidth streaming applications with many simultaneous users
B. high bandwidth web serving applications
C. video-on-demand served from the Internet
D. scheduled classes delivered using IP-TV over multiple LAN/WAN connections
E. live radio broadcasts delivered over multiple LAN/WAN connections
F. high bandwidth, high volume transactional applications
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee Jack wants to know which
of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Select two.)

A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No vongestion avoidance, Duplicates and
Out-of order delivery.
Incorrect answer:
Not ‘Ordered delivery of packets’ since multicast delivery does not implement any ordering mechanism.

QUESTION 34
What are potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.
Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 35
You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the
following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)

A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Low end routers in use.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
F. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No vongestion avoidance, Duplicates and
Out-of order delivery.
Incorrect answer:
Not ‘Ordered delivery of packets’ since multicast delivery does not implement any ordering mechanism.

QUESTION 36
You are the network administrator at Certkiller .Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
the source address of IP multicast traffic is.
What will your reply be?

A. the assigned IP address of the source host
B. a reserved link address in the 224.0.0.0/24 LCP block
C. a GLOP address with an embedded AS number assigned to the source organization D. a source-specific (SSM) address in the 232/8 block
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
What are the characteristics of an IP Multicast source distribution tree? (Choose three)
A. Sub-optimal paths from source to all receivers.
B. Minimal memory utilization on multicast routers.
C. Router maintenance of complete path information for each source.
D. Optimal path from source to each receiver.
E. Reduced latency when compared to shared distribution trees.
F. Single root RP forwarding of all source traffic.
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: IP Multicast Source Distribution Trees 1) uses more memory (Router maintenance of complete path information for each source) 2) Supports optimal paths from source to all receivers 3) Minimizes delay Reference: Arch student guide p.8-20
QUESTION 38
What are two potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.
Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 39
Which of the following components would you most probably encounter in the VPN/Remote Access module? (Choose three.)
A. ISDN
B. IDS
C. Firewall
D. PSTN
E. Access server
F. All of the above.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which VPN management characteristic would you use when you want to make sure that the network in operation has the least disruption of service when topology changes are made?
A. Auto setup
B. Remote management
C. Dynamic reconfiguration
D. Automatic reconfiguration.
E. Path MTU discovery
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the
device.
Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17

QUESTION 41
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which protocol at Layer 3 can be used to provide
data integrity, privacy, and security on an IP based VPN.
What would your reply be?

A. GRE
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. L2TP
E. Kerberos
F. MD5
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IPSec is a set of standards that specify various options for providing VPN data privacy. Packet
authentication protects the information flow from being tampered with or even repeated, thereby minimizing
disruption to the communication.
An IPSec networking architecture has been specifically designed to address these issues. The framework
set forth by the IPSec working group, Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), pofides data integrity checks
for tamper detection, source address verification, and data privacy for the packet data nad data path.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-9.

QUESTION 42
You are contracted as a network administrator the company, Certkiller Ltd. Recently you received complaints by users that they are experiencing performance problems on the company’s site-to-site VPN network. Upon investigating the complaints you find that the VPN connection uses IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links. What can be done to address this problem successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
C. Reset the MTU value to lower than 1400 bytes.
D. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
E. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
F. None of the above.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Which Cisco Works VPN/Security Management Solution will you use to gain access to devices and the displays that will show their real-time status as well as their operational and configuration functions through a web browser?
A. Resource Manager (RME)
B. VPN Monitor
C. Cisco View
D. Omni-vision
E. IDS Host Sensor
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution includes VPN Monitor.
VPN Monitor: Collects, stores, and reports on IPsec-based site-to-site and remote-access VPNs. VPN
Monitor supports the Cisco VPN concentrators and routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-19.

QUESTION 44
Which network management tool helps network administrators develop and maintain new and existing traffic filters on Cisco devices?
A. CiscoView
B. ACL Manager
C. Cisco Netsys
D. Resource Manager
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ACL Manager manages the access lists of Cisco devices. ACLM provides tools to set up and manage IP and IPX filtering and device access control. These tools include: access list editors, policy template managers, network and service class managers for scalability, access list navigation tools for troubleshooting, optimization of access lists, and automated distribution of access list updates.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-25
QUESTION 45
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the device
weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration would be.
What would your reply be?

A. 800
B. 5000
C. 6500
D. 2500
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The clustering option relate to the grouping of devices, usually phones and gateways. With the limits imposed on a single CallManager (device weights of 5,000 per CallManager, not IP phones) and good design practices, the minimum configuration consists of two CallManagers, which will support up to 2,500 IP phones. Cisco recommends four CallManagers to support 5,000 IP phones and up to six CallManagers to support up to 10,000 IP phones. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-28
QUESTION 46
Which of the following signaling techniques is used amongst CallManager clusters for intercluster calls?
A. SS7
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. BRI2
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the
maximum number of CallManager servers you can have in a cluster is.
What would your reply be?

A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 56
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not. Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a cluster based on the number of users. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43
QUESTION 49
Which three are used in configuration Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three)
A. route list
B. route group
C. gateway list
D. route keeper
E. route pattern
F. first digit pattern
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which of the following are functions form part of Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)? (Choose four.)
A. Fault tolerance
B. Network address translation
C. Load balancing
D. Scalability
E. Remote management
F. Service assurance
G. Redundancy allowance
Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco routers and switches incorporate Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) software to enable content routing capabilities. Additionally, Cisco offers content routers specifically designed to support large-scale mirrored web sites. Content routing routes user requests to the replicated-content site (typically a mirror site) that can serve them most quickly and efficiently. The content routing software redirects a user request to the closest (best) replicated-content site, based on network delay, using a software process called boomerang. The content routing software load balances up to 500 sites for each domain it is configured to support. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-6
QUESTION 51
Mentioned below are several tools. Which of them is a web-browser based tool designed to provide administrative access for content networking?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Hypertext Administration Design (HAD)
C. Access Point
D. Content Distribution Manager (CDM)
E. Self-Organizing Distributed Architecture (SODA)
F. Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Cisco Content Distribution Manager (CDM) is a web-browser-based tool that provides the administrative function for content networking. With the CDM, you can configure and monitor Content Engines, import and preview media, and generate media URLs for access from web sites. You also set maximum bandwidth usage over the WAN from the CDM to the remote Content Engines, as well as maximum LAN bandwidth usage from the Content
Engines to end-user desktops. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-9
QUESTION 52
You are a technician at Certkiller . You were instructed to place Content Engines on the Certkiller network. Where would you place it when you are dealing with transparent caching?
A. Close to the servers.
B. Behind the main server.
C. At the Internet edge.
D. In front of web server farms.
E. Close to the end users.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
As a network consultant at Certkiller .com you are required to speed up services for external users and
minimize load on network servers on a LAN.
Which of the following should you implement?

A. VPN networking
B. CSPM
C. content networking
D. fault tolerance
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 54
You are the network administrator at Certkiller .Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
enterprise caching mode eliminates the need for Layer 4 switches or WCCP enabled routers to intercept
user requests.
What will your reply be?

A. transparent
B. proxy
C. reverse proxy
D. direct
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In proxy mode, end-user web browsers need to be explicitly configured to the IP address or host name of the Content Engine, and there is no need for additional hardware such as Layer 4 switches or Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)-enabled routers to intercept user requests, as in transparent caching. Enterprises are normally interested in deploying transparent network caching, but some enterprises may have a legacy requirement for a proxy (nontransparent) cache. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-12
QUESTION 55
Match the Security activity on the left to the solution it pertains to on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Match the world on the left to the category for proving a design implementation it belongs.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Match the Layer 2 roaming characteristic to the wireless LAN security implementation model it applies.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Source CCDP Self Study (Designing Cisco Network Architectures ARCH), page 420 table 10-2 Security
Implementation Model Comparison Layer 2 Roaming explains exactly for “WLAN LAN Extension via EAP”,
“WLAN LAN Extension via IPSec”, and “WLAN Static WEP”.
Exam E
QUESTION 1
Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The CDM enables you to configure bandwidth and distribution settings such that the streaming content will no interfere with other network traffic. It is also the central control point where the CEs that will carry the broadcast media are identified. The CDM is typically located in the server farm Reference: Arch student guide p.12-42
QUESTION 2
Which of the following protocols is able to provide block access to remote storage over WAN links?
A. SCSI-FP
B. SIP
C. iSCSI
D. FCIP
E. eSCSI
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are a technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which device
will act as a bridge between a Fiber Channel SAN and an IP network.
What would your reply be?

A. Storage Router
B. Switching hub
C. FC-HBA attached host
D. FC Switch
E. NAS GE Switch
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco storage router delivers redundant iSCSI paths to a pair of Fibre Channel switches. iSCSI takes
advantage of the connection-oriented TCP protocol for reliable service.
Ethernet was already part of the IT network. This meant trained personnel were on board, and simplified

the storage networking installation shown in the figure. Cost was an important factor in choosing iSCSI. Because the research facility already had TCP/IP and Gigabit Ethernet networks installed, the iSCSI solution fit their budget and met their storage networking needs. Reference: Arch student guide p.13-33
QUESTION 4
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
which protocol encapsulates Fiber Channel frames so that they can be transported transparently over an
IP network.
What will your reply be?

