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QUESTION 66
How can Cisco NetFlow be used to aid in the operation and troubleshooting of QoS issues?
A. NetFlow can report on the number of traffic matches for each class map in a configured QoS policy configuration.
B. NetFlow records can be used to understand traffic profiles per class of service for data, voice, and video traffic.
C. NetFlow can discover the protocols in use and automatically adjust QoS traffic classes to meet policy-map requirements.
D. NetFlow can be configured to identify voice and video traffic flows and place them into a low-latency queue for expedited processing.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
When BGP is used as the PE-CE routing protocol, which of these statements is correct?
A. On PE routers, the CE EBGP neighbors are configured in the VRF context.
B. On the CE router, PE neighbors must be configured in the VRF context on the CE router.
C. On PE routers, the CE IBGP neighbors are configured in the global BGP configuration.
D. When using BGP as the PE-CE routing protocol, only public AS numbers can be used when configuring the BGP neighbor relationships.
E. A separate BGP process must be used on the PE routers for CE routers so that they do not use the same BGP routing process as that used for the PE router’s other provider neighbors.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. Analyze the two traceroutes that are displayed. Which of these statements is correct in describing what most likely caused the traceroute differences?

A. Do not fragment has been configured on PE11.
B. MPLS has been disabled on routers P11 and P12.
C. An access list has been created on P11 to block traceroutes from PE11.
D. The no mpls ip propgate-ttl local command has been configured on PE11.
E. ICMP has been disabled on the intermediary routers between PE11 and PE12.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
You have just reinstalled a VIP 6-80 in a Cisco 7500 Series router. What must you do to bring up the port adapter interfaces?
A. Any interfaces not previously configured must be manually configured and brought online.
B. All interfaces must be manually brought online, even those previously configured.
C. The previous VIP configuration must be reloaded to bring interfaces online.
D. All interfaces are online by default once the VIP is up and running normally.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When you enter the interface command auto qos voip cisco-phone on a port at the edge of a network, how does the Cisco Catalyst switch detect if a Cisco IP Phone is connected to the port?
A. by snooping the CoS marking on the incoming frames
B. by using RTP hello messages between the switch port and the Cisco IP Phone
C. by using CDP
D. by using DHCP snooping
E. by snooping the incoming 802.1Q VLAN tag

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
In a high-availability network, which command, when placed on ports that have connected end stations, will allow you to prevent delays in service for end stations by placing a port in blocking mode?
A. enable backbone fast
B. enable uplink fast
C. disable portfast
D. enable portfast
E. disable uplink fast

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Referring to the partial Cisco Catalyst switch configuration shown, which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A router connected to the fastethernet 1/4 interface will be able to communicate with hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1, 1/2, and 1/3.
B. A router connected to the fastethernet 1/4 interface will not be able to communicate with the host connected to interface fastethernet 1/3.
C. Hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1 and 1/2 can communicate with each other.
D. Hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1, 1/2, and 1/3 can communicate with each other.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 73
Which one of these class maps was configured to match traffic for CS5?
A. router#show class-map passClass Map match-all real-time (id 2)Match ip dscp 40
B. router#show class-map forwardClass Map match-all forward (id 3)Match ip dscp 18
C. router#show class-map blockClass Map match-all block (id 4)Match ip dscp 43
D. router#show class-map real-timeClass Map match-all block (id 5)Match ip dscp 16

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
What is the purpose of IP Event Dampening?
A. to introduce a nonconfigurable exponential delay mechanism
B. to suppress the effects of excessive interface flapping events on routing protocols and routing tables in the network
C. to allow the network operator to configure a router to automatically dampen and selectively identify a local interface that is failing
D. to configure a subinterface so that it can be applied to the primary interface in order to prevent exponential selective dampening

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch configuration would protect a customer network from possible disruption in the case in which an unauthorized switch is added to the network?

A. Switch0#show running-configuration!hostname Switch0!no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmissionspanning-tree extend system-id!interface FastEthernet0/1switchport protected!
B. Switch0#show running-configuration!hostname Switch0!spanning-tree portfast bpduguard defaultno spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmissionspanning-tree extend system-id!interface FastEthernet0/1spanning-tree guard root!
C. Switch0#show running-configuration!hostname Switch0!no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmissionspanning-tree extend system-id!interface FastEthernet0/1switchport mode access!
D. Switch0#show running-configuration!hostname Switch0!no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmissionspanning-tree extend system-id!interface FastEthernet0/1switchport port-security violation restrict!