A. iSCSO
B. FCIP
C. SCSI-FP
D. eSCSI
E. CIFS
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: An important technology for linking Fibre Channel SANs is FCIP. FCIP and iSCSI are complementary solutions for enabling company-wide access to storage. FCIP transparently interconnects Fibre Channel SAN islands over IP networks through FCIP tunnels, while iSCSI allows IP-connected hosts to access iSCSI or FC-connected storage. Reference: Arch student guide p.13-15
QUESTION 5
You are a network technician at Certkiller .com. The database for Certkiller .com requires continuous
uptime (24×7) and processes many write-intensive applications

from many different sources. The current Certkiller .com LAN network operates at approximately 50%
utilization, with peaks that exceed 70%.
Which storage networking model would you include your network upgrade design?

A. Metro Optical
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. universal IP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which IP storage network solution is best suited for high-volume, write-intensive, transaction-driven applications?
A. Storage area networking
B. Network-attached storage
C. Local storage
D. Metro optical storage
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SAN provides block-oriented access to native disk storage. It is based on a shared or switched
infrastructure, often Fibre Channel. You can extend SAN to an ip infrastructure.
New protocols and products are emerging that allow the integration of SANs with the IP network.
Historically, SANs have been well suited to high-volume, write-intensive transaction-driven applications.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-7.

QUESTION 7
In which scenario would a SAN storage solution be a better choice than an iSCSI-based NAS solution?
A. Traditional file-sharing applications.
B. Fast growing data storage needs.
C. Applications that cannot tolerate block level, storage access latency.
D. Highly reads-intensive applications.
E. Web serving applications with many active pages.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
What are disadvantages to storage directly attached to the application servers? (Choose three)
A. Reliability
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Manageability
E. Available bandwidth
F. Access speed
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: System administrators are faced with the challenging task to managing storage and making it scalable to accommodate future needs. With storage directly attached to the server, scalability is difficult. The storage expansion capability is limited to the capacity of the server (for example, as measured by the number of I/O controllers and devices per controller configured is the server). The nature of the small computer system (SCSI) bus commonly used to connect commodity disks to a commodity server makes it difficult to allocate more disk storage without interrupting and rebooting the server, and thus affecting applications.
C: No redundancy is provided Reference: Arch student guide p.13-6. Incorrect answers:
A: Reliability would be good.
E: bandwidth would be excellent.
F: access speed would be excellent.
QUESTION 9
Which protocol enables the location of a fully synchronized hot backup Fiber Channel storage solution at a remote site over existing optical WAN links?
A. iSCSI
B. SCSI-FCP
C. FCIP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can use FCIP to connect two geographically dispersed Fibre Channel storage arrays

for the purpose of synchronous data storage. If the local storage array becomes unavailable, an
application could utilize the FCIP link to access the data on the “hot backup” storage system at the remote
site. It is also possible to implement remote tape backups to further protect customers’ valuable information
in the event of disaster at the primary site.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-16

QUESTION 10
Why is G.729a commonly used instead of G.729?
A. It receives a higher MOS score.
B. It uses less complex algorithms.
C. It uses more complex algorithms.
D. It samples speech pattern more often.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
What are two benefits of a high availability network? (Choose two)
A. Improves user satisfaction.
B. Minimized lost opportunity costs.
C. Increases network manageability.
D. Reduces hardware and software costs.
E. Reduces information technology (IT) costs.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11b?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 1.44 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 11 Mbps data.
E. 1.44 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
You would choose IS-IS for a routing protocol to meet the following two requirements. (Choose two)
A. Expansion of the backbone area is a concern.
B. Dial-up connections are required.
C. The network has NBMA connections.
D. The network is very large.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a multi-vendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
E. EIRGP
F. BGP
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three)
A. Rate limit traffic.
B. Configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence.
C. Isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs.
D. Use low latency queuing at the source.
E. Classify and mark traffic close to the source.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
With which of the following does the Cisco Product Advisor help customers? (Choose three) A. design options
B. hardware devices
C. software options
D. hardware options
E. protocol components

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which statement about fully redundant topologies is true?
A. Public bandwidth can be utilized on an as-needed basis.
B. Key components can be replaced within the device without turning power off.
C. Devices can be replaced in the network without interrupting the network operation.
D. Each device provides redundant backup within the device for each of its key components.
E. A backup exists for every link and for every device between the client and the server.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11a?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 64 Mbps data.
E. 12 GHz frequency and 12 Mbps data.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two QoS functions are used to prioritize voice over data? (Choose two)
A. voice activity detection
B. queue servicing
C. classification
D. fragmentation
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which three routing protocols can minimize the number of routes advertised in the network? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. BGP
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which of the following modules of the Enterprise Campus is NOT considered important to the scalability of the campus network?
A. building distribution
B. building access
C. campus backbone
D. network management
E. server farm
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose three)
A. dial plans
B. dialled numbers
C. voice mail prompts
D. phone features
E. ring tones
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
What does ATM do that Frame Relay does not?
A. packet looping
B. priority queuing
C. packet forwarding
D. circuit emulation
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not D: The following Cisco URL describes the four-port circuit emulation cards available for the 2600
router.

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps259/products_data_sheet09186a00802045f5.html
Since the 2600 does not support ATM, but it does support Frame Relay, it is safe to say that circuit
emulation can be supported over Frame Relay.
Note: This topic does not appear in the ARCH v1.2 course notes. We believe it relates to an older version
of the course.

QUESTION 24
What happens when packets traversing the network exceed the MTU of an IPSec/VPN interface?
A. They trigger a link failure.
B. They are all discarded and re-transmitted.
C. They are unable to be sent.
D. They come fragmented.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which type of disaster recovery application protects from user error or data corruption, as well as hardware failure?
A. disk mirroring
B. replication
C. backup and off-site storage
D. disk duplexing
E. RAID 5 stripe sets
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
What are two characteristics of shaping, but not policing? (Choose two)
A. It forces TCP resends.
B. It is typically performed on enterprise egress.
C. It is rate limiting with no buffering mechanism.
D. It can adapt to Frame Relay BECN and FECN.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Certkiller .com is a global insurance company with headquarters in Mexico City. The campus there is made of a number of buildings located in the same vicinity. In 2003, a new building, Building Certkiller 12A was added. The additional building houses approximately 1000 employees. Rather than deploy a private branch exchange (PBX) in the new building, Certkiller .com has decided to implement an IP telephony solution. External calls will be carried across a MAN link to another building, where a gateway connects into the worldwide PBX network of Certkiller .com. Voice mail and unified messaging components are required and all IP phones and workstations should be on separate VLANs and IP subnets. Which IP technology deployment best suits their need?
A. single-site
B. multisite with centralized call processing
C. multisite with distributed call processing
D. clustering over the WAN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
In the Enterprise Composite Network model, which Enterprise Campus Infrastructure Module submodule provides aggregation of wiring closets, and performing routing, quality of service, and access control?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Backbone
D. Edge Distribution
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Certkiller .com is a small company with 25 agents stationed around Spain. It is necessary for these agents
to transmit customer data securely from their homes and from their customer sites.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?

A. Individual Remote Access IPSec-based VPN
B. Leased Line T1 Connection
C. Dial-up ISDN Access
D. Site-to-Site IPSec-based VPN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30
In which two instances would static routing be preferred over the use of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. in small networks that are planning to grow
B. in networks using on demand routing that are not expected to grow significantly
C. in networks where a total knowledge of the network is not known
D. in a network that has a few very large sites and a single connection to the Internet
E. when routing to and from stub networks
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which two types of attacks are addressed at the Building Access sub-module of the Enterprise Campus infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. viruses
B. packet sniffers
C. IP spoofing
D. password attacks
E. unauthorized access
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which three components are part of the Intelligent Network Services provided by the Cisco AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. QoS
B. work force optimization
C. security
D. e-business infrastructure
E. IP telephony
F. IP multicasting
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose two.)
A. multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch office
C. dual Wan links to the regional office
D. dual Wan links to another branch office
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
The Acme Anvil Corporation has two manufacturing sites and six sales offices. Each sales office requires 25 public IP addresses, and each manufacturing facility requires 210 public IP addresses. If the company plans for 20 percent growth for each facility, how many Class C addresses will it require?
A. five
B. four
C. six
D. eight
E. seven
F. three
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?
A. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
B. serialization delay of 10 ms
C. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. jitter of 30 ms or less
E. packet loss of 2 percent or less
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
What type of Call Admission control in CallManager allows for limits to the bandwidth consumed by active calls?
A. locations
B. regions
C. partitions
D. device Pools
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which routing protocol best fits these requirements? – Supported by multiple router vendors – Requires minimum router CPU and memory resources – Uses a simple routing metric – Supports manual or automatic route summarization
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. RIPv2
D. IGRP
E. EIGRP
F. BGP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
One of the business requirements of New Garden Health, Inc. is a secure connection to its business partners. Which four components should be included in the topology diagram of the VPN module? (Choose four.)
A. public servers
B. VPN network management servers
C. firewall
D. perimeter router
E. IDS/IPS
F. VPN concentrator
Correct Answer: CDEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39

Refer to the exhibit. CCC Machine has decided to deploy a Voice over IP solution in its main campus headquarters. The design calls for the insertion of a Cisco CallManager, Cisco IP phones, and a voice gateway. Due to the new application requirements, what three changes should be made to the access layer of the CCC network design? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the 3524-PWR access switches to ensure Voice over IP packets are given preferential treatment by enabling voice traffic to use separate queues.
B. Since end-user workstations cannot run CDP, disable it on the IP phones to improve performance and increase security.
C. The trust boundary should be extended from the 3524-PWR access switches to include the IP phones.
D. A new voice-only VLAN should be established and extended from the IP phones throughout the campus.
E. Ingress rate-limiting should be configured on 3524-PWR access switches to ensure Voice over IP bandwidth guarantees.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
A network designer will be incorporating IP telephony into a large company with over 4,000 phones. What two recommendations does Cisco make about the server(s) used to store configuration files, device loads (operating code), and ring types for downloading? (Choose two.)
A. Create a dedicated TFTP server.
B. Create one FTP server per dedicated database publisher.
C. Incorporate multiple load-balanced FTP servers to replace any TFTP servers.
D. Create multiple load-balanced TFTP servers.
E. Create a backup TFTP server in case the main FTP server fails.
F. Incorporate a dedicated FTP server to replace any TFTP servers.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
:

Morris Prosthetics is having problems with serialization delay on its WAN links.
The links currently carry less than 768 Kbps. Which Layer 2 mechanism can help solve the problem?

A. Integrated Services module
B. Compressed Real-Time Transfer Protocol
C. link fragmentation and interleaving
D. differentiated service code points
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. autonomous-route injection
B. single run
C. stub domain EBGP
D. multi-homed
E. direct BGP peering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
What are three features of the Cisco Product Advisor tool? (Choose three.)
A. It includes a wireless product search category.
B. It covers select switches from the Catalyst 2800 Series through the Catalyst 8500 Series.
C. It covers only select routers from the 800 Series through the 7400 Series.
D. It can be used in a novice, question-and-answer mode.
E. You can begin searching categories that include routing, switching, and IP telephony.
F. It narrows down Cisco networking products based on product cost and network requirements.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Acme Nutrition manufactures a wide variety of vitamin supplements. It has a single manufacturing facility
with 3 regional warehouses and 16 district sales offices.
Currently the manufacturing facility requires 210 IP addresses; each warehouse requires 51 IP addresses;
each district sales office requires 11 IP addresses; and the IP WAN requires 38 IP addresses. If Acme
Nutrition plans for 20 percent growth in facilities, how many Class C subnets will the district sales offices
require?

A. 19 (3 from the warehouse range and 16 from a separate Class C address)
B. 18 (2 from the Warehouse range and 14 from a separate Class C address)
C. 16 (3 from the warehouse range and 13 from a separate Class C address)
D. 20 (4 from the warehouse range,15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
E. 19 (3 from the warehouse block, 15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
F. 16 (all from a separate Class C address)
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Captain Marion’s Videography delivers Internet digital video using 9 MPEG video encoders and a statistical multiplexer. Channels are packed into a 6-MHz channel bandwidth.The MPEG multiplexer monitors and allocates the appropriate bandwidth. The multiplexer measures available bandwidth and feeds back signaling to the MPEG encoders. Coding rates are then increased or decreased. Packet generation from each input source is controlled such that no packets are dropped and no extra null packets can be generated.These bandwidth and traffic requirements work best with which mode of video delivery?
A. open looped
B. quality equalization
C. VoD delivery
D. fixed broadcast
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
The Schuyler and Livingston Iron Works has been working on getting its network security under control. It has set up VPN with IPSec links to its suppliers. It has installed network vulnerability scanners to proactively identify areas of weakness, and it monitors and responds to security events as they occur. It also employs extensive access control lists, stateful firewall implementations, and dedicated firewall appliances. The company has been growing very fast lately and wants to make sure it is up to date on security measures. Which two areas of security would you advise the company to strengthen? (Choose two.)
A. security management
B. perimeter security
C. identity
D. intrusion protection
E. secure connectivity
F. intrusion detection
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The right answer shoul be identity and intrusion protection (C,D) because security management is covered
by the vulnerability scanner and monitor.

QUESTION 47
Which Cisco voice application includes Cisco IP IVR, Cisco IP Integrated Contact Distribution (ICD), and Cisco IP Queue Manager?
A. Cisco Conference Connection
B. Cisco Integration Manager
C. Cisco Works
D. Cisco Emergency Responder
E. Cisco VoIP Integration Application
F. Cisco Customer Response Solution
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which benefit of the Cisco AVVID framework improves productivity by enabling comprehensive tools?
A. intelligence
B. interoperability
C. innovation
D. integration
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most performance enhancing, cost effective, and growth oriented media for the connections for the NAS portion of this storage network design?
A. Gigabit Ethernet
B. FCIP
C. Fiber Channel
D. EtherChannel

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which four QoS design requirements are the closest to Cisco recommendations for VoIP traffic? (Choose four).
A. serialization delay of 100 ms to 150 ms
B. less than 30 ms of jitter
C. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. 150 bps (+ Layer 2 overhead) of guaranteed bandwidth for voice control traffic per call
E. less than 1 percent of packet loss
F. fixed 64 kbps of guaranteed priority bandwidth per call
Correct Answer: BCDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two of the following Cisco router platforms support Multicast Distributed Fast Switching? (Choose two.)
A. 12000 series
B. 7200 series with NSE-1
C. 3600 series
D. 7500 series
E. ISR 1800/2800/3800 series
F. 10000 series
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
When designing the WAN module within the enterprise edge, which document is used to specify the connectivity and performance agreements with the service provider?
A. RFC
B. SOW
C. RFP
D. SLC/SLA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Match the ISP’s definitions (on the left) to the correct terms on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Match the attribute on the left to the services codepoint model it describes on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Match the most appropriate definition on the left to the Layer 2 WAN technology term it describes on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Match the definition on the left to the form of NAT it describes on the right.
Select and Place: Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Match the AVVID element on the left to the Cisco AVVID framework component it belongs to the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam F
QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct in regards to the Content Distribution Manager? (Choose two.)
A. It allows configurable bandwidth and distribution settings so content will not interfere with other network traffic.
B. It is utilized in content networking for e-commerce.
C. It is used to cache selected content from origin servers and delivers specific content to requesting users.
D. It is used to load balance and direct traffic to the appropriate CE.
E. It enables organizations to deliver live broadcasts to desktops and meeting rooms.
F. It is utilized in content networking for streaming media.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Users at Certkiller .com began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer-to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use class-based marking to mark the peer-to-peer traffic to DSCP 0
B. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
C. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
D. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
E. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When designing an IP addressing scheme, how much reserve capacity does Cisco recommend to plan for in the IP address space?
A. 10-30 percent
B. 25-50 percent
C. 15-35 percent
D. 20-40 percent
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which conference bridge supports multiple low-bit-rate stream types?
A. hardware
B. Q.711
C. VoIP q.933
D. software
E. G.729
F. Skinny

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What are three benefits to tuning BGP parameters? (Choose three.)
A. When there are two alternate paths to the same target network and they have the same relative performance, you can direct traffic to the least expensive path.
B. It helps reduce the amount of traffic an ISP has to pay for on its own network.
C. Cold-potato routing keeps traffic on the network of an ISP as short a time as possible, delivering the traffic to the ingress point as close to the target as possible.
D. Hot-potato routing directs traffic to the closest ingress point of the network. Traffic remains on the router for a shorter period of time. This is true even when an even more optimal path exists.
E. In order to avoid routing loops, all BGP routers in the same AS must ultimately make the best routing decision for their own directly connected network.
F. Policy routing is often used to balance traffic across multiple links.
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which routing protocol supports a flexible area structure using routing levels one and two?
A. IGRP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. RIPv2
F. IS-IS
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A security analysis at Certkiller .com recommends installing an IDS appliance and a firewall appliance. These appliances should connect directly into a Layer 3 switch. A load balancer and SSL termination have also been recommended.Potomac’s management have expressed concern over the cost. You suggest using integrated blades. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of your design proposal? (Choose two.)
A. This configuration can inhibit failover in high-availability scenarios without a high degree of management.
B. Using integrated blades would only require two devices.
C. Increased usage of standalone devices is cost-effective.
D. Since integrated blades are rarely used in high-availability failover scenarios, this creates a support issue.
E. The data center would need several devices to achieve its goal.
F. Putting all security devices in a single chassis provides a single point of failure.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. Which routing protocol would do the best job of meeting these requirements?
A. EIGRP
B. RIPv2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. RIP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. An IT department has configured their Edge as follows:A PIX firewall:- Using appliance
form- Using OSPF- Six interfaces- One interface connecting to the outside via the Internet router- Three inside interfaces connecting to the internal network- A DMZ interface connecting to the e-mail and web servers On their outbound router (where they once had a high incidence of packet drop), they now have: -10 Mbps Metro Ethernet link- 10/100BASE-FX (for growth) In picking an ISP they are looking for: – Growth capacity- RedundancyGiven this scenario, which ISP is the best fit?
A. ISP A
B. ISP B
C. ISP C
D. ISP A or ISP C
E. ISP B or ISP C
F. ISP A or ISP B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What are the two primary kinds of communication within a Cisco CallManager cluster? (Choose two.)
A. mechanism for distributing the database
B. intercluster CDP
C. propagation and replication of run-time data
D. intercluster routing
E. registration, admission, and status (RAS) messages
F. keepalives between the Call Managers within the cluster
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by-hop (router-to-router) basis?
A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor
B. Device Fault Manager
C. CiscoView
D. Internetwork Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What are three primary activities in the cycle of building an enterprise security strategy? (Choose three.)
A. activity audit
B. ACL documentation
C. administration
D. technology implementation
E. policy establishment
F. feature evaluation
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Acme Costume Company is connecting its manufacturing facilties to its stores with a small point-to-multipoint Frame Relay IP WAN. Little growth is expected in the network infrastructure.Up to this point the company has been using a dial-on-demand network. Dropping WAN costs, however, have led them to consider using a high-speed WAN solution to improve access. Which two routing protocols could you deploy to support the new larger network while keeping costs down? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IGRP
E. RIPv2
F. IS-IS
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14