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
When HSRP is configured on a network, which two of these items are provided, which are shared between the routers that run HSRP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP-based hello packets
B. the impact of flapping links if timers are too low
C. a shared single interface
D. the ability to track serial interfaces
E. UDP-based hello packets

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these events will be the result of issuing the above command? (Choose two.)
A. A 64-bit IPv4 prefix will be created.
B. The route distinguisher will be used to indicate VPN membership.
C. Extended BGP communities will be used to encode route distinguishers.
D. A 96-bit VPNv4 prefix will be created and propagated across the IP network.
E. The route distinguisher is 64 bits and will be prepended to an existing IPv4 route to make it globally unique.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit. For the given configuration, on packets leaving the router on interface FastEthernet0/0 that matches the high traffic class, what will the MPLS experimental bit be set to?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 55
Which of these commands can you use to show if an operational Catalyst switch port is set for autonegotiation of speed and duplex when running Cisco IOS software?
A. show running-config
B. show interfaces <interface>
C. show port network <interface>
D. show controllers Ethernet-controller <interface>

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco IOS show command would produce output showing that the FastEthernet 0/1 interface correctly trusts the DSCP values of the endpoint to which it is connected?

A. show mls qos maps
B. show mls qos interface fastethernet0/1
C. show mls qos interface fastethernet0/1 queueing
D. show mls qos interface fastethernet0/1 statistics

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. Two switches connected to each other are having serious performance issues on the link. Which command(s) can you issue at switch B to correct this problem?

A. set port duplex 1/1 full
B. no set port duplex 1/1 auto
C. set port speed 1/1 10set port duplex 1/1 full
D. no set port duplex 1/1 autoset port duplex 1/1 full

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Refer to the exhibit. MPLS has been enabled on router PE11. Which of these statements is correct regarding the output display shown in the exhibit?

A. CEF switching is not needed for MPLS operation.
B. CEF switching is only needed to forward labeled packets.
C. CEF switching is needed on both ingress and egress interfaces on which MPLS is enabled.
D. Interface-level CEF switching is needed only on egress interfaces that are sending IP packets on which the egress LSR performs the label imposition process.
E. Interface-level CEF switching is needed only on ingress interfaces that are receiving IP packets on which the ingress LSR performs the label imposition process.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 59
What are four advantages to using tunnel brokers in an IPv6 transition environment? (Choose four.)
A. Tunnel broker configuration is automated in Cisco IOS.
B. IPv6 enabling a node looks automatic to the end user.
C. Tunnel brokers make it simpler for nontechnical users to deploy manual tunnels.
D. Tunnel information is sent via IPv4.
E. Tunnel brokers automatically provide configuration parameters to peer routers.

Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements is correct regarding the output display shown in the exhibit?

A. Label 19 has been advertised by PE11 and is assigned to prefix 150.1.12.16.
B. For destination 150.1.12.16, label 19 will be on the incoming packet and PE11 will impose label 21.
C. For destination 192.168.1.64, label 19 will be on the incoming packet and PE11 will impose label 17.
D. For destination 150.1.12.16, PE11 has sent information to its neighbor that it will impose label 21 on packets for that destination.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three of these items are found within the router advertisement message of IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration? (Choose three.)
A. /64 prefix that can be used on the link and the lifetime of the prefix
B. IPv6 DHCP server address information
C. flags indicating the kind of autoconfiguration that can be done by hosts
D. default router information
E. IPv6 DNS server address information

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. As shown in the configuration, RIP is being used as the PE-CE routing protocol. Which of these statements is correct?