Refer to the exhibit. A central site WAN edge router is connected to the remote site WAN edge router over a Frame Relay PVC. The central site has a CIR of 384 kbps and the remote site has a CIR of 128 kbps. Traffic flowing across this Frame Relay WAN link includes VoIP, SQL, FTP, HTTP, Citrix, Telnet, and other best-effort class traffic. Which three QoS mechanisms should be implemented on the WAN edge router Frame Relay WAN link in the outbound direction? (Choose three.)
A. class-based markings
B. LLQ
C. class-based traffic policing
D. Frame Relay traffic shaping
E. Class-Based RTP header compression on the voice traffic class
F. class-based WRED on the voice traffic class
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which three features are network design requirements that indicate a need for a highly available network? (Choose three.)
A. improved customer loyalty
B. minimum network equipment costs
C. network intrusion detection
D. support of mission-critical applications
E. reduced productivity losses
F. increased use of streaming media
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Certkiller .com. amultinational company, has Internet gateways in multiple countries and an internal IP WAN. They are designing an IP addressing scheme.Which are the three most important issues that need to be considered? (Choose three.)
A. Is hierarchy needed within the IP addressing plan?
B. How many locations are in the network and what is their size?
C. How will VLANs be deployed for the customer?
D. Which locations will provide redundant links to the Internet?
E. What types of IP addresses are required, private, public, or both?
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Certkiller .com specializes in home theater products. Their campus network has four buildings in close proximity and another building about four miles away. The network accommodates close to 500 marketing, sales, finance, and engineering employees.The IT staff wants to test the the current FDDI backbone to see if it inhibits network performance. In addition, they need to ensure that a new database order entry application will not negatively impact the network. Which testing method will best meet Burgouyne’s needs?
A. Set up a prototype on the live system during off-hours.
B. Set up a prototype network on the live system using NetPredictor.
C. Use NetPredictor to test the capacity and to collect packet traces to predict future performance.
D. Set up a pilot network to simulate their network, and add users to show the difference.
E. Set up a pilot network to simulate their network, and collect packet traces.
F. Set up a prototype network in a lab.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Certkiller .com is a parts distributor doing business worldwide. The IT staff is considering a network upgrade. The main network load is a CRM application used around the clock. Equipment funding is very liberal, but the IT staff has limited assistance time. The staff insists on full network design proof and verification.What is the best way to prototype this design?
A. Integrate the test with the production network during business hours.
B. Set up a test network that will operate during off-peak hours.
C. Use a test network in a lab.
D. Integrate testing with the production network during off-hours.
E. Implement live during off-peak hours (although because of the around the clock nature of the business, you will not be able to test very well).
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three components comprise the AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. intelligent network services
B. common network infrastructure
C. interoperability
D. network solutions
E. abstracted integration
F. advanced artificial intelligence
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20

Refer to the exhibit. At Certkiller .com, you have just interviewed the IT manager who has this list of technical issues about the company’s Campus LAN. Which three device technologies will best solve these problems? (Choose three.)
A. ATM switches
B. switch blades
C. routers
D. VPN concentrators
E. LAN switches F. IPX firewalls

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which two of the following codecs are recommended in a VoIP network design when support for fax/ modem traffic is required? (Choose two.)
A. G.729 with VAD and no EC
B. G.711
C. G.726r32
D. GSM 6.10
E. GSM.711 with no VAD and no EC
F. G.729
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Cisco’s website contains an article about configuring fax support http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/ product/software/ios122/122newft/122t/122t11/faxapp/ which states that the only possible options are:
G.711 with no VAD and no EC G.726 at 32K (G.726r32)
QUESTION 22
Which three Enterprise Composite Network modules are sub-modules should be included in your design? Select three.
A. Server Farm
B. Internet Connectivity
C. Campus Core
D. Edge Distribution
E. Management
F. WAN
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which IP addressing approach will meet Certkiller .com requirements?
A. Certkiller .com needs an address space larger than a single Class C IP address.
B. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with EIGPR as the internal routing protocol.
C. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with IGPR as the internal routing protocol.
D. Certkiller .com can use the current Class C address with the current routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which Layer 2 technology would you recommend to Certkiller .com in your WAN design?
A. PPP
B. Frame Relay
C. ADSL
D. ATM
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Frame Relay meets all clients needs.
Frame Relay is a switched data-link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits using HDLC-
delivered encapsulation between connected devices. Frame Relay is more bandwidth efficient than X.25,
the protocol for which it is generally considered a replacement. Frame Relay provides cost-effective, high-
speed, low-latency virtual circuits between sites. Frame Relay provides cost-effective, high-speed, low-
latency virtual circuits between sites. Frame Relay runs over DS0, T1/E1, and serial links.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-30

QUESTION 25
Your boss at Certkiller .com asks you when the site-to-site access model is appropriate. What should you tell him?
A. for multiple ISDN connections
B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections
C. for a group of users in the same vicinity sharing a connection
D. for use by mobile users
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Case Study FOO, Scenario
FOO is a manufacturer and importer of fasteners, including nuts and bolts. The main campus is composed of three buildings that are less than 200 meters apart. All campus wiring is Category 5e copper. Network access and distribution devices are currently 100 Mbps hubs, and the core is a 100 Mbps Layer-2 switch.
Development of the network has taken place over the past eight years in a series of
steps that involved minimal planning, with the exception of the WAN links, which have been recently redesigned. The current network is characterized by slow response and frequent outages. The engineering department uses a database server located in the engineering building. This server processes heavy local traffic, that keeps the local network at 70% of bandwidth. Accounting uses commercial packages for general ledger, accounts payable, and accounts receivable; these packages are located on a server in the administration building. This server processes heavy local traffic and light traffic from other buildings. All other servers are located in the information-processing center. All employees use e-mail located on one server in the information-processing center. There is a web server that is available for public use and an internal web server that is available to employees for company news items and for human resource applications, such as an internal jobs-available database. The external web server is in a new Corporate Internet module. The internal network traffic is expected to grow at 10% per year for the next five years. The IT manager of FOO has asked you tot design an up-to-date, high-performance, scalable, secure, manageable, and reliable campus network to meet the strategic goals of FOO. Finances are limited, so the design needs to meet the requirements but with minimum cost.
Case Study FOO (3 questions)
QUESTION 26
Which three modules of the Enterprise Network model will you include in your design? Select three.
A. The Campus Core module.
B. The Edge Distribution module
C. The Management module
D. The Corporate Internet module
E. The Server Farm module
F. The Building Distribution module
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which recommendations would you make based on the provided parameters? Select two.
A. Use existing copper wiring to the desktop.
B. Use existing copper wiring between the buildings.
C. Use existing single mode fiber to the desktop.
D. Use existing multi-mode fiber to the desktop.
E. Use existing single mode fiber between the buildings.
F. Use existing multi-mode fiber between the buildings.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Case Study BAR, Scenario
BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Where would you locate the devices for the Management Module and Server Farm?
A. In the Administration building
B. In the Engineering building
C. In the Information-processing building
D. in all buildings
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Case Study BAR, Scenario
BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Which two features of the Server Farm module will directly address the problems that the sales department claims have caused lost sales? Select two.
A. firewalls
B. dual-homed servers
C. caching systems
D. mid-range switches
E. redundant switching and links
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B. Dual-homed servers – Addresses hardware failure E. Redundant switching and links – Provides more
than one path between server and switches.
Incorrect:

B. Firewall – Nothing to do with availability of servers.

C. Caching Systems – Content Switching not mentioned as an option.

D. Mid-Range Switch – Does not address the availability of servers.

QUESTION 30
Case Study BAR, Scenario
BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Which two properties of the Server Farm module directly address the concern expressed by Certkiller, the owner of BAR? Select two.
A. performance
B. security
C. availability
D. scalability
E. manageability
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C. Availability – The systems need to be up and accessible to customers 24 hours a day.
Up time, MTBF and MTTR are important factors when dealing with critical business functions and services.

D. Scalability – The Server Farm Module scalability addresses increasing traffic, and not current traffic
which would be performance. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all
the additional traffic to the new servers.
Incorrect Answers:

A. Performance of Server Farm not an issue – servers have experienced outages.

B. Security is not mentioned – Although one should investigate current security policies.

E. No mention of manageability.

QUESTION 31
Case Study BAR, Scenario
BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Because BAR plans on consolidating its server applications, which feature can be included in the network redesign proposal to improve scalability?
A. mid-range switches
B. firewalls
C. server load balancing
D. dual-homed servers
E. redundant switching and links
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Mid-range switches, such as a 4500, provides layer 2/3/4 functions and support QoS. This is a proposal from Cisco and not some other vendor. Provide the Cisco solution!
QUESTION 32
Case Study BAR, Scenario BAR, an Internet auction house for baseball memorabilia, has increased sales 100% over the past two years. The design of their current network has all of their servers located on an single LAN segment designated as the DMZ on their firewall. The SQL server that processes customer orders also hosts the web server that presents the website and customer bidding forms. The web server provides the ability for customers to browse a large collection of photographs as well as a catalog of memorabilia offered directly from BAR. An e-mail server is located on the same segment as the SQL Server. As the business traffic to the website has increased, the single server often gets inundated with traffic. The e-mail server is experiencing an increase in traffic as well, because all correspondence with customers is via e-mail. Both the servers and the network where the servers are located have experienced repeated outages because of hardware problems. Certkiller, the owner of BAR, has decided to purchase a rival auction site and consolidate the two businesses into one location. The rival auction house has a separate web server and two larger SQL servers that process their customer orders. Once the companies are consolidated, the server applications will be consolidated as well. There will be three SQL servers dedicated to processing customer orders and bidding forms. Two additional servers will be dedicated to web and e-mail services. Jack has a concern that the network will not be able to efficiently process all of the additional traffic to the new servers. BAR sales organization has a requirement that the systems be up and accessible to customers twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The sales department claims that BAR is losing valuable sales because of unreliable server and network hardware. Certkiller requested a proposal from Cisco for a redesign of the BAR network to address her concerns and to provide the accessibility that the sales department requires. The Cisco Sales Team has proposed a network redesign that includes a Server Farm module.
Which Server Farm feature could be added to the BAR network to reduce the time that customers wait for catalog pages and pictures to display when customers access them from the web?
A. redundant switching and links
B. mid-range switches
C. dual-homed servers
D. firewalls
E. caching systems,

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When using cashing systems, the pages and pictures on them which user already loaded in the past are
cashed and in the future if he wants to access this page it is loaded from the local cash, not from the
website. It is much faster and it safes the Internet connection costs.

QUESTION 33
CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable.
Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is
predicted .
The Certkiller school buildings are as follows.
One adminislralion building:
-45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools:
-15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle
schools:
-25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high
school:
-35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs’

How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the elementary schools?

A. a set of public IP addresses with one Class B address for each elementary school
B. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for each elementary school
C. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted between the elementary schools
D. a set of public IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted between the elementary schools

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable.
Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is
predicted .
The Certkiller school buildings are as follows.
One adminislralion building:
-45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools:
-15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle
schools:
-25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high
school:
-35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs’

How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the Admin building?

A. private IP addresses with a public Class C address range and public addresses for the web server
B. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address subnetted for the administration building and public addresses for the web servers
C. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for the administration building and public addresses for the web servers.
D. a set of private IP addresses with one Class C address for the administration building and private addresses for the web servers

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable.
Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is
predicted .
The Certkiller school buildings are as follows.
One adminislralion building:
-45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools:
-15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle
schools:
-25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high
school:
-35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs’

How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the middle schools?

A. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C address ranges for each middle school
B. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C address ranges for each middle school
C. a set of private IP addresses with two Class C addresses subnetted for each middle school
D. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C addresses subnetted between the two middle schools

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
CaseStudy Certkiller School, Scenario
Refer to the exhibits. Certkiller school needs an IP addressing scheme that is manageable and scalable.
Its ISP will provide only one registered Class C address. A 20 percent overall growth in IP addresses is
predicted .
The Certkiller school buildings are as follows.
One adminislralion building:
-45 PCs and server -Webserver -Internet connection Three elementary schools:
-15 classrooms with 4 PCs per room -Media center with 24 PCs -50 administrative PCs Two middle
schools:
-25 classrooms with 12 PCs in each class -Media center with 30 PCs -30 administrative PCs One high
school:
-35 classrooms with 18 PCs in each class -Media center with 48 PCs -45 administrative PCs’

How would you deploy the IP addressing scheme in the high school?

A. a set of private IP addresses with three Class C address ranges for the high school
B. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C address ranges for the high school
C. a set of private IP addresses with three Class C addresses subnetted for the high school
D. a set of private IP addresses with four Class C addresses subnetted for the high school

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Case Study Certkiller Mexico, Scenario
Certkiller Mexico is planning to offer a multimedia Internet video-relationship solution. It will provide streaming video services, VolP services, and an interactive video dating service. The business plan calls for three separate divisions: 1) Streaming video 2)VoIP 3) Interactive video Each division will have its own network resources.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate voice over IP traffic?(Choose two.)
A. Voice traffic is variable delay insensitive provided a large enough elasticity buffer exists in the voice endpoints .
B. Voice traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Voice traffic is insensitive to dropping of voice packets since modern codecs use prediction algorithms capable of rebuilding missing sounds and words.
D. Since voice calls configured for modern codecs use such a small amount of bandwidth (12kbps) per call, it is generally not a requirement to guarantee bandwidth for voice traffic.
E. Link fragmentation and interleaving techniques should be applied on all WAN interfaces with bandwidth less than 768kbps.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Case Study Certkiller Mexico, Scenario
Certkiller Mexico is planning to offer a multimedia Internet video-relationship solution. It will provide streaming video services, VolP services, and an interactive video dating service. The business plan calls for three separate divisions: 1) Streaming video 2)VoIP 3) Interactive video Each division will have its own network resources.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate interactive video traffic?(Choose two.)
A. Interactive video traffic is variable delay insensitive provided a large enough elasticity buffer exists in the video endpoints.
B. Interactive video traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Interactive video traffic is insensitive to dropping of video packets since TCP
guarantees retransmission of any lost video packets.
D. Videoconferencing sessions cannot be established through WAN edge routers configured for NAT.
E. The minimum amount of guaranteed bandwidth required is the size of the video conference plus 20 percent.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Case Study Certkiller Mexico, Scenario
Certkiller Mexico is planning to offer a multimedia Internet video-relationship solution. It will provide streaming video services, VolP services, and an interactive video dating service. The business plan calls for three separate divisions: 1) Streaming video 2)VoIP 3) Interactive video Each division will have its own network resources.
What two network design constraints must Certkiller Mexico consider in order to accommodate streaming video traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Streaming video traffic is less sensitive to variability of delay than interactive video.
B. Streaming video traffic requires the round-trip latency be no more than 300 ms.
C. Streaming video traffic has a higher tolerance for packet loss than interactive video or voice traffic.
D. The minimum amount of required bandwidth is the size of the streaming video (CIF. QCIF, etc.) times the color depth.
E. Streaming video sessions cannot be established through WAN edge routers configured for NAT.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which three metrics are used to gauge network performance? (Choose three.)
A. responsiveness
B. throughput
C. scalability
D. utilization
E. topology
F. availability
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41

Examine the graphic and consider following requirements:
— All sites must be able to communicate with all other sites — EIGRP will be used over the links — IP
unicast and multicast traffic must be forwarded Which protocol combination would be most appropriate for
the point-to-multipoint VPN configuration shown in the graphic? Exhibit:

A. GRE with IPSEC in tunnel mode
B. GRE with IPSEC in transport mode
C. GRE with PPTP
D. GRE with L2TP
E. L2TP with IPSEC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which two statements about SCSI are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bus is limited to 25 meters in length
B. It is a full-duplex serial standard
C. The bus is limited to 32 devices
D. It is a half-duplex serial standard
E. It allows up to 320 MB/s of shared channel bandwidht
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. Enhanced ISL
B. ISL
C. IVR
D. VSANs
E. VoQ
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. Looped square
C. Loop-Free U
D. Loop-free inverted U
E. Looped Triangle
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Jitter is an unwanted variation of one or more characteristics of a periodic signal in electronics and telecommunications and _____refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival.
A. Digitized Sampling
B. Jitter
C. Packet Loss
D. Echo
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46
Which one is not the feature of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network architecture?
A. Remote access
B. Network unification
C. Mobility services
D. Network management
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Client traffic is being bridged through LAN interfaces on two WLCs. Which roaming option will keep them on the same IP subnet?
A. Layer 1 intercontroller roaming
B. Layer 2 intercontroller roaming
C. Layer 3 intercontroller roaming
D. Intracontroller roaming
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
In base e-commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A. Aggregation Layer
B. Internet Boundary
C. Access and Aggregation Layers
D. Aggregation and core Layers
E. Core Layer
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
What is a virtual firewall?
A. Another name for a firewall deployed in transparent mode
B. A firewall that has multiple contexts, all of which share the same policies (such as NAT and ACLs)
C. A firewall that, when deployed in routed mode, can support up to 1000 VLANs per context
D. Another name for a firewall deployed in routed mode
E. A separation of multiple firewall security contexts on a single firewall
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual ring topology?
A. Dynamic Trunking Protocol
B. Resilient Packet Ring
C. Coarse Wave Division Multiplexing
D. Synchronous Digital Hierarchy
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast and fault domains are increased
B. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. IP Address space is difficult to manage
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Certkiller uses a single ISP connection. Certkiller is finishing development of a web site that will be used for catalog information and sales to external customers. The web site is expected to have a large amount of traffic. Certkiller has 2,800 internal network users, of which 300 require simultaneous external Internet connectivity. What should be designed into the network to improve accessibility to Certkiller ‘s web site?
A. Mirrored server farm
B. Multi-homed ISPs
C. Redundant distribution routers
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ISP multi-homing solutions improve availability and load balancing for WANs that use the Internet. Multiple connections, known as multi-homing, reduce the chance of a potentially catastrophic shutdown if one of the connections should fail. Multi-homing really makes a difference if one connection to an ISP fails. As soon as the router assigned to connect to that ISP determines that the connection is down, it will reroute all data through one of the other
routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.3-89