A. Though preferred, it is not necessary that the RIP parameters be specified in the VRF.
B. Though RIPv2 is specified in the configuration, any version of RIP supports VRFs.
C. On the receiving end, the RIP hop count is copied into a BGP extended community attribute.
D. On the sending end, the RIP hop count is copied into the BGP multi-exit discriminator attribute.
E. Because RIP is being used as the PE-CE routing protocol, the redistribution commands in the configuration are not necessary because redistribution occurs automatically between RIP and BGP.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
Which command retrieves and displays information about each Cisco product in the form of a UDI?
A. show status
B. show hardware
C. show inventory
D. show environment

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
What are three pieces of information that the Cisco IOS show inventory command displays on a Cisco ISR router? (Choose three.)
A. installed hardware
B. Unique Device Identifier
C. system internal temperature
D. main power supply condition
E. the status of installed hardware
F. installed hardware serial numbers

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they intermittently lose data and connections to important servers. After investigation, you discover that the 802.1Q trunk between DSW111 and ASW1 is down. Even though the HSRP group 11 is being serviced by DSW112, you discover that the SVI for VLAN 11 is in the up state on DSW111. Which three Cisco Catalyst IOS commands should you use on DSW111 to find the source of this problem? (Choose three.)

A. show vtp status
B. show interfaces vlan 11
C. show standby vlan 11 brief
D. show spanning-tree vlan 11
E. show interfaces <fast | gig> mod/port trunk

Correct Answer: BDE

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Exam A Cisco 642-055 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.

Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
QUESTION 1
Which three of these items are IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three.)
A. NATv6
B. PATv6
C. ISATAP
D. automatic 4to6 relay tunnels
E. dual stack configurations
F. manually configured overlay tunnels

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. You are migrating a network from IGRP to OSPF. What must you do to ensure that connectivity and reachability of all networks is maintained between routing protocols when OSPF has the longer subnet mask?

A. Use the default metric of 1.
B. This scenario should not present any reachability problems if the autonomous systems are the same.
C. Add multiple static routes in the gateway router pointing to the OSPF network.
D. Add a static route in the gateway router for 128.103.35.0/24 pointing to null0.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Your customer wants to build a network for a financial trading floor that has a requirement for multiple high-value transactions, which are also vital to the customer. What are the two most critical requirements? (Choose two.)
A. no single point of failure
B. trading database server location
C. redundant application servers location
D. deterministic response to all failures
E. determine which protocol to use

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
Which of these tools should you use to compress VoIP packets on a low-speed Frame Relay circuit?
A. RTP header compression
B. TCP header compression
C. FRF.9 payload compression
D. Predictor payload compression
E. Cisco proprietary payload compression

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Referring to the debug output shown below, which one of the statements is correct?

A. FE80::260:3EFF:FE47:1530 is the site-local address of R1.
B. 2001:DB8:C18:1::D0C is a link-local address.
C. The last ICMP message received is a router advertisement message.
D. The type 129 ICMP echo reply message indicates an MTU error.
E. The type 129 message is an ICMP redirect message.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You are working with a client to deploy QoS on their Frame Relay WAN. They would like to be able to allow packets to cross the Frame Relay WAN but have them marked as discard eligible if they exceed the QoS policy. How would you accomplish this task?
A. Configure a service policy that sets the DE bit and apply it to the serial interface connected to the Frame Relay WAN.
B. Configure a policy map that has a burst-max action of setting the DE bit if the policy is exceeded.
C. Configure a class map that sets the DE bit so that the policy map can correctly apply a violate-action if the policy is exceeded.
D. Configure a policy map that has a violate-action to change the DE bit from 0 to 1.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. You are troubleshooting a high availability network that is having longer-than-acceptable failover times. What command will have the most significant impact in this problem?

A. pim query-interval 1 sec
B. ip pim query-interval 100 msec
C. ip query pim-interval 10 msec
D. pim query-interval 100 msec

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configuration changes will result in Router_A peering with neighbor Router_B using address 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

A. Use the no synchronization command to allow the neighbor relationship to be established without an IGP route.
B. Use the neighbor ebgp-multihop command to override the one-hop EBGP limit.
C. Use a route reflector to allow the routes to be propagated correctly.
D. Use the neighbor next-hop-self command to allow the routers to peer using their loopback addresses instead of their directly connected addresses.
E. Use a confederation to make Router_A and Router_B appear to be IBGP neighbors.
F. Configure Router_A and Router_B in the same AS.

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. You have a Cisco router directly connected to a non-Cisco router via a leased T1 line. The service provider has validated that the T1 is operational. What should be completed for communications between routers to commence?

A. Reload both routers.
B. Reset the interface on both routers.
C. Enable Frame Relay on both routers.
D. Enable PPP encapsulation on both routers.
E. Configure a routing protocol on both routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. You have a Cisco router and a non-Cisco router directly connected to a service
provider cloud. You want to set up dual connectivity into the corporate network.
Which protocol must you configure?
A. Hot Standby Router Protocol
B. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
D. Multigroup Hot Standby Router Protocol

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
With a VPN Accelerator Module 2+ (VAM2+) installed in a Cisco 7200 series router, what will be the resulting action when entering the command no crypto engine accelerator slot number?
A. removes the VAM2+ crypto engine feature and disables the associated configuration commands from the router
B. disables the crypto engine hardware acceleration, resulting in all crypto functions to be performed in software
C. disables dual VAM2+ hardware stateful failover capabilities
D. disables OIR on the VAM2+ module

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. In analyzing the configuration of the router, which three of these statements are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Neighbor 172.16.32.14 will receive VPNv4 routes.
B. Neighbor 172.16.32.15 will receive Internet routes.
C. Neighbor 172.16.32.15 will receive VPNv4 routes.
D. Neighbor 172.16.32.27 will receive VPNv4 routes.
E. Neighbor 172.16.32.27 will receive Internet routes.
F. Neighbor 172.16.32.14 will receive both VPNv4 and Internet routes.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which show command would be used to display NBAR classified traffic on interface FastEthernet0/1?

A. show int fa 0/1 nbar
B. show int fa 0/1 policy-map
C. show policy-map int fa 0/1
D. show ip nbar protocol-discovery

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Which command displays only those entries in a BGP table with specific AS_PATH attributes?
A. show ip bgp regexp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp community-list
D. show ip bgp inconsistent-as

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
When an IP packet is Layer 3-switched from a source in one VLAN to a destination in another VLAN, which field in a packet will be rewritten?
A. Layer 2 TTL
B. Layer 3 TTL
C. Layer 3 source address
D. Layer 3 transport protocol
E. Layer 3 destination address

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which QoS mechanism will allow a single policy to be applied to multiple interfaces?
A. class map
B. policy map
C. service policy
D. ACL

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
How many subnets are possible in an enterprise that has just been assigned an IPv6 prefix by its ISP?
A. 256
B. 1024
C. 4096
D. 16384
E. 65536
F. 16777216

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
What is the most likely reason that an IBGP route that has been selected as a best route is not entered into the IP routing table?
A. The next-hop address is unreachable.
B. No loopback interface has been configured on a router.
C. BGP synchronization has been enabled.
D. Route reflectors are not passing updates properly.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
You are working with a client to classify the different types of application traffic they will have on their network and to assign a QoS value to each traffic flow. The client has identified the following applications: Internet traffic, Oracle, network-based backups, AOL Instant Messenger, IP routing, voice, and voice signaling. Given these types of applications, how many different classes will need to be configured in QoS?
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which tool allows a LAN client to determine which router should be the first hop to a particular remote destination, allowing simplified client configuration and processing without creating a single point of failure?
A. Proxy ARP
B. Dynamic Routing Protocol
C. IRDP
D. VRRP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Your customer recently acquired a smaller competitor. The acquired company is not currently using Cisco routers, so you have connected the two WANs via an authenticated PPP link. After configuring both routers, issuing the show interface s0/0 command on the Cisco router shows the interface to be in the up/ down state. Which two of these are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. MTUs do not match.
B. Bandwidth statements do not match.
C. IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
D. CHAP passwords do not match.
E. CDP versions do not match.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 22
You are configuring the Cisco IOS Firewall Websense URL Filtering feature set on a Cisco 3800 Series ISR. What would the Cisco IOS command ip urlfilter exclusive-domain permit www.cisco.com do?
A. Specifies the only domain for which traffic should be allowed.
B. Specifies the URL for the location of the Firewall Websense URL filtering server.
C. Specifies the domain for which the firewall should permit traffic without sending lookup requests.
D. Specifies that the designated domain receives exclusive traffic priorities.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What would the first line in this debug serial interface output indicate?