QUESTION 53
Match the appropriate description, function, or activity to the corresponding multicast topology element.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Match the test element on the left to the correct prototype test creation step.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Drag the requirement for Network Management on the left to the service or tool that will meet that need on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Drag the routing protocol characteristics on the left to match the routing protocol on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Drag the Security activity on the left to the solution it pertains to on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 66
Which of the following characteristics do you need to take into account when analyzing an application? (Choose three.)
A. Bandwidth, loss tolerance, and delay characteristics
B. Server speed
C. Number of servers and users
D. Application type
E. User’s operating system
F. Server operating system
G. All of the above.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Official Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-12
QUESTION 67
Which of the following metrics are used to measure performance in the Enterprise Edge module of the Enterprise Composite Network model? (Select three.)
A. grade of service
B. response time
C. throughput
D. transmit jitter
E. utilization

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Performance might be the least understood term in networking. Typically, performance is defined as
throughput and packets per second (pps). These are easy numbers to gauge and report, but these values
relate to a single switch or router and make no sense when measuring an entire network.
The point is that there is no one metric for determining performance. Instead, gauge network performance
by these three metrics:
1) Responsiveness.
2) Throughput.
3) Utilization.
Reference: Arch student guide p. 1-10.

QUESTION 68
Which of the following is considered part of a Fault Tolerant Device? (Choose three)
A. Redundant power supplies
B. Redundant links
C. Redundant cooling fans
D. Service contracts
E. High MTBF

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco official course notes “Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) v1.2” give the
following answers on page 5-8:

-catalyst supervisors
-power supplies
-fans
-hot swappable modules To quote from the text “To achieve high availability the fault tolerance of each device is optimised. This is achieved by providing redundant backup within the device for each of its components”.
E: MTBF (mean time between failures) is a measure of how reliable a hardware product or component is. For most components, the measure is typically in thousands or even tens of thousands of hours between failures. For example, a hard disk drive may have a mean time between failures of 300,000 hours. A desired MTBF can be used as a quantifiable objective when designing a new product. The MTBF figure can be developed as the result of intensive testing, based on actual product experience, or predicted by analyzing known factors. The manufacturer may provide it as an index of a product’s or component’s reliability and, in some cases, to give customers an idea of how much service to plan for. Most sources define this term to mean average time between failures. Not B: The question asks about items that are parts of the Fault Tolerant Device. The redundant links are outside the device and are not part of the device.
QUESTION 69
Which of the following is the last step that needs to be done in the Enterprise Campus Design Methodology?
A. Design the physical network.
B. Determining the correct amount of users.
C. Select the different routing protocols to be used.
D. Design the edge distribution module.
E. Characterize applications.
F. Determine the data and application requirements.
G. Select an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Cisco Systems Inc. course material, pages 2-10 and 2-11
QUESTION 70
Which location would be the best locale for the device for the Management Module and Server Farm?
A. In the Administration building.
B. In the Information-processing building.
C. In the Accounting Department in the Administration building
D. In the Engineering building.
E. In all buildings.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which of the following is the first step that needs to be done in the Enterprise Design Methodology?
A. Select a service provider.
B. Determine the data and application requirements.
C. Select an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.
D. Characterize applications.
E. Select a Layer 1 technology.
F. Select a Layer 2 technology.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
When working in the Enterprise Composite Network Model environment, which components form part of the Enterprise Edge functional area? (Choose four.)
A. WAN module
B. Server farm
C. E-Commerce module
D. Access server
E. Internet connectivity
F. Management module
G. VPN/Remote access
H. All of the above.

Correct Answer: ACEG Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Which step in new network design, follows after the application and data requirements have been determined?
A. Design the physical network.
B. Design the logical network.
C. Select the IP addressing strategy and numbering.
D. Setting priorities with regard to IP addressing
E. Select the routing protocols.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1) Determine application and data requirements for each campus location on the enterprise network
2) Design the logical network.
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-10.

QUESTION 74
When you design the campus network which of the
following modules of the Enterprise Network will you include? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The Campus Core module
B. The Server Farm module
C. The Building Distribution module
D. The Edge Distribution module
E. The Management Module
F. The Divide and conquer module
G. All of the above

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the seven step enterprise campus design methodology precedes “design the logical network.” What will your reply be?
A. Design the physical topology
B. Select appropriate system devices and assign IP addresses
C. Assign IP addresses
D. Select routing protocols
E. Create security policy
F. Determine enterprise data requirements

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Your Certkiller trainee is busy with an Enterprise Composite Network design. Which factors would he consider when analyzing network traffic for this design? (Select three.)
A. user types
B. traffic types
C. file server types
D. sampling method
E. media types
F. traffic load measurement
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-13
QUESTION 77
You are the network administrator at Certkiller .Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
which components are part of the Internet connectivity module for a network.
What will your reply be? (Choose three.)

A. DNS servers
B. security servers
C. SMTP servers
D. management servers
E. corporate servers

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internet Connectivity: Provides internal users with connectivity to Internet services. Internet users can
access the information on publicly-available servers. Additionally, this module accepts Virtual Private
Network(VPN) traffic from remote users and remote sites and forwards it to the Remote Access and VPN
module. The major components of the Internet Connectivity module are:
4) E-mail servers.
5) DNS servers.
6) Public web servers.
7) Security servers.
8) Edge routers.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-40

QUESTION 78
What is the first step in the Enterprise Campus Design Methodology?
A. The design of the logical network.
B. The design of the physical network.
C. The selection of the routing protocols.
D. The determination of data and application requirements.
E. The selection of an IP addressing strategy and numbering scheme.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-10
QUESTION 79
Your Certkiller .com trainee Doug asks you to characterize Layer 3 switching. What should you tell him? (Select three).
A. support flat networks
B. supports complex routing in hierarchical networks
C. supports simple implementation
D. supports equal cost routing
E. supports load balancing

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: B – Cisco considers router configuration as a complex task. D – Routing protocols support
equal cost routing for IP and IPX.
E – Load Balancing is traffic based.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps5304/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a00800 Switching, and Forwarding
Layer 3 Switching

*
CPU Redundancy for the Catalyst 8540 CSR and Catalyst 8540 MSR

*
IP, IPX, and IP multicast routing and forwarding between Ethernet ports

*
AppleTalk 1 and 2 routing

*
Constrained Multicast Flooding (CMF)

*
Up to 128 IP multicast groups

*
QoS-based forwarding based on IP-precedence-based forwarding

*
Load balancing among equal cost paths based on source and destination IP and IPX addresses
QUESTION 80
Dr Bill your supervisor at Certkiller .com asks you to tell him about the enterprise composite network model. What should you tell him?
A. The enterprise composite network model is made up of three functional areas including the enterprise campus, campus backbone, and enterprise edge.
B. The enterprise composite network model allows easy network topology changes.
C. The enterprise composite network model is composed of a singular access, distribution, and core layer.
D. The enterprise composite network model defines a deterministic network with defined boundaries between modules.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Enterprise Composite Network Model defines a deterministic network with clearly defined boundaries between modules. The model has clear demarcation points to aid the designer in knowing exactly where traffic is. Reference: Arch student guide p.1-31
QUESTION 81
Which architectural design consideration of the Network Composite Model involved administration of network equipment on addition to client server component administration?
A. QoS
B. Connectivity
C. Accessibility
D. Network and system management
E. Topology definition and management

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Network Management Module can support both in-band and out-of-band (OOB) networks for administration and or management of network equipment and client server components. In-band Network management uses bandwidth on the production network. Out-of-Band (OOB) management uses a separate logical network or in some cases a different logical and additional physical network.
QUESTION 82
A modular design using the Enterprise Composite Model consists of which three functional areas? (Choose three)
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Campus Backbone
D. Service Provider Edge
E. Network Management

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Enterprise Composite Network Model introduces additional modularity into the network structure. The
entire network is divided into functional areas that contain the hierarchical model access, distribution, and
core layers. The Enterprise Composite Network Model contains three major functional areas:
1) Enterprise Campus.
2) Enterprise Edge.
3) Service Provider Edge.
Reference: Arch student guide p.1-30