A. The mineseen HDLC sequence has missed more than three keepalives.
B. Keepalives are being received from the other end of a point-to-point link and this end is not sending them.
C. The yourseen HDLC sequence number is out of order.
D. The HDLC myseq has missed more than three keepalive messages, the WAN link keepalive activity will not occur, and you should expect to see a Layer 2 issue.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
What is the maximum number of Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series switches that can be united into a single manageable unit using the Cisco StackWise technology?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
While troubleshooting a network outage, you discover that an employee brought a switch from home into the office to connect additional equipment to the network. In order to increase his speed, he connected this switch to both network ports in his office, resulting in a bridge loop. Which of these can you implement to prevent future occurrences of this issue?
A. RSTP
B. root guard
C. BPDU guard
D. GLBP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
When EIGRP is used as the PE-CE routing protocol, which of these statements is correct?
A. Configuration of the VPN is only required on the PE router.
B. EIGRP can be used only as the PE-CE routing protocol if the PE and CE routers are in the same AS.
C. When using EIGRP as the PE-CE routing protocol, EIGRP does not require a VRF.
D. Unlike other routing protocols that are used between PE and CE routers, EIGRP supports backdoor links.
E. Other EIGRP AS routes are automatically advertised to the CE router and do not require a redistribution configuration command to be configured.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which Cisco IOS command is used to troubleshoot a problem in which a BGP session stays in the active state?
A. debug ip bgp events
B. debug ip tcp events
C. debug ip bgp updates
D. debug ip tcp updates
E. debug ip bgp transactions
F. debug ip tcp transactions

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. You are working with a client to deploy QoS on their WAN. They would like to use a five-class WAN-edge strategy. The classes will include voice, call signaling, critical data, data, and scavenger. Their individual WAN links are 512 Kb. When they try to attach the service policy WAN-EDGE to the interface multilink1, the router returns an error message. Which command should you add to the interface configuration to allow the service policy statement to be configured?

A. bandwidth 512
B. max-bandwidth 75
C. max-reserved-bandwidth 100
D. max-reserved-bandwidth 512
E. max-bandwidth 100
F. bandwidth 100

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Which command is used to view IPv6 parameters related to the BGP process?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ipv6 bgp
C. show bgp ipv6
D. show ip bgp ipv6
E. show protocols ipv6
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which two statements are correct in verifying SPFv3 IPv6 routing configurations? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv3 router ID is now 128 bits instead of 32 bits.
B. OSPFv3 area ID and link-state ID are now 128 bits instead of 32 bits.
C. OSPFv3 is enabled per-link, not per-network.
D. OSPFv3 requires router to be running CEF.
E. When configuring a broadcast interface, OSPFv3 requires a list of OSPFv3 neighbors to be manually configured.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 31
What are two requirements to perform a warm Cisco IOS upgrade on a Cisco ISR router? (Choose two.)
A. at least one enabled Ethernet interface
B. Cisco IOS version 12.3(2)T or greater
C. physical access to the router to be upgraded
D. enough memory to decompress the new Cisco IOS image
E. internal flash memory equaling two times the space required for the current Cisco IOS image

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 32
Which keyword is used with the show ip bgp neighbors [keyword] command to display all routes that are received and accepted from a neighbor?
A. paths
B. routes
C. received-routes
D. accepted-routes
E. advertised-routes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You are working with a customer who has identified the following IP applications on their network: IP voice and voice signaling, streaming video, PeopleSoft, Microsoft SQL, e-mail, and Internet traffic. If the voice traffic was classified as EF and AF31, the e-mail was classified as AF11, and the Internet traffic was classified as DSCP 0, how would the transactional traffic represented as PeopleSoft and Microsoft SQL be classified?
A. DSCP AF13
B. DSCP AF21
C. DSCP CS4
D. DSCP AF33

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
When HSRP is configured on a network, which two of these items are provided, which are shared between the routers that run HSRP? (Choose two.)
A. UDP-based hello packets
B. MAC address
C. TCP-based hello packets
D. IP address
E. shared single interface
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. PE11 originated label 20.
B. PE11 originated label 21.
C. The PE11 upstream neighbor originated label 21.
D. The PE11 downstream neighbor originated label 20.
E. PE11 will append label 21 to incoming packets labeled 32.
F. PE11 will impose label 20 on incoming packets labeled 32.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
A Catalyst switch has just been installed and configured, and is not working as expected. You have decided to capture multiple show command outputs to study. Which one command could you use that includes the output of many other show commands, such as show version and show running-config?
A. show stacks
B. show memory
C. show processes
D. show tech-support
E. show configuration

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
On a Cisco Catalyst switch, which configuration command is used to apply a VACL named “test” to filter the traffic within VLAN100?
A. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test
B. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test in
C. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test out
D. vlan filter test vlan-list 100
E. vlan access-map test 100

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which keyword is used with the debug ipv6 [keyword] command to troubleshoot neighbor discovery problems?
A. nd
B. icmp
C. packet
D. discovery
E. transaction
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. Which show command would display the information in the exhibit?