QUESTION 83
What is a criteria of the enterprise composite network model?
A. Includes all modules needed to meet any network design.
B. Defined flexible boundaries between modules for scalability requirements.
C. Clearly defines module boundaries and demarcation points to identify where traffic is.
D. Requires specific core, distribution, and access layer requirements to match the model.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 1-31
QUESTION 84
Which three best practices should be implemented at the campus backbone submodule to support the server farm module? (Choose three)
A. Implement highly redundant switching and links with no single points or paths of failure.
B. Implement server load balancing.
C. Implement the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) for failover protection.
D. Dual home all servers.
E. Implement intrusion detection with automatic notification of intrusion attempts in place.
F. Deploy caching systems.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: According to Cisco Design standards, the Campus Back Bone must have High Availability. Cisco design best practices guidelines require redundancy for mission critical devices.
Cisco ARCH course material, pg. 2-69
QUESTION 85
Which three objectives would be met by designing Layer 3 switching in the Campus Backbone of a medium size installation? (Choose three)
A. Scale to a large size.
B. Increase router peering.
C. Provide a flexible topology with no spanning tree loops.
D. Control broadcasts in the backbone.
E. Reduce complexity.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The most flexible and scalable campus backbone consists of Layer 3 switches. The backbone switches
are connected by routed Gigabit Ethernet or Gigabit EherChannel links. Layer 3 switched backbones offer
these advantages:
1) Reduced router peering (not B)
2) Flexible topology with no spanning-tree loops (C)
3) Multicast and broadcast control in the backbone (D)
4) Scalability to arbitrarily large size (A)
Reference: Arch student guide p.2-35, 2-36

QUESTION 86
Which three objectives meet the requirements for the Server Farm module? (Choose three)
A. Provide remote dial-up access.
B. Provide up to 10 Gbps of outbound capacity.
C. Provide scalability with switched and server load balancing.
D. Provide availability with overall network design.
E. Provide high switch port density.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 1) Performance: Up to 10 Gbps outbound bandwidth capacity is required from the server farm for most enterprises. 2) Scalability: Scalability is a critical requirement in every server farm. Server load balancing is most often deployed. As the number of servers requiring higher-bandwidth connections increases, port densities can exceed the capacity of a single switch or server farm block. Applying a modular block design to server farm deployment permits flexible growth. 3) Availability: Availability is generally ensured through the overall network design. Networks are designed to minimize the occurrence of service problems and the time to recover from problems, for example with backup recovery policies. Reference: Arch student guide p.2-65
QUESTION 87
A good Enterprise Campus network must have the ability to cope with user number, data and application increases. What does one call this ability to expand to support increasing capabilities?
A. Functionality
B. Performance
C. Scalability
D. Administration
E. Expandability

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The ability of a campus network to expand so as to accommodate more users and resources is referred to as scalability.
QUESTION 88
You are a network administrator at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller .com German division has a regional
office in Berlin, and a branch of in Weimar.
Redundancy requirements from the Weimar branch office to the Berlin regional depend on which two
characteristics? (Select two.)

A. routing requirements
B. critical importance of the site and number of users
C. impact if the site is an aggregation point
D. impact if the site is offline or unavailable.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Certkiller wants you to design and implement a new Campus Backbone module that has multicast and
broadcast control, flexible topology, and no spanning tree loops. Cost effectiveness is a secondary
consideration.
Which equipment type would you recommend?

A. High-end routers
B. Mid-level Layer 2 switches
C. High-level Layer 2 switches
D. Layer 3 switches

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The most flexible and scalable campus backbone consists of Layer 3 switches, as shown in the figure. The backbone switches are connected by routed Gigabit Ethernet or Gigabit EherChannel links. Layer 3 switched backbones offer these advantages: 5) Reduced router peering 6) Flexible topology with no spanning-tree loops 7) Multicast and broadcast control in the backbone 8) Scalability to arbitrarily large size Reference: Arch student guide p.2-35
QUESTION 90
What will increase network availability?
A. A decrease in MTTR and an increase in MTBF.
B. An increase in MTTR and a decrease in MTBF
C. A decrease in both MTTR and MTBG.
D. A increase in both MTTR and MTBF.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Availability is a measurable quantity. The factors affecting availability are mean time to repair (MTTR), the
time it takes to recover from a failure, and mean time between failure (MTBF) the time that passes
between network outages or device failures. Decreasing MTTR and increasing MTBF increase availability.
Dividing MTBF by the sum of MTBF and MTTR results in a percentage indicating availability.
Rerference: Arch student guide p.5-7

QUESTION 91
Which action indicates the optimal level of functional process recovery in a high availability architecture?
A. Failure of a networking component is automatically detected.
B. The end-users are unaware that a failure has occurred.
C. The ailing component fails-over to an alternate component.
D. Automated alert mechanisms generate a dispatch for service.
E. Monitoring tools generate alert messages when a less than optimal condition occurs.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which of the following technologies will you implement at the Server Farm Distribution Layer when you receive an instruction by Certkiller to design and implement a new Server Farm module with high availability and performance? (Choose three.)
A. Mid-range switches
B. Redundant switching and links with no single paths or points of failure
C. Caching systems where appropriate
D. Server load balancing
E. Redundant firewalls
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
You are contracted as a network administrator for a well established company, Certkiller .com. Certkiller wants you to design and implement a new Campus Backbone module. It should have multicast and broadcast control, flexible topology, with no spanning tree loops. Cost effectiveness is a secondary consideration as money would be no option. What type of equipment would you recommend for use in this module?
A. Mid-level Layer 2 switches
B. High-level Layer 2 switches
C. High-end routers
D. High-end hubs
E. Layer 3 switches

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The most flexible and scalable campus backbone consists of Layer 3 switches, as shown in the figure. The backbone switches are connected by routed Gigabit Ethernet or Gigabit EherChannel links. Layer 3 switched backbones offer these advantages: 9) Reduced router peering 10) Flexible topology with no spanning-tree loops 11) Multicast and broadcast control in the backbone 12) Scalability to arbitrarily large size Reference: Arch student guide p.2-35
QUESTION 94
Which of the following strategies can one employ to provide scalability in the server farm module?
A. Up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level.
B. Modular block design at the distribution level.
C. Redundant servers at the access level.
D. Modular block design at the access level.
E. High port densities at the access level.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
You are contracted as a network administrator for a small newly established company, Certkiller .com.
Their network consists of three buildings that are spaced several hundred feet apart. Each connected via
single-mode fiber using fast Ethernet. Access is through 10 Mbps hubs with 100 Mbps Ethernet uplinks
over multi-mode fiber to a switch within each building.
The CEO of Certkiller wants you to design a new network that will take scalability, performance,
manageability, security and availability into account, while still keeping costs low as the company is still
relatively new. What recommendation regarding network modules would you include in your network
design?

A. A three-level campus infrastructure model with a low-speed core using Layer 2 switches, a distribution level using mid-level, Layer 2 switches, and using low-level Layer 2 switches at the access level.
B. A two-level campus infrastructure model with combined high-speed core and distribution layer using high-speed Layer 3 switches and low-level Layer 2 switches at the access layer.
C. A three-level campus infrastructure model with a intermediate-speed core using Layer 3 switches, a distribution level using mid-level, Layer 2 switches and using low-level Layer 2 switches at the access level.
D. A two-level campus infrastructure model with combined high-speed core and distribution layer using mid-level Layer 3 switches and mid-level Layer 2 switches at the access layer.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Sandra works as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. She is currently utilizing CiscoWorks LAN
Management Solution (LMS) as part of the enterprise network management strategy.
Which tools of LMS provides topology, VLAN management, and user tracking for Cisco Catalyst switches?

A. Device Fault Manager
B. Campus Manager
C. nGenious Real Time Monitor
D. Resource Manager Essentials
E. CiscoView

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Campus Manager: Campus Manager provides the administrator with tools to configure, manage, and
understand the physical and logical aspects of a Catalyst-based local-area network. Campus Manager
offers these applications:
1) Topology Services.
2) User Tracking.
3) Path Analysis.
4) VLAN Port Assignment.
5) Discrepancy Reports.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-21

QUESTION 97
You work as a network consultant at Certkiller .com. One of Certkiller ‘s customers wants to implement a new company-wide intranet application. You are carefully going through the steps of determining the requirements of the customers for this application, when you determine that the company will need to track and monitor performance data. In which step in determining the requirements of the customer for the new application does this fit?
A. identify QoS requirements
B. identify business constraints
C. identify security requirements
D. identify network management requirements

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following is a primary tool providing
perimeter security to a network.
What would your reply be?

A. LAPD
B. Kerberos
C. VPN
D. L2TP
E. Content filter

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Perimeter security: This element provides the means to control access to critical network applications,
data, and services so that only legitimate users and information can pass through the network. Routers
and switches with Access Control Lists, stateful firewall implementations, and dedicated firewall appliances
provide perimeter security control. Complementary tools, including virus scanners and content filters, also
help control network perimeters.
Firewall and Pixes use VPNs.
Reference: Arch student guide p.6-21.

QUESTION 99
An administrator is securing the building access module of the network and does not want users on the
same subnet to be able to communicate without passing through a Layer 3 device first.
Which should the administrator do?

A. Build PACLs to filter and direct traffic.
B. Build RACLs to filter and direct traffic.
C. Place each user on an isolated private VLAN port.
D. Place each user on a company private VLAN port.
E. Place each user on a promiscuous private VLAN port.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, in Cisco client security software applications. Match the applications with the descriptions.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2

Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast and fault domains are increased
B. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. IP Address space is difficult to manage
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
QUESTION 3
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Destination IP Address
B. Output Interface
C. Source MAC address
D. Next-hop IP Address
E. Source Port
F. Next-hop MAC Address
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. Termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. Designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPSec VPN
D. Addressing designs need to allow for summarization

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. When preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
B. When the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
C. When HSRP is not supported by the design
D. When a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. When multiple vendor devices need to be supported
F. When the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two.)
A. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service
B. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50% of the capacity of the link
C. At least 23 percent of the link bandwidth should be reserved for default best-effort class
D. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue
E. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?
A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic
B. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic flow
C. An IDS analyze a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet
D. Traffic impact considerations are increased when deploying an IDS over an IPS sensor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. Between two layer devices without trunking
B. Between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
C. Between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking
D. Bridging two VLANs on one switch
E. Bridging VLANs on two switches
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, in Cisco NAC appliance components. Match the applications with the appropriate descriptions.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873 A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Network admission control (NAC) is a collection of technologies that can be used to enhance network
security services. Specifically, NAC can perform posture validation, which ensures that only permitted
devices can communicate on the network. NAC appliance has Manager, servers and client like:

1.
NAC Manager

2.
NAC Server

3.
NAC Profile Server

4.
NAC Guest Server

5.
NAC Client Agent
1.
Cisco NAC Appliance Manager (Cisco NAM): Acts as a NAC Appliance administration server for defining policies

2.
Cisco NAC Appliance Server (Cisco NAS): Acts as a policy enforcement server between the trusted and untrusted networks

3.
Cisco NAC Appliance Agent (Cisco NAA): Acts as an optional agent for Windows-based clients

4.
NAC Appliance Policy Updates: Checks the status of updates applied to operating systems, antivirus signatures, and other client software
QUESTION 11
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex links? (Choose two.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
A. Flex links operate only over single pairs of links
B. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated
C. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second
D. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type
E. An interface can belong to multiple Flex links
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
One of your customers is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 23
D. 7
E. 19
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The reason being that 7 phones per Access Point is the recommended practice provided by CISCO.
QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. It determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow
B. It is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
C. It dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. It is not used in multicast
E. It determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. Firewall connections in either an active or standby state
B. A method of operating firewalls from multiple vendors
C. Multiple layers of firewalling
D. An architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
E. An Architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific gateway Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP Addresses
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required in order to assign IP Addresses
C. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network
D. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. As a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
B. To support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. As a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. To provide service internetworking
E. To provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which of these terms refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival?
A. Digitized sampling
B. Queuing
C. Packet Loss
D. Jitter
E. Signal-to-noise ratio ratio

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What two descriptions best define DWDM? (Choose two.)
A. A technology for transmitting multiple optical signals using less sophisticated transceiver designs then CWDM
B. A WDM system that is compatible with EDFA technology
C. An optical technology for transmitting up to 32 channels over multiple fiber strands
D. An optical technology for transmitting up to 16 channels over multiple fiber strands
E. A technology for transmitting more closely packed optical signals using more Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-873 sophisticated transceiver designs than CWDM
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. The 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP Addresses to MAC addresses
B. Only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
C. Only the low-order 23 bits of the IP Address are used to map MAC addresses
D. Only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
E. The 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP Addresses to MAC addresses
F. Only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. Has promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network
B. Passively listens to network traffic
C. In an active device in the traffic path
D. Traffic arrives on one IDS interface and exits on another E. Has a permissive interface that is used to monitor network
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Destination IP Address
B. Output Interface
C. Source MAC address
D. Next-hop IP Address
E. Source Port
F. Next-hop MAC Address
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. Termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. Designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPSec VPN
D. Addressing designs need to allow for summarization
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. When preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
B. When the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
C. When HSRP is not supported by the design
D. When a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. When multiple vendor devices need to be supported
F. When the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two.)
A. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service
B. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50% of the capacity of the link
C. At least 23 percent of the link bandwidth should be reserved for default best-effort class
D. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue
E. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?
A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic
B. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic flow
C. An IDS analyze a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet
D. Traffic impact considerations are increased when deploying an IDS over an IPS sensor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. Between two layer devices without trunking
B. Between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
C. Between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking
D. Bridging two VLANs on one switch
E. Bridging VLANs on two switches
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex links? (Choose two.)
A. Flex links operate only over single pairs of links
B. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated
C. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second
D. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type
E. An interface can belong to multiple Flex links

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
One of your customers is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 23
D. 7
E. 19
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The reason being that 7 phones per Access Point is the recommended practice provided by CISCO.

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. It determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow
B. It is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
C. It dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. It is not used in multicast
E. It determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. Firewall connections in either an active or standby state
B. A method of operating firewalls from multiple vendors
C. Multiple layers of firewalling
D. An architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
E. An Architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific gateway
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP Addresses
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required in order to assign IP Addresses
C. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network
D. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. As a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
B. To support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. As a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. To provide service internetworking
E. To provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which of these terms refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival?
A. Digitized sampling
B. Queuing
C. Packet Loss
D. Jitter
E. Signal-to-noise ratio ratio
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What two descriptions best define DWDM? (Choose two.)
A. A technology for transmitting multiple optical signals using less sophisticated transceiver designs then CWDM
B. A WDM system that is compatible with EDFA technology
C. An optical technology for transmitting up to 32 channels over multiple fiber strands
D. An optical technology for transmitting up to 16 channels over multiple fiber strands
E. A technology for transmitting more closely packed optical signals using more sophisticated transceiver designs than CWDM
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. The 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP Addresses to MAC addresses
B. Only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
C. Only the low-order 23 bits of the IP Address are used to map MAC addresses
D. Only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
E. The 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP Addresses to MAC addresses
F. Only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. Has promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network
B. Passively listens to network traffic
C. In an active device in the traffic path
D. Traffic arrives on one IDS interface and exits on another
E. Has a permissive interface that is used to monitor network
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is correct regarding NBAR and NetFlow?
A. NetFlow examines data in Layers 2 through 4
B. NetFlow uses five key fields for the flow
C. NBAR examines data in Layers 2 through 4
D. NBAR examines data in Layers 3 and 4
E. NetFlow examines data in Layer 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. Multiple layers of firewalling
B. An architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific gateways
C. An architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
D. Firewall connections in either an active or standby state
E. A method of operating firewalls from multiple vendors
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20

You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode? (Choose two.)
A. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs
B. Traffic switched between VLANs is subject to state tracking and other firewall configurable options
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode
D. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs
E. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, in Cisco client security software applications. Match the applications with the descriptions.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2

Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast and fault domains are increased
B. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. IP Address space is difficult to manage
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Destination IP Address
B. Output Interface
C. Source MAC address
D. Next-hop IP Address
E. Source Port
F. Next-hop MAC Address
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. Termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. Designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPSec VPN
D. Addressing designs need to allow for summarization
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. When preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
B. When the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
C. When HSRP is not supported by the design
D. When a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. When multiple vendor devices need to be supported
F. When the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two.)
A. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service
B. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50% of the capacity of the link
C. At least 23 percent of the link bandwidth should be reserved for default best-effort class
D. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue
E. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?
A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic
B. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic flow
C. An IDS analyze a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet
D. Traffic impact considerations are increased when deploying an IDS over an IPS sensor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. Between two layer devices without trunking
B. Between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
C. Between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking
D. Bridging two VLANs on one switch
E. Bridging VLANs on two switches
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, in Cisco NAC appliance components. Match the applications with the appropriate descriptions.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex links? (Choose two.)
A. Flex links operate only over single pairs of links
B. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated
C. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second
D. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type
E. An interface can belong to multiple Flex links
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
One of your customers is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 23
D. 7
E. 19
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?
A. It determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow
B. It is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
C. It dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. It is not used in multicast
E. It determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. Firewall connections in either an active or standby state
B. A method of operating firewalls from multiple vendors
C. Multiple layers of firewalling
D. An architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
E. An Architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific gateway
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP Addresses
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required in order to assign IP Addresses
C. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network
D. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. As a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
B. To support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. As a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. To provide service internetworking
E. To provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which of these terms refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival?
A. Digitized sampling
B. Queuing
C. Packet Loss
D. Jitter
E. Signal-to-noise ratio ratio
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What two descriptions best define DWDM? (Choose two.)
A. A technology for transmitting multiple optical signals using less sophisticated transceiver designs then CWDM
B. A WDM system that is compatible with EDFA technology
C. An optical technology for transmitting up to 32 channels over multiple fiber strands D. An optical technology for transmitting up to 16 channels over multiple fiber strands
E. A technology for transmitting more closely packed optical signals using more sophisticated transceiver designs than CWDM
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. The 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP Addresses to MAC addresses
B. Only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
C. Only the low-order 23 bits of the IP Address are used to map MAC addresses
D. Only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
E. The 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP Addresses to MAC addresses
F. Only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP Addresses
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. Has promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network
B. Passively listens to network traffic
C. In an active device in the traffic path
D. Traffic arrives on one IDS interface and exits on another
E. Has a permissive interface that is used to monitor network
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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