A. show policy-map
B. show policy-map high-priority
C. show interfaces fastEthernet 0/1 policy-map
D. show policy-map interfaces fastEthernet 0/1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. On the switch named CatosSwitch, how many VLANs did the administrator manually configure?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 7

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which of these is a prerequisite for and must always run with Cisco NSF?
A. BGP
B. SSO
C. RPR
D. SRM

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which configuration will enable OSPF for IPv6 on FastEthernet 0/0/0?
A. interface FastEthernet0/0/0ipv6 address 2001:0db8:0:0:1::/64 eui-64ipv6 enablerouter ospf 1router-id 10.11.11.1network 2001:0db8:0:0:1::/64 area 1
B. interface FastEthernet0/0/0ipv6 address 2001:0db8:0:0:1::/64 eui-64ipv6 enableipv6 ospf 1 area 1router ospf 1router-id 10.11.11.1
C. interface FastEthernet0/0/0ipv6 address 2001:0db8:0:0:1::/64 eui-64ipv6 enableipv6 router ospf 1router-id 10.11.11.1network 2001:0db8:0:0:1::/64
D. interface FastEthernet0/0/0ipv6 address 2001:0db8:0:0:1::/64 eui-64ipv6 enableipv6 ospf 1 area 1ipv6 router ospf 1router-id 10.11.11.1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
On a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switch, the fail LED is lit for one if its two power supplies. Which command would you use to check on this problem?
A. show environment
B. show module
C. show errdisable detect
D. show diagnostic content
E. show hardware

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
What is the function of the no switchport Catalyst switch interface configuration command?
A. switches the port from access mode to trunk mode
B. converts the port from physical Layer 2 port to physical Layer 3 port
C. enables the interface for Layer 2 switching
D. disables the interface to prevent traffic flow
E. clears all the configurations on the interface

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What is the purpose of the int-num variable in the Cisco IOS interface configuration command mpls l2transport route when you configure a Cisco 7600 Series router to do Ethernet over MPLS?
A. It specifies the incoming interface of the Layer 2 traffic to be transported over the MPLS backbone.
B. It specifies the interface address of the remote router.
C. It specifies the desired VLAN interface number.
D. It specifies the outgoing interface through which to route the EoMPLS traffic.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
What is a new feature of the Cisco ISR router?
A. FICON ports
B. Cisco CallManager 5.0 support
C. warm Cisco IOS upgrade feature
D. packet voice data module
E. advanced integration module

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. For interface FastEthernet0/0, what will happen to dscp af11 traffic if the queue for class “newclass” reaches a depth of 40?

A. All packets will be dropped.
B. One out of ten packets will be dropped.
C. A random number of packets will be dropped.
D. No packets will be dropped until the queue depth reaches 265.
E. Packets will be dropped according to the exponential weight setting.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. You have a non-Cisco switch that is not communicating properly while connected to the distribution-layer Cisco switching fabric. Which two best-practice actions can you take to overcome this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Turn off MST (802.1s) on all switches.
B. Turn on MST (802.1s) on all switches.
C. Turn on RSTP (802.1w) on all switches.
D. Turn off RSTP (802.1w) on all switches.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 49
What is required to enable fragmentation of large FTP packets when voice quality on the network is affected by FTP transfers?
A. Configure MLP on the Frame Relay interfaces.
B. Configure TCP header compression on interfaces.
C. Fragmentation is not supported with service internetworking.
D. Configure FRF.12 fragmentation on the Frame Relay interfaces.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit. What is the HSRP state and priority of this interface after HSRP reaches its steady state?

A. Active, Priority 151
B. Active, Priority 201
C. Active, Priority 251
D. Standby, Priority 151
E. Standby, Priority 201
F. Standby, Priority 251

Correct Answer: D

